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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • Connect to SQLite Database using Eclipse (Java)

    - by bnabilos
    Hello, I'm trying to connect to SQLite database with Ecplise but I have some errors. This is my Java code and the errors that I get on output. Please see if you can help me. Thank you in advance. package jdb; import java.sql.*; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { Class.forName("org.sqlite.JDBC"); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:sqlite:/Applications/MAMP/db/sqlite/test.sqlite"); Statement stat = conn.createStatement(); stat.executeUpdate("drop table if exists people;"); stat.executeUpdate("create table people (name, occupation);"); PreparedStatement prep = conn.prepareStatement( "insert into people values (?, ?);"); prep.setString(1, "Gandhi"); prep.setString(2, "politics"); prep.addBatch(); prep.setString(1, "Turing"); prep.setString(2, "computers"); prep.addBatch(); prep.setString(1, "Wittgenstein"); prep.setString(2, "smartypants"); prep.addBatch(); conn.setAutoCommit(false); prep.executeBatch(); conn.setAutoCommit(true); ResultSet rs = stat.executeQuery("select * from people;"); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println("name = " + rs.getString("name")); System.out.println("job = " + rs.getString("occupation")); } rs.close(); conn.close(); } } ans that what I get in Ecplise : Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.sqlite.JDBC at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:315) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:330) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:250) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:398) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169) at jdb.Test.main(Test.java:7) Thank you

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  • CakePHP 1.3.4: EmailComponent error - Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller

    - by Kevin S.
    I'm trying to develop an invitation system for my website which runs on CakePHP 1.3.4. I am trying to use the built in EmailComponent to send an email. I'm getting this error (expanded): Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Code | Context */ function _render($content) { $viewClass = $this-Controller-view; $content = array( "", "" ) EmailComponent::_render() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428 EmailComponent::send() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 368 UsersController::send_quick_add_email() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 77 UsersController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 104 SinglesResultsController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/singles_results_controller.php, line 63 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 204 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 171 [main] - APP/webroot/index.php, line 83 I also get the following, which I can expand if necessary: Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Undefined property: View::$webroot [CORE/cake/libs/view/view.php, line 805] Warning (2): Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/cake/cake/libs/debugger.php:673) [CORE/cake/libs/controller/controller.php, line 746] I think that the EmailComponent object holds a reference to the controller it's being called from. I don't know why it's undefined in this case. Here is the code that fails (specifically, it errors on the call to $this-Email-send()): function send_quick_add_email($email) { if($email) { $this->Email->reset(); $this->Email->to = $email; $this->Email->subject = 'Some subject text'; $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'email_template'; $this->set('user', $user); $this->set('token', $token); $this->Email->delivery = 'debug'; $this->Email->send(); } } Ok, for more clarification: The main data I am collecting on the site is results of a game played in meatspace. SinglesResultsController has an action, quick_add, which expects email addresses of people not already registered on the site. If the email addresses aren't associated with Users, UsersController::quick_add is called, which creates an inactive user, and sends an invitation email in UsersController::send_quick_add_email() I think the problem is related to the fact that the email isn't being sent in the first controller initialized (SinglesResultsController). Any thoughts on how to make it work? The Email component is declared at the top of both Controllers.

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  • Android Couchdb - libcouch and IPC Aidl Services

    - by dirtySanchez
    I am working on a native CouchdDB app with android. Now just this week CouchOne released libcouch, described as "Library files needed to interact with CouchDB on Android": couchone_libcouch@Github It is a basic app that installs CouchDB if the CouchDB service (that comes with CouchDB if it was installed previously) can't be bound to. To be more precise, as I understand it: libcouch estimates CouchDb's presence on the device by trying to bind to a IPC Service from CouchDB and through that service wants communicate with CouchDB. Please see the method "attemptLaunch()" at CouchAppLauncher.class for reviewing this: public void attemptLaunch() { Log.i(TAG,"1.) called attemptLaunch"); Intent intent = new Intent(ICouchService.class.getName()); Log.i(TAG,"1.a) setup Intent"); Boolean canStart = bindService(intent, couchServiceConn, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); Log.i(TAG,"1.b bound service. canStart: " + Boolean.toString(canStart)); if (!canStart) { setContentView(R.layout.install_couchdb); TextView label = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.install_couchdb_text); Button btn = (Button) this.findViewById(R.id.install_couchdb_btn); String text = getString(R.string.app_name) + " requires Apache CouchDB to be installed."; label.setText(text); // Launching the market will fail on emulators btn.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { launchMarket(); finish(); } }); } } The question(s) I have about this are: libcouch never is able to "find" a previously installed CouchDB. It always attempts to install CouchDB from the market. This is because it never actually is able to bind to the CouchDBService. As I understand the purpose auf AIDL generated service interfaces, the actual service that intends to offer it's IPC to other applications should make use of AIDL. In this case the AIDL has been moved to the application that is trying to bind to the remote service, which is libcouch in this case. Reviewing the commits the AIDL files have just been moved out of that repository to libcouch. For complete linkage, here's the link to the Android CouchDB sources: github.com/couchone/libcouch-android Now, I could be completely wrong in my findings, it could also be lincouch's Manifest that s missing something, but I am really looking forward to get some answers!

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  • Generating custom-form documents from base-form plus XML?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Hi all, this is my first stack overflow, and it's a complex one. Sorry. My task is to generate custom documents from a basic template plus some XML without having a custom form design element for each case. Here's the whole picture: We are building a Lotus Notes (client, not web) application for world-wide application access control; the scope is something like 400.000 users being able to request access to any of 1000+ applications. Each application needs its own request form -- different number of approvers, various info required, that sort of thing. We simply can't have a thousand forms in a database (one per application), and anyway their maintenance really needs to be pushed from the developers to the application owners. So instead of custom forms, we'd like to create a generic "template" form that stores a block of basic fields, but then allows application owners to define another block of fields dynamically -- "I want a mandatory plain-text field named 'Name' here, and then a date field named 'Due' here that must be later than today's date, and then ...". I hope this makes sense (if not, think of it as a generic questionnaire application). I pretty much have the structure in place for designing the dynamic fields (form builder GUI - XML-encoded data - pre-rendered DXL for injecting into a form), including mark-up for field types, value options, and rudimentary field validation instructions. My problem is generating a document with this dynamic content injected at the proper location (without needing a custom form design element for each case). Doing the dynamic content via HTML is out. The Notes client web rendering is simply way too poor, and it would be quite a challenge to implement things like field validation instructions, date selectors, and name look-ups. DXL, on the other hand, would allow us to use native Notes fields and code. As a tech demo, I've managed to implement a custom form generator that injects the pre-rendered DXL for the dynamic content into a base form; but as I said, we don't want a ton of custom form design elements. I've tried to implement a way to create a document with the "store form in document" flag set, but once I've created the document from the base form, I can't get DXL access to the stored form design, and so I can't inject my dynamic content. I know this is not something Notes was ever intended to do. Has anyone ever tried something like it (and gotten away with it)? Thanks for reading this far. With a boatload of thanks in advance, Jan Gundtofte-Bruun

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • Interoperability between two AES algorithms

    - by lpfavreau
    Hello, I'm new to cryptography and I'm building some test applications to try and understand the basics of it. I'm not trying to build the algorithms from scratch but I'm trying to make two different AES-256 implementation talk to each other. I've got a database that was populated with this Javascript implementation stored in Base64. Now, I'm trying to get an Objective-C method to decrypt its content but I'm a little lost as to where the differences in the implementations are. I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Javascript and I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Cocoa but cannot make a string encrypted in Javascript decrypted in Cocoa or vice-versa. I'm guessing it's related to the initialization vector, nonce, counter mode of operation or all of these, which quite frankly, doesn't speak to me at the moment. Here's what I'm using in Objective-C, adapted mainly from this and this: @implementation NSString (Crypto) - (NSString *)encryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [self dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:TRUE]; return [Base64 encode:output]; } - (NSString *)decryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [Base64 decode:self]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:FALSE]; return [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:output encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } + (NSData *)cryptoAES256:(NSData *)input key:(NSString *)key doEncrypt:(BOOL)doEncrypt { // 'key' should be 32 bytes for AES256, will be null-padded otherwise char keyPtr[kCCKeySizeAES256 + 1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero(keyPtr, sizeof(keyPtr)); // fill with zeroes (for padding) // fetch key data [key getCString:keyPtr maxLength:sizeof(keyPtr) encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSUInteger dataLength = [input length]; // See the doc: For block ciphers, the output size will always be less than or // equal to the input size plus the size of one block. // That's why we need to add the size of one block here size_t bufferSize = dataLength + kCCBlockSizeAES128; void* buffer = malloc(bufferSize); size_t numBytesCrypted = 0; CCCryptorStatus cryptStatus = CCCrypt(doEncrypt ? kCCEncrypt : kCCDecrypt, kCCAlgorithmAES128, kCCOptionECBMode | kCCOptionPKCS7Padding, keyPtr, kCCKeySizeAES256, nil, // initialization vector (optional) [input bytes], dataLength, // input buffer, bufferSize, // output &numBytesCrypted ); if (cryptStatus == kCCSuccess) { // the returned NSData takes ownership of the buffer and will free it on deallocation return [NSData dataWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:numBytesCrypted]; } free(buffer); // free the buffer; return nil; } @end Of course, the input is Base64 decoded beforehand. I see that each encryption with the same key and same content in Javascript gives a different encrypted string, which is not the case with the Objective-C implementation that always give the same encrypted string. I've read the answers of this post and it makes me believe I'm right about something along the lines of vector initialization but I'd need your help to pinpoint what's going on exactly. Thank you!

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  • Android pluginable application

    - by Alxandr
    I've been trying to create an android-application the last couple of weeks, and mostly everything has worked out great, but there is one thing that I was wondering about, and that is pluginability trough the use of intents. What I'm trying to create is basically a comic-reader. As of the version I use now, I open the application and get a list of commics that are my favourites, then I enter one to get a detailed view, and finally I enter a page. This is managed trough 3 activities. List, Details and Page. However, as of now the application can only read comics of one source (a specialiced xml-feed comming from my server), and I was hoping to be able to expand this a litle (also, the page-activity and some other stuff needs to be cleaned up in, so I'm thinking about remaking from scratch, and just take the first go as a learning-round). And I came up with an idea which I think sounds great, but I don't know if it's possible, but this is what I'm thinking about: The user enters the application and get an (first time empty) list of comics. The user hits a button to find comics, this launces an intent that says something like "find comic" or something like that. This should cause the system to display all matching activities. This would make it possible to provide different comic-providers trough different applications. Another activity kicks in and might displays some options to the user (for instance a file-browser), or might not (in the example of an xml-feed, which should just load). The list is returned to the first activity and displayed to the user. The second (find) activity is closed. The user picks a comic from the list. This should open some details-activity. The details-activity should receive a key which corresponds to the comic selected. This should be unique amongst the comic-providers. The details-view should get it's data trough some cind of content-provider, or an activity (whichever is most suited, if one of them is). The user can select a page. This should be the same routine as step 5. My question is, is this possible in the android system, and if it is, is it a bad idea? And also, is there any better way to achieve more or less the same thing?

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  • C# mvc 3 using selectlist with selected value in view

    - by Rob
    I'm working on a MVC3 web application. I want a list of categories shown when editing a blo from whe applications managements system. In my viewmodel i've got the following property defined for a list of selectlistitems for categories. /// <summary> /// The List of categories /// </summary> [Display(Name = "Categorie")] public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Categories { get; set; } The next step, my controller contains the following edit action where the list of selectlistitems is filled from the database. public ActionResult Edit(Guid id) { var blogToEdit = _blogService.First(x => x.Id.Equals(id)); var listOfCategories = _categorieService.GetAll(); var selectList = listOfCategories.Select(x =>new SelectListItem{Text = x.Name, Value = x.Id.ToString(), Selected = x.Id.Equals(blogToEdit.Category.Id)}).ToList(); selectList.Insert(0, new SelectListItem{Text = Messages.SelectAnItem, Value = Messages.SelectAnItem}); var viewModel = new BlogModel { BlogId = blogToEdit.Id, Active = blogToEdit.Actief, Content = blogToEdit.Text, Title = blogToEdit.Titel, Categories = selectList //at this point i see the expected item being selected //Categories = new IEnumerable<SelectListItem>(listOfCategories, "Id", "Naam", blogToEdit.CategorieId) }; return View(viewModel); } When i set a breakpoint just before the view is being returned, i see that the selectlist is filled as i expected. So at this point everything seems to be okay. The viewmodel is filled entirely correct. Then in my view (i'm using Razor) i've got the following two rules which are supposed to render the selectlist for me. @Html.LabelFor(m => m.Categories) @Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.Categories, Model.Categories, Model.CategoryId) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Categories) When I run the code and open the view to edit my blog, I can see all the correct data. Also the selectlist is rendered correctly, but the item i want to be selected lost it's selection. How can this be? Until the point the viewmodel is being returned with the view everything is okay. But when i view the webpage in the browser, the selectlist is there only with out the correct selection. What am I missing here? Or doing wrong?

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  • How do I update with a newly-created detached entity using NHibernate?

    - by Daniel T.
    Explanation: Let's say I have an object graph that's nested several levels deep and each entity has a bi-directional relationship with each other. A -> B -> C -> D -> E Or in other words, A has a collection of B and B has a reference back to A, and B has a collection of C and C has a reference back to B, etc... Now let's say I want to edit some data for an instance ofC. In Winforms, I would use something like this: var instanceOfC; using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // get the instance of C with Id = 3 instanceOfC = session.Linq<C>().Where(x => x.Id == 3); } SendToUIAndLetUserUpdateData(instanceOfC); using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // re-attach the detached entity and update it session.Update(instanceOfC); } In plain English, we grab a persistent instance out of the database, detach it, give it to the UI layer for editing, then re-attach it and save it back to the database. Problem: This works fine for Winform applications because we're using the same entity all throughout, the only difference being that it goes from persistent to detached to persistent again. The problem occurs when I'm using a web service and a browser, sending over JSON data. In this case, the data that comes back is no longer a detached entity, but rather a transient one that just happens to have the same ID as the persistent one. If I use this entity to update, it will wipe out the relationship to B and D unless I sent the entire object graph over to the UI and got it back in one piece. Question: My question is, how do I serialize detached entities over the web, receive them back, and save them, while preserving any relationships that I didn't explicitly change? I know about ISession.SaveOrUpdateCopy and ISession.Merge() (they seem to do the same thing?), but this will still wipe out the relationships if I don't explicitly set them. I could copy the fields from the transient entity to the persistent entity one by one, but this doesn't work too well when it comes to relationships and I'd have to handle version comparisons manually.

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  • Jboss logging issue - pl check this

    - by balaji
    I’m Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web Please help..

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  • Access violation when running native C++ application that uses a /clr built DLL

    - by doobop
    I'm reorganzing a legacy mixed (managed and unmanaged DLLs) application so that the main application segment is unmanaged MFC and that will call a C++ DLL compiled with /clr flag that will bridge the communication between the managed (C# DLLs) and unmanaged code. Unfortuantely, my changed have resulted in an Access violation that occurs before the application InitInstance() is called. This makes it very difficult to debug. The only information I get is the following stack trace. > 64006108() ntdll.dll!_ZwCreateMutant@16() + 0xc bytes kernel32.dll!_CreateMutexW@12() + 0x7a bytes So, here are some sceanrios I've tried. - Turned on Exceptions-Win32 Exceptions-c0000005 Access Violation to break when Thrown. Still the most detail I get is from the above stack trace. I've tried the application with F10, but it fails before any breakpoints are hit and fails with the above stack trace. - I've stubbed out the bridge DLL so that it only has one method that returns a bool and that method is coded to just return false (no C# code called). bool DllPassthrough::IsFailed() { return false; } If the stubbed out DLL is compiled with the /clr flag, the application fails. If it is compiled without the /clr flag, the application runs. - I've created a stub MFC application using the Visual Studio wizard for multidocument applications and call DllPassthrough::IsFailed(). This succeeds even with the /clr flag used to compile the DLL. - I've tried doing a manual LoadLibrary on winmm.lib as outlined in the following note Access violation when using c++/cli. The application still fails. So, my questions are how to solve the problem? Any hints, strategies, or previous incidents. And, failing that, how can I get more information on what code segment or library is causing the access exception? If I try more involved workarounds like doing LoadLibrary calls, I'd like to narrow it to the failing libraries. Thanks. BTW, we are using Visual Studio 2008 and the project is being built against the .NET 2.0 framework for the managed sections.

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  • Using mcrypt to pass data across a webservice is failing

    - by adam
    Hi I'm writing an error handler script which encrypts the error data (file, line, error, message etc) and passes the serialized array as a POST variable (using curl) to a script which then logs the error in a central db. I've tested my encrypt/decrypt functions in a single file and the data is encrypted and decrypted fine: define('KEY', 'abc'); define('CYPHER', 'blowfish'); define('MODE', 'cfb'); function encrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $iv = mcrypt_create_iv(mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td), MCRYPT_RAND); mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $crypttext = mcrypt_generic($td, $data); mcrypt_generic_deinit($td); return $iv.$crypttext; } function decrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $ivsize = mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td); $iv = substr($data, 0, $ivsize); $data = substr($data, $ivsize); if ($iv) { mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $data = mdecrypt_generic($td, $data); } return $data; } echo "<pre>"; $data = md5(''); echo "Data: $data\n"; $e = encrypt($data); echo "Encrypted: $e\n"; $d = decrypt($e); echo "Decrypted: $d\n"; Output: Data: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e Encrypted: ê÷#¯KžViiÖŠŒÆÜ,ÑFÕUW£´Œt?†÷>c×åóéè+„N Decrypted: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e The problem is, when I put the encrypt function in my transmit file (tx.php) and the decrypt in my recieve file (rx.php), the data is not fully decrypted (both files have the same set of constants for key, cypher and mode). Data before passing: a:4:{s:3:"err";i:1024;s:3:"msg";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";s:46:"/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Data decrypted: Mª4:{s:3:"err";i:1024@7OYªç`^;g";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";sôÔ8F•Ópplications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Note the random characters in the middle. My curl is fairly simple: $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, 'data=' . $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $output = curl_exec($ch); Things I suspect could be causing this: Encoding of the curl request Something to do with mcrypt padding missing bytes I've been staring at it too long and have missed something really really obvious If I turn off the crypt functions (so the transfer tx-rx is unencrypted) the data is received fine. Any and all help much appreciated! Thanks, Adam

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  • Strange problem publishing a fresh Ruby on Rails 3 application on localhost (Apache, Passenger and VirtualHosts)

    - by user502052
    I recently created a new Ruby on Rails 3 application locally on a Mac OS, named "test". Since I use apache2, in the private/etc/apache2/httpd.conf I set the VirtualHost for the "test" application: <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost:443 DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> Of course I restart apache2, but trying to access to http://test.pjtmain.localhost/ I have this error message from: FIREFOX Oops! Firefox could not find test.pjtmain.localhost Suggestions: * Search on Google: ... SAFARI Safari can’t find the server. Safari can’t open the page “http://test.pjtmain.localhost/” because Safari can’t find the server “test.pjtmain.localhost”. I have other RoR3 applications setted like that above in the httpd.conf file and all them work. What is the problem (maybe it is not related to apache...)? Notes: 1. Using the 'Network Uility' I did a Ping with the following result: ping: cannot resolve test.pjtmain.localhost: Unknown host and I did a Lookup with the follonwing result: ; <<>> DiG 9.6.0-APPLE-P2 <<>> test.pjtmain.localhost +multiline +nocomments +nocmd +noquestion +nostats +search ;; global options: +cmd <MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. 115 IN SOA dns1.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. dnsmaster.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. ( 2010110500 ; serial 10800 ; refresh (3 hours) 900 ; retry (15 minutes) 604800 ; expire (1 week) 86400 ; minimum (1 day) ) 2. I am using Phusion Passenger 3. Since I not changed nothing to the new "test" application, I expect to see the default RoR index.html page: 4. It seems that in the 'Console Messages' there is any warning or error

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  • Myself throwing NullReferenceException... needs help

    - by Amit Ranjan
    I know it might be a weird question and its Title too, but i need your help. I am a .net dev , working on platform for the last 1.5 years. I am bit confused on the term usually we say " A Good Programmer ". I dont know ,what are the qualities of a good programmer ? Is the guy who writes a bug free code? or Can develop applications solely? or blah blah blah...lots of points. I dont know... But as far i am concerned , I know I am not a good programmer, still in learning phase an needs a lot to learn in coming days. So you guys are requested to please help me with this two problems of mine My first problem is regarding the proper Error Handling, which is a most debatable aspect of programming. We all know we use ` try { } catch { } finally { } ` in our code to manage exception. But even if I use try { } catch(exception ex) { throw ex } finally { } , different guys have different views. I still dont know the good way to handle errors. I can write code, use try-catch but still i feel I lacks something. When I saw the codes generated by .net fx tools even they uses throw ex or `throw new Exception("this is my exception")`.. I am just wondering what will be the best way to achieve the above. All means the same thing but why we avoid something. If it has some demerits then it must be made obselete.Anyways I still dont have one [how to handle errors efficiently?]. I generally follow the try-catch(execoption ex){throw ex}, and usually got stucked in debates with leads why you follow this why not that... 2.Converting your entire code blocks in modules using Design patterns of some OOPs concepts. How do you guys decide what architeture or pattern will be the best for my upcoming application based on its working, flow etc. I need to know what you guys can see that I can't. Since I know , I dont have that much experience but I can say, with my experience that experience doesnot comes either from degree/certificates or success you made instead it cames from failures you faced or got stucking situations. Pleas help me out.

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  • Alert on gridview edit based on permission

    - by Vicky
    I have a gridview with edit option at the start of the row. Also I maintain a seperate table called Permission where I maintain user permissions. I have three different types of permissions like Admin, Leads, Programmers. These all three will have access to the gridview. Except admin if anyone tries to edit the gridview on clicking the edit option, I need to give an alert like This row has important validation and make sure you make proper changes. When I edit, the action with happen on table called Application. The table has a column called Comments. Also the alert should happen only when they try to edit rows where the Comments column have these values in them. ManLog datas Funding Approved Exported Applications My try so far. public bool IsApplicationUser(string userName) { return CheckUser(userName); } public static bool CheckUser(string userName) { string CS = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(CS)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select * from Permissions where AppCode='Nest' and UserID = '" + userName + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(dt); } if (dt.Rows.Count >= 1) return true; else return true; } protected void Details_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { string currentUser = HttpContext.Current.Request.LogonUserIdentity.Name; string str = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); string[] words = currentUser.Split('\\'); currentUser = words[1]; bool appuser = IsApplicationUser(currentUser); if (appuser) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(str)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select Role_Cd from User_Role where AppCode='PM' and UserID = '" + currentUser + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(ds); } if (e.CommandName.Equals("Edit") && ds.Tables[0].Rows[0]["Role_Cd"].ToString().Trim() != "ADMIN") { int index = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); GridView gvCurrentGrid = (GridView)sender; GridViewRow row = gvCurrentGrid.Rows[index]; string strID = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblID")).Text; string strAppName = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblAppName")).Text; Response.Redirect("AddApplication.aspx?ID=" + strID + "&AppName=" + strAppName + "&Edit=True"); } } } Kindly let me know if I need to add something. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

    - by Workshop Alex
    I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

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  • JavaScript - Cross Site Scripting - Permission Denied

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a web application for which I am trying to use Twitter's OAuth functionality. This application has a link that prompts a user for their Twitter credentials. When a user clicks this link, a new window is opened via JavaScript. This window serves as a dialog. This is accomplished like such: MainPage: <div id="promptDiv"><a href="#" onclick="launchDialog('twitter/prompt.aspx');">Provide Credentials</a></div> ... function launchDialog(url) { var specs = "location=0,menubar=0,status=0,titlebar=0,toolbar=0"; var dialogWindow = window.open(url, "dialog", specs, true); } When a user clicks the link, they are redirected to Twitter's site from the prompt.aspx page. On the Twitter site, the user has the option to enter their Twitter credentials. When they have provided their credentials, they are redirected back to my site. This is accomplished through a callback url which can be set for applications on Twitter's site. When the callback happens, the user is redirected to "/twitter/confirm.aspx" on my site in the dialog window. When this happens I want to update the contents of "promptDiv" to say "You have successfully connected with Twitter" to replace the link and close the dialog. This serves the purpose of notifying the user they have successfully completed this step. I can successfully close the dialog window. However, when I am try to update the HTML DOM, I receive an error that says "Error: Permission denied to get property Window.document". In an attempt to update the HTML DOM, I tried using the following script in "/twitter/confirm.aspx": // Error is thrown on the first line. var confirmDiv = window.opener.document.getElementById("confirmDiv"); if (confirmDiv != null) { // Update the contents } window.close(); I then just tried to read the HTML to see if I could even access the DOM via the following script: alert(window.opener.document.body.innerHTML); When I attempted this, I still got a "Permission denied" error. I know this has something to do with cross-site scripting. However, I do not know how to resolve it. How do I fix this problem? Am I structuring my application incorrectly? How do I update the HTML DOM after a user has been redirected back to my site? Thank you for your help!

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  • Issues declaring already existing NSMutableArray in new class

    - by Graeme
    I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items) which is located in the (TableView) subclass. Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the (items) NSMutableArray. Herein lies the issue - I need to somehow get the data from the (items) NSMutableArray into the new (mapView) subclass which I'm struggling with - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the mapView class when it already is in the applications memory. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) class to the (mapView) class (i.e. how do I declare the NSMutableArray in the (mapView) class)? Here's a overview of how the system works: App opened Data downloaded (using DataImporter class) when (TableView) viewDidLoad runs Data stored in NSMutableArray accessible by the (TableView) class And from here I need to access and declare the array from a new (mapView) class. Any help greatly appreciated, thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into original NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • How do you create a MANIFEST.MF that's available when you're testing and running from a jar in produ

    - by warvair
    I've spent far too much time trying to figure this out. This should be the simplest thing and everyone who distributes Java applications in jars must have to deal with it. I just want to know the proper way to add versioning to my Java app so that I can access the version information when I'm testing, e.g. debugging in Eclipse and running from a jar. Here's what I have in my build.xml: <target name="jar" depends = "compile"> <property name="version.num" value="1.0.0"/> <buildnumber file="build.num"/> <tstamp> <format property="TODAY" pattern="yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss" /> </tstamp> <manifest file="${build}/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"> <attribute name="Built-By" value="${user.name}" /> <attribute name="Built-Date" value="${TODAY}" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Title" value="MyApp" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Vendor" value="MyCompany" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Version" value="${version.num}-b${build.number}"/> </manifest> <jar destfile="${build}/myapp.jar" basedir="${build}" excludes="*.jar" /> </target> This creates /META-INF/MANIFEST.MF and I can read the values when I'm debugging in Eclipse thusly: public MyClass() { try { InputStream stream = getClass().getResourceAsStream("/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"); Manifest manifest = new Manifest(stream); Attributes attributes = manifest.getMainAttributes(); String implementationTitle = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Title"); String implementationVersion = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Version"); String builtDate = attributes.getValue("Built-Date"); String builtBy = attributes.getValue("Built-By"); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error("Couldn't read manifest."); } } But, when I create the jar file, it loads the manifest of another jar (presumably the first jar loaded by the application - in my case, activation.jar). Also, the following code doesn't work either although all the proper values are in the manifest file. Package thisPackage = getClass().getPackage(); String implementationVersion = thisPackage.getImplementationVersion(); Any ideas?

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  • AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

    - by Joern
    Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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  • Java Socket Connection is flooding network OR resulting in high ping

    - by user1461100
    i have a little problem with my java socket code. I'm writing an android client application which is sending data to a java multithreaded socket server on my pc through direct(!) wireless connection. It works fine but i want to improve it for mobile applications as it is very power consuming by now. When i remove two special lines in my code, the cpu usage of my mobile device (htc one x) is totally okay but then my connection seems to have high ping rates or something like that... Here is a server code snippet where i receive the clients data: while(true) { try { .... Object obj = in.readObject(); if(obj != null) { Class clazz = obj.getClass(); String className = clazz.getName(); if(className.equals("java.lang.String")) { String cmd = (String)obj; if(cmd.equals("dc")) { System.out.println("Client "+id+" disconnected!"); Server.connectedClients[id-1] = false; break; } if(cmd.substring(0,1).equals("!")) { robot.keyRelease(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } else { robot.keyPress(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } } } } catch .... Heres the client part, where i send my data in a while loop: private void networking() { try { if(client != null) { .... out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); .... } } catch .... when i write it this why, i send data everytime the while loop gets executed.. when sendQueue is empty, a null "Object" will be send. this results in "high" network traffic and in "high" cpu usage. BUT: all send comments are received nearly immediately. when i change the code to following: while(true) ... if(sendQueue.peek() != null) { out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); } ... the cpu usage is totally okay but i'm getting some laggs.. the commands do not arrive fast enough.. as i said, it works fine (besides cpu usage) if i'm sending data(with that null objects) every while execution. but i'm sure that this is very rough coding style because i'm kind of flooding the network. any hints? what am i doing wrong?? Thanks for your Help! Sincerly yours, maaft

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  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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