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  • Params order in Foo.new(params[:foo]), need one before the other (Rails)

    - by Jeena
    I have a problem which I don't know how to fix. It has to do with the unsorted params hash. I have a object Reservation which has a virtual time= attribute and a virtual eating_session= attribute when I set the time= I also want to validate it via an external server request. I do that with help of the method times() which makes a lookup on a other server and saves all possible times in the @times variable. The problem now is that the method times() needs the eating_session attribute to find out which times are valid, but rails sometimes calls the times= method first, before there is any eating_session in the Reservation object when I just do @reservation = Reservation.new(params[:reservation]) class ReservationsController < ApplicationController def new @reservation = Reservation.new(params[:reservation]) # ... end end class Reservation < ActiveRecord::Base include SoapClient attr_accessor :date, :time belongs_to :eating_session def time=(time) @time = times.find { |t| t[:time] == time } end def times return @times if defined? @times @times = [] response = call_soap :search_availability { # eating_session is sometimes nil :session_id => eating_session.code, # <- HERE IS THE PROBLEM :dining_date => date } response[:result].each do |result| @times << { :time => "#{DateTime.parse(result[:time]).strftime("%H:%M")}", :correlation_data => result[:correlation_data] } end @times end end I have no idea how to fix this, any help is apriciated.

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  • How to get all active parameters in ASP.NET MVC (2)

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I was wondering whether there is a way to create an ActionLink or similar, that changes only a few parameters of the actual query, and keeps all the other parameters intact. For example if I'm on an URL like http://example.com/Posts/Index?Page=5&OrderBy=Name&OrderDesc=True I want to change only the Page, or OrderBy parameter and keep all other parameters the same, even those I don't yet know of (like when I want to add a Search parameter or something similar too). The header of my current action looks like this: public ActionResult Index(int? Page, string OrderBy, bool? Desc) and I'm only interested in the values that this controller "eats". I want however that when I extend this action (for example with a string Search parameter) the links should work the same way as before. Here is what I did already: Create a new RouteValueDictionary and fill it with everything from RouteData.Values Problem: This only fills the parameters that are used in the Routing, so all other optional parameters (like Page) to the controller are lost Add everything from HttpContext.Request.QueryString to the previous dictionary This is what I am currently using Problem: It might have some junk stuff, that the Controller didn`t ask for, and it doesn't work if the page was loaded using POST. You also don't have any ModelBindings (but this isn't much of a problem, because we are re-sending everything anyway) Use HttpContext.Request.Params Problem: this has too much junk data which imho one shouldn't add to a RouteValueDictionary that is passed to an ActionLink So the questions: Is there an RVD that has all the data that was passed to the Controller and was used by it? Is this solution good, or are there any caveats I didn't think about (mainly in the context of changing a few query parameters while keeping the others intact)? Is there a way to filter out the "junk" data from the Params object?

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  • How to save a picture to a file?

    - by Peter vdL
    I'm trying to use a standard Intent that will take a picture, then allow approval or retake. Then I want to save the picture into a file. Here's the Intent I am using: Intent intent = new Intent(android.provider.MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE ); startActivityForResult( intent, 22 ); The docs at http://developer.android.com/reference/android/provider/MediaStore.html#ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE say "The caller may pass an extra EXTRA_OUTPUT to control where this image will be written. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is not present, then a small sized image is returned as a Bitmap object in the extra field. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is present, then the full-sized image will be written to the Uri value of EXTRA_OUTPUT." I don't pass extra output, I hope to get a Bitmap object in the extra field of the Intent passed into onActivityResult() (for this request). So where/how do you extract it? Intent has a getExtras(), but that returns a Bundle, and Bundle wants a key string to give you something back. What do you invoke on the Intent to extract the bitmap?

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  • Using Java PDFBox library to write Russian PDF

    - by Brad
    Hello , I am using a Java library called PDFBox trying to write text to a PDF. It works perfect for English text, but when i tried to write Russian text inside the PDF the letters appeared so strange. It seems the problem is in the font used, but i am not so sure about that, so i hope if anyone could guide me through this. Here is the important code lines : PDTrueTypeFont font = PDTrueTypeFont.loadTTF( pdfFile, new File( "fonts/VREMACCI.TTF" ) ); // Windows Russian font imported to write the Russian text. font.setEncoding( new WinAnsiEncoding() ); // Define the Encoding used in writing. // Some code here to open the PDF & define a new page. contentStream.drawString( "??????? ????????????" ); // Write the Russian text. The WinAnsiEncoding source code is : Click here --------------------- Edit on 18 November 2009 After some investigation, i am now sure it is an Encoding problem, this could be solved by defining my own Encoding using the helpful PDFBox class called DictionaryEncoding. I am not sure how to use it, but here is what i have tried until now : COSDictionary cosDic = new COSDictionary(); cosDic.setString( COSName.getPDFName("Ercyrillic"), "0420 " ); // Russian letter. font.setEncoding( new DictionaryEncoding( cosDic ) ); This does not work, as it seems i am filling the dictionary in a wrong way, when i write a PDF page using this it appears blank. The DictionaryEncoding source code is : Click here Thanks . . .

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  • Change NSTimer interval for repeating timer.

    - by user300713
    Hi, I am running a mainLoop in Cocoa using an NSTimer set up like this: mainLoopTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0/fps target:self selector:@selector(mainloop) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] addTimer:mainLoopTimer forMode:NSEventTrackingRunLoopMode]; At Program startup I set the timeInterval to 0.0 so that the mainloop runs as fast as possible. Anyways, I would like to provide a function to set the framerate(and thus the time interval of the timer) to a specific value at runtime. Unfortunately as far as I know that means that I have to reinitialize the timer since Cocoa does not provide a function like "setTimerInterval" This is what I tried: - (void)setFrameRate:(float)aFps { NSLog(@"setFrameRate"); [mainLoopTimer invalidate]; mainLoopTimer = nil; mainLoopTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0/aFps target:self selector:@selector(mainloop) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] addTimer:mainLoopTimer forMode:NSEventTrackingRunLoopMode]; } but this throws the following error and stops the mainloop: 2010-06-09 11:14:15.868 myTarget[7313:a0f] setFrameRate 2010-06-09 11:14:15.868 myTarget[7313:a0f] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x40cd80 of class __NSCFDate autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 11:14:15.869 myTarget[7313:a0f] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x40e700 of class NSCFTimer autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 0.614628 I also tried to recreate the timer using the "retain" keyword, but that didn't change anything. Any ideas about how to dynamically change the interval of an NSTimer at runtime? Thanks!

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  • Retrieve data from .dat file.

    - by Zach
    We have an application which requires us to read data from a file (.dat) dynamically using deserialization. We are actually getting first object and it throws null pointer exception when we are accessing other objects using a "for" loop. File file=null; FileOutputStream fos=null; BufferedOutputStream bos=null; ObjectOutputStream oos=null; try{ file=new File("account4.dat"); fos=new FileOutputStream(file,true); bos=new BufferedOutputStream(fos); oos=new ObjectOutputStream(bos); oos.writeObject(m); System.out.println("object serialized"); amlist=new MemberAccountList(); oos.close(); } catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } Reading objects: try{ MemberAccount m1; file=new File("account4.dat");//add your code here fis=new FileInputStream(file); bis=new BufferedInputStream(fis); ois=new ObjectInputStream(bis); System.out.println(ois.readObject()); while(ois.readObject()!=null){ m1=(MemberAccount)ois.readObject(); System.out.println(m1.toString()); }/mList.addElement(m1); // Here we have the issue throwing null pointer exception Enumeration elist=mList.elements(); while(elist.hasMoreElements()){ obj=elist.nextElement(); System.out.println(obj.toString()); }/ } catch(ClassNotFoundException e){ } catch(EOFException e){ System.out.println("end"); } catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); }

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  • Follow tab's url in jquery ui tabs

    - by Aakash Chakravarthy
    Hello, I have jquery tabs like <ul id="tabsList"> <li><a href="#tab-1">Name 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tab-2">Name 2</a></li> <li><a href="http://www.google.com/">Name 3</a></li> </ul> <div id="tab-1">content 1</div> <div id="tab-2">content 2</div> the first two tabs load the respective divs. But the third one should go to google.com, instead it does nothing. It just adds http://example.com/index.html#ui-tabs-[object Object] to the url. I am developing a wordpress plugin and the admin page needs a tab interface. I tested this in a local server and not working update: i don't want to load google.com inside the page. It should open the webpage in new tab/window like ordinary links do.

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  • ObjC: Alloc instance of Class and performing selectors on it leads to __CFRequireConcreteImplementat

    - by Arakyd
    Hi, I'm new to Objective-C and I'd like to abstract my database access using a model class like this: @interface LectureModel : NSMutableDictionary { } -(NSString*)title; -(NSDate*)begin; ... @end I use the dictionary methods setValue:forKey: to store attributes and return these in the getters. Now I want to read these models from a sqlite database by using the Class dynamically. + (NSArray*)findBySQL:(NSString*)sql intoModelClass:(Class)modelClass { NSMutableArray* models = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] autorelease]; sqlite3* db = sqlite3_open(...); sqlite3_stmt* result = NULL; sqlite3_prepare_v2(db, [sql UTF8String], -1, &result, NULL); while(sqlite3_step(result) == SQLITE_ROW) { id modelInstance = [[modelClass alloc] init]; for (int i = 0; i < sqlite3_column_count(result); ++i) { NSString* key = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:sqlite3_column_name(result, i)]; NSString* value = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(const char*)sqlite3_column_text(result, i)]; if([modelInstance respondsToSelector:@selector(setValue:forKey:)]) [modelInstance setValue:value forKey:key]; } [models addObject:modelInstance]; } sqlite3_finalize(result); sqlite3_close(db); return models; } Funny thing is, the respondsToSelector: works, but if I try (in the debugger) to step over [modelInstance setValue:value forKey:key], it will throw an exception, and the stacktrace looks like: #0 0x302ac924 in ___TERMINATING_DUE_TO_UNCAUGHT_EXCEPTION___ #1 0x991d9509 in objc_exception_throw #2 0x302d6e4d in __CFRequireConcreteImplementation #3 0x00024d92 in +[DBManager findBySQL:intoModelClass:] at DBManager.m:114 #4 0x0001ea86 in -[FavoritesViewController initializeTableData:] at FavoritesViewController.m:423 #5 0x0001ee41 in -[FavoritesViewController initializeTableData] at FavoritesViewController.m:540 #6 0x305359da in __NSFireDelayedPerform #7 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific #8 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode #9 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal #10 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun #11 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain #12 0x00002988 in main at main.m:14 So, what's wrong with this? Presumably I'm doing something really stupid and just don't see it... Many thanks in advance for your answers, Arakyd :..

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  • Is Structuremap singleton thread safe?

    - by Ben
    Hi, Currently I have the following class: public class PluginManager { private static bool s_initialized; private static object s_lock = new object(); public static void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { lock (s_lock) { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } } } The important thing here is that Initialize() should only be executed once whilst the application is running. I thought that I would refactor this into a singleton class since this would be more thread safe?: public sealed class PluginService { static PluginService() { } private static PluginService _instance = new PluginService(); public static PluginService Instance { get { return _instance; } } private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } Question one, is it still necessary to have the lock here (I have removed it) since we will only ever be working on the same instance? Finally, I want to use DI and structure map to initialize my servcices so I have refactored as below: public interface IPluginService { void Initialize(); } public class NewPluginService : IPluginService { private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } And in my registry: ForRequestedType<IPluginService>() .TheDefaultIsConcreteType<NewPluginService>().AsSingletons(); This works as expected (singleton returning true in the following code): var instance1 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); var instance2 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); bool singleton = (instance1 == instance2); So my next question, is the structure map solution as thread safe as the singleton class (second example). The only downside is that this would still allow NewPluginService to be instantiated directly (if not using structure map). Many thanks, Ben

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  • How to serialize a Bundle?

    - by hermo
    I'd like to serialize a Bundle object, but can't seem to find a simple way of doing it. Using Parcel doesn't seem like an option, since I want to store the serialized data to file. Any ideas on ways to do this? The reason I want this is to save and restore the state of my activity, also when it's killed by the user. I already create a Bundle with the state I want to save in onSaveInstanceState. But android only keeps this Bundle when the activity is killed by the SYSTEM. When the user kills the activity, I need to store it myself. Hence i'd like to serialize and store it to file. Of course, if you have any other way of accomplishing the same thing, i'd be thankful for that too. Edit: I decided to encode my state as a JSONObject instead of a Bundle. The JSON object can then be put in a Bundle as a Serializable, or stored to file. Probably not the most efficient way, but it's simple, and it seems to work ok.

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  • How do i write this jpql query?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, Say i have 5 tables, tblBlogs tblBlogPosts tblBlogPostComment tblUser tblBlogMember BlogId BlogPostsId BlogPostCommentId UserId BlogMemberId BlogTitle BlogId CommentText FirstName UserId PostTitle BlogPostsId BlogId BlogMemberId Now i want to retrieve only those blogs and posts for which blogMember has actually commented. So in short, how do i write this plain old sql :- Select b.BlogTitle, bp.PostTitle, bpc.CommentText from tblBlogs b Inner join tblBlogPosts bp on b.BlogId = bp.BlogId Inner Join tblBlogPostComment bpc on bp.BlogPostsId = bpc.BlogPostsId Inner Join tblBlogMember bm On bpc.BlogMemberId = bm.BlogMemberId Where bm.UserId = 1; As you can see, everything is Inner join, so only that row will be retrieved for which the user has commented on some post of some blog. So, suppose he has joined 3 blogs whose ids are 1,2,3 (The blogs which user has joined are in tblBlogMembers) but the user has only commented in blog 2 (of say BlogPostId = 1). So that row will be retrieved and 1,3 won't as it is Inner Join. How do i write this kind of query in jpql? In jpql, we can only write simple queries like say :- Select bm.blogId from tblBlogMember Where bm.UserId = objUser; Where objUser is supplied using :- em.find(User.class,1); Thus once we get all blogs(Here blogId represents a blog object) which user has joined, we can loop through and do all fancy things. But i don't want to fall in this looping business and write all this things in my java code. Instead, i want to leave that for database engine to do. So, how do i write the above plain sql into jpql? and what type of object the jpql query will return? because i am only selecting few fields from all table. In which class should i typecast the result to? I think i posted my requirement correctly, if i am not clear please let me know. Thanks in advance :).

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  • event.target doesn't work

    - by rdesign
    Hey guys, I've wrote some jquery code with some draggable elements and one droparea. Unfortunately my droparea can't make a difference between various object. Here's my code. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#droparea").droppable({ drop: function(event) { var $target = $(event.target); if($target.is("#flyer")) { alert("adasd"); } } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="droparea"></div> <div class="polaroid" id="flyer"> <img src="images/muesliFlyer.png" alt="flyer" /> </div> Without the if it works. But then I can't get the dropped object. Any ideas why my target isn't recognized? thanks a lot.

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  • Weird switch behavior in .NET 4

    - by RaYell
    I have a problem understanding what's causes the compilation error in the code below: static class Program { static void Main() { dynamic x = ""; var test = foo(x); if (test == "test") { Console.WriteLine(test); } switch (test) { case "test": Console.WriteLine(test); break; } } private static string foo(object item) { return "bar"; } } The error I get is in switch (test) line: A switch expression or case label must be a bool, char, string, integral, enum, or corresponding nullable type. Intellisence shows me that foo operation will be resolved on runtime, which is fine because I'm using a dynamic type as a param. However I don't understand how if condition compiles fine when switch doesn't. Code above is just simplified version of what I have in my application (VSTO) which appeared after migrating the app from VSTO3 to VSTO4 when one method in VSTO was changed to return dynamic type values instead of object. Can anyone give me an explanation what's the problem. I know how to resolve it but I'd like to understand what's happening.

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  • destroy cfwindow in javascript 'is not a function'

    - by Ryan French
    Hi All, Having an issue here that I have tried everything I can think of but cant get it to work. I have a page with a link that creates a cfwindow like so function create_window(ID){ var config = new Object(); config.modal=true; config.center=true; config.height=775; config.width=700; config.resizable=false; config.closable=false; config.draggable=false; config.refreshonshow=true; ColdFusion.Window.create('newWindow','Window Title', '/source/url'+ID, config) The window is created and the URL has the ID parsed to it that is used for displaying the correct item in the window. This all works fine. The problem is when I try and close the window and open a new window with a different item being displayed, the URL is not changed. I realise that this is because the window is being hidden, and not destroyed, and therefore it is the same window being opened. So I have created an onHide event handler to destroy the window like so. function showItemDetails(){ var ID=document.getElementById("sList").value create_window(ID); ColdFusion.Window.onHide('newWindow', refreshList); } function refreshList(){ ColdFusion.bindHandlerCache['sList'].call(); ColdFusion.Window.destroy('newWindow',true); } Now when I close the window Firebug is returning the error "ColdFusion.Window.destroy is not a function" (In IE the error is "Object doesn't support this property or method"). I have made sure we are running the latest version of ColdFusion 8.01 on the server (as I know that .destroy wasnt added until 8.01) and have applied the latest hotfixes to the server as well. Any ideas?

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  • Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

    - by user169867
    I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

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  • MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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  • SSL with private key on an HSM

    - by Jason
    I have a client-server architecture in my application that uses SSL. Currently, the private key is stored in CAPI's key store location. For security reasons, I'd like to store the key in a safer place, ideally a hardware signing module (HSM) that is built for this purpose. Unfortunately, with the private key stored on such a device, I can't figure out how to use it in my application. On the server, I am simply using the SslStream class and the AuthenticateAsServer(...) call. This method takes an X509Certificate object that has its private key loaded, but since the private key is stored in a secure (e.g. non exportable) location on the HSM, I don't know how to do this. On the client, I am using an HttpWebRequest object and then using the ClientCertificates property to add my client authentication certificate, but I have the same problem here: how do I get the private key? I know there are some HSMs that act as SSL accelerators but I don't really need an accelerator. Also, these products tend to have special integration with web servers such as IIS and Apache which I'm not using. Any ideas? The only thing I can think of would be to write my own SSL library that would allow me to hand off the signing portion of the transaction to the HSM, but this seems like a huge amount of work.

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  • Get "term is undefined” error when trying to assign arrayList to List component dataSource

    - by user1814467
    I'm creating an online game where people log in and then have the list of current players displayed. When the user enters a "room" it dispatches an SFSEvent which includes a Room object with the list of users as User objects in that room. As that event's callback function, I get the list of current users which is an Array, switch the View Stack child index, and then I wrap the user list array in an ArrayList before I assign it to the MXML Spark List component's dataSource. Here's my code: My Actionscript Code Section (PreGame.as): private function onRoomJoin(event:SFSEvent):void { const room:Room = this._sfs.getRoomByName(PREGAME_ROOM); this.selectedChild = waitingRoom; /** I know I should be using event listeners * but this is a temporary fix, otherwise * I keep getting null object errors * do to the li_users list not being * created in time for the dataProvider assignment **/ setTimeout(function ():void { const userList:ArrayList = new ArrayList(room.userList); this.li_users.dataProvider = userList; // This is where the error gets thrown },1000); } My MXML Code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:ViewStack xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" initialize="preGame_initializeHandler(event)" > <fx:Script source="PreGame.as"/> <s:NavigatorContent id="nc_loginScreen"> /** Login Screen Code **/ </s:NavigatorContent> /** Start of Waiting Room code **/ <s:NavigatorContent id="waitingRoom"> <s:Panel id="pn_users" width="400" height="400" title="Users"> /** This is the List in question **/ <s:List id="li_users" width="100%" height="100%"/> </s:Panel> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:ViewStack> However, I keep getting this error: TypeError: Error #1010: A term is undefined and has no properties Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The arrayList has data, so I know it's not empty/null.

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  • How do you create a non-Thread-based Guice custom Scope?

    - by Russ
    It seems that all Guice's out-of-the-box Scope implementations are inherently Thread-based (or ignore Threads entirely): Scopes.SINGLETON and Scopes.NO_SCOPE ignore Threads and are the edge cases: global scope and no scope. ServletScopes.REQUEST and ServletScopes.SESSION ultimately depend on retrieving scoped objects from a ThreadLocal<Context>. The retrieved Context holds a reference to the HttpServletRequest that holds a reference to the scoped objects stored as named attributes (where name is derived from com.google.inject.Key). Class SimpleScope from the custom scope Guice wiki also provides a per-Thread implementation using a ThreadLocal<Map<Key<?>, Object>> member variable. With that preamble, my question is this: how does one go about creating a non-Thread-based Scope? It seems that something that I can use to look up a Map<Key<?>, Object> is missing, as the only things passed in to Scope.scope() are a Key<T> and a Provider<T>. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • C#, create virtual directory on remote system

    - by sankar
    The following code create only virtual directory on local system , but i need to create on remote sytem ..help me.. Thanks, Sankar DirectoryEntry iisServer; string VirDirSchemaName = "IIsWebVirtualDir"; public DirectoryEntry Connect() { try { if (txtPath.Text.ToLower().Trim() == "localhost") iisServer = new DirectoryEntry("IIS://" + txtPath.Text.Trim() + "/W3SVC/1/Root"); else iisServer = new DirectoryEntry("IIS://" + txtPath.Text + "/Schema/AppIsolated", "XYZ", "xyz"); iisServer.Dispose(); } catch (Exception e) { throw new Exception("Could not connect to: " + txtPath.Text.Trim(), e); } return iisServer; } public void CreateVirtualDirectory(DirectoryEntry iisServer) { DirectoryEntry folderRoot = new DirectoryEntry("IIS://" + txtPath.Text + "/W3SVC/1/Root", "XYZ", "xyz"); folderRoot.RefreshCache(); folderRoot.CommitChanges(); try { DirectoryEntry newVirDir = folderRoot.Children.Add(txtName.Text, VirDirSchemaName); newVirDir.CommitChanges(); newVirDir.Properties["AccessRead"].Add(true); newVirDir.Properties["Path"].Add(@"\\abc\abc"); newVirDir.Invoke("AppCreate", true); newVirDir.CommitChanges(); folderRoot.CommitChanges(); newVirDir.Close(); folderRoot.CommitChanges(); } catch (Exception e) { throw new Exception("Error! Virtual Directory Not Created", e); } } protected void btnCreate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CreateVirtualDirectory(Connect()); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { }

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  • How best to embed multiple Flash Player instances using swfobject via a usercontrol?

    - by panamack
    I have a ListView on a Page within a MasterPage and some very ugly ugly autogenerated IDs. Such as..."ctl00_workbenchPlaceHolder_ListView1_ctrl1_LibItem2One" Using swfobject.embedSWF(...) requires me to hand over the id of a div on my page that can be replaced with object/embed markup depending on the browser context. My aim is to show the user a collection of video's they have uploaded to their website so they can review them and change some related data if desired. Hence the ListView which is populated via a SQLDataSource which currently provides a number of URLs pointing to .flv files. But it ain't gonna work if I put a <div id="replaceme"></div>' in my user control because I may then have more than one id="replaceme" and poor swfobject won't like it. So my evil solution is to put an <asp:Literal> in my usercontrol and build the script, function name and div tag id as a string. ApplyVideoConfiguration is called if the library object retreived from the database is a video and switches to the relevant View of a MultiView control. protected void ApplyVideoConfiguration() { MultiViewLibItem.ActiveViewIndex = 3; string functionName = "MakeFlashFor_" + this.ClientID; string divId = "fp" + this.ClientID; VideoScriptLiteral.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + "Sys.Application.add_load(" + functionName + ");" + "function " + functionName + "(){" + "swfobject.embedSWF('PanamaVideoThumbnail.swf', '" + divId + "', '140', '127', '10');" + "};" + "</script>" + "<div id=\"" + divId + "\" ></div>" ; } I was wondering, just how bad a solution is this, I'm really completely inexperienced when it comes to best practices but my instincts are telling me this is bad, although it does succeed in the aim of embedding some Flash Player instances. Can anyone help me make it beautiful?

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • Secure Password Storage and Transfer

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I'm developing a new user store for my organisation and am now tackling password storage. The concepts of salting, HMAC etc are all fine with me - and want to store the users' passwords either salted and hashed, HMAC hashed, or HMAC salted and hashed - not sure what the best way will be - but in theory it won't matter as it will be able to change over time if required. I want to have an XML & JSON service that can act as a Security Token Service for client-side apps. I've already developed one for another system, which requires that the client double-encrypts a clear-text password using SHA1 first and then HMACSHA1 using a 128 unique key (or nonce) supplied by the server for that session only. I'd like to repeat this technique for the new system - upgrading the algo to SHA256 (chosen since implementations are readily available for all aforementioned platforms - and it's much stronger than SHA1) - but there is a problem. If I'm storing the password as a salted hash in the user-store, the client will need to be sent that salt in order to construct the correct hash before being HMACd with the unique session key. This would completely go against the point of using a salt in the first place. Equally, if I don't use salt for password storage, but instead use HMAC, it's still the same problem. At the moment, the only solution I can see is to use naked SHA256 hashing for the password in the user store, so that I can then use this as a starting point on both the server and the client for a more secure salted/hmacd password transfer for the web service. This still leaves the user store vulnerable to a dictionary attack were it ever to be accessed; and however unlikely that might be - assuming it will never happen simply doesn't sit well with me. Greatly appreciate any input.

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  • CodeDom : compile partial class

    - by James
    I'm attempting to compile code in a text file to change a value in a TextBox on the main form of a WinForms application. Ie. add another partial class with method to the calling form. The form has one button (button1) and one TextBox (textBox1). The code in the text file is: this.textBox1.Text = "Hello World!!"; And the code: namespace WinFormCodeCompile { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Load code from file StreamReader sReader = new StreamReader(@"Code.txt"); string input = sReader.ReadToEnd(); sReader.Close(); // Code literal string code = @"using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WinFormCodeCompile { public partial class Form1 : Form { public void UpdateText() {" + input + @" } } }"; // Compile code CSharpCodeProvider cProv = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters cParams = new CompilerParameters(); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("mscorlib.dll"); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); cParams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Windows.Forms.dll"); cParams.GenerateExecutable = false; cParams.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults cResults = cProv.CompileAssemblyFromSource(cParams, code); // Check for errors if (cResults.Errors.Count != 0) { foreach (var er in cResults.Errors) { MessageBox.Show(er.ToString()); } } else { // Attempt to execute method. object obj = cResults.CompiledAssembly.CreateInstance("WinFormCodeCompile.Form1"); Type t = obj.GetType(); t.InvokeMember("UpdateText", BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); } } } } When I compile the code, the CompilerResults returns an error that says WinFormCodeCompile.Form1 does not contain a definition for textBox1. Is there a way to dynamically create another partial class file to the calling assembly and execute that code? I assume I'm missing something really simple here.

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  • When can a == b be false and a.Equals(b) true?

    - by alastairs
    I ran into this situation today. I have an object which I'm testing for equality; the Create() method returns a subclass implementation of MyObject. MyObject a = MyObject.Create(); MyObject b = MyObject.Create(); a == b; // is false a.Equals(b); // is true Note I have also over-ridden Equals() in the subclass implementation, which does a very basic check to see whether or not the passed-in object is null and is of the subclass's type. If both those conditions are met, the objects are deemed to be equal. The other slightly odd thing is that my unit test suite does some tests similar to Assert.AreEqual(MyObject.Create(), MyObject.Create()); // Green bar and the expected result is observed. Therefore I guess that NUnit uses a.Equals(b) under the covers, rather than a == b as I had assumed. Side note: I program in a mixture of .NET and Java, so I might be mixing up my expectations/assumptions here. I thought, however, that a == b worked more consistently in .NET than it did in Java where you often have to use equals() to test equality.

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