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  • MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

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  • Drupal Views api, add simple argument handler

    - by LanguaFlash
    Background: I have a complex search form that stores the query and it's hash in a cache. Once the cache is set, I redirect to something like /searchresults/e6c86fadc7e4b7a2d068932efc9cc358 where that big long string on the end is the md5 hash of my query. I need to make a new argument for views to know what the hash is good for. The reason for all this hastle is because my original search form is way to complex and has way to many arguments to consider putting them all into the path and expecting to do the filtering with the normal views arguments. Now for my question. I have been reading views 2 documentation but not figuring out how to accomplish this custom argument. It doesn't seem to me like this should be as hard as it seems to me like it must be. Leaving aside any knowledge of the veiws api, it would seem that all I need is a callback function that will take the argument from the path as it's only argument and return a list of node id's to filter to. Can anyone point me to a solution or give me some example code? Thanks for your help! You guys are great. PS. I am pretty sure that my design is the best I can come up with, lets don't get off my question and into cross checking my design logic if we can help it.

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Shrinking the Transaction Log - Any way to automate?

    - by Albert
    I went in and checked my Transaction log the other day and it was something crazy like 15GB. I ran the following code: USE mydb GO BACKUP LOG mydb WITH TRUNCATE_ONLY GO DBCC SHRINKFILE(mydb_log,8) GO Which worked fine, shrank it down to 8MB...but the DB in question is a Log Shipping Publisher, and the log is already back up to some 500MB and growing quick. Is there any way to automate this log shrinking, outside of creating a custom "Execute T-SQL Statement Task" Maintenance Plan Task, and hooking it on to my log backup task? If that's the best way then fine...but I was just thinking that SQL Server would have a better way of dealing with this. I thought it was supposed to shrink automatically whenever you took a log backup, but that's not happening (perhaps because of my log shipping, I don't know). Here's my current backup plan: Full backups every night Transaction log backups once a day, late morning (maybe hook the Log shrinking onto this...doesn't need to be shrank every day though) Or maybe I just run it once a week, after I run a full backup task? What do you all think?

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  • stuck with enable session state

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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  • Accesing WinCE ComboBox DroppedDown property (.NET CF 2.0)

    - by PabloG
    I'm implementing custom behavior sub-classing the form controls, but I cannot manage to access the DroppedDown property of the ComboBox. Looking in the help, it's supposed to be supported in CF.NET 2.0: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace xCustomControls { public partial class xComboBox : System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox { private ComboBox comboBox1; public xComboBox() { InitializeComponent(); this.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(this.KeyDownHandler); } private void KeyDownHandler(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { // DroppedDown doesn't appear in the IntelliSense of ComboBox. // or this.comboBox1. if (((ComboBox)sender).DroppedDown) // fail! return; switch (e.KeyData) { case Keys.Up: case Keys.Enter: case Keys.Down: e.Handled = true; this.Parent.SelectNextControl((Control)sender, e.KeyData != Keys.Up, true, true, true); ... fails with 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'DroppedDown' and no extension method 'DroppedDown' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' could be found How can I access the property? TIA, Pablo

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  • Django Testing: Faking User Creation

    - by Ygam
    I want to better write this test: def test_profile_created(self): self.client.post(reverse('registration_register'), data={ 'username':'ygam', 'email':'[email protected]', 'password1':'ygam', 'password2':'ygam' }) """ Test if a profile is created on save """ user = User.objects.get(username='ygam') self.assertTrue(UserProfile.objects.filter(user=user).exists()) and I just came upon this code on django-registration tests that does not actually "create" the user: def test_registration_signal(self): def receiver(sender, **kwargs): self.failUnless('user' in kwargs) self.assertEqual(kwargs['user'].username, 'bob') self.failUnless('request' in kwargs) self.failUnless(isinstance(kwargs['request'], WSGIRequest)) received_signals.append(kwargs.get('signal')) received_signals = [] signals.user_registered.connect(receiver, sender=self.backend.__class__) self.backend.register(_mock_request(), username='bob', email='[email protected]', password1='secret') self.assertEqual(len(received_signals), 1) self.assertEqual(received_signals, [signals.user_registered]) However he used a custom function for this "_mock_request": class _MockRequestClient(Client): def request(self, **request): environ = { 'HTTP_COOKIE': self.cookies, 'PATH_INFO': '/', 'QUERY_STRING': '', 'REMOTE_ADDR': '127.0.0.1', 'REQUEST_METHOD': 'GET', 'SCRIPT_NAME': '', 'SERVER_NAME': 'testserver', 'SERVER_PORT': '80', 'SERVER_PROTOCOL': 'HTTP/1.1', 'wsgi.version': (1,0), 'wsgi.url_scheme': 'http', 'wsgi.errors': self.errors, 'wsgi.multiprocess':True, 'wsgi.multithread': False, 'wsgi.run_once': False, 'wsgi.input': None, } environ.update(self.defaults) environ.update(request) request = WSGIRequest(environ) # We have to manually add a session since we'll be bypassing # the middleware chain. session_middleware = SessionMiddleware() session_middleware.process_request(request) return request def _mock_request(): return _MockRequestClient().request() However, it may be too long of a function for my needs. I want to be able to somehow "fake" the account creation. I have not much experience on mocks and stubs so any help would do. Thanks!

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  • Customizing orchard theme parts

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, I am trying to write a custom theme for orchard and am not having much success so far. I have read Bertrand Le Roy's article on part alternates but I can't seem to get it to work. I am displaying a list of recent blog posts on the front page, pretty standard. I wish to change the markup produced by the meta data part i.e the time format. I have written a IShapeTableProvider to create blog specific alternates for the metadata summary part. public class MetaDataShapeProvider : IShapeTableProvider { private readonly IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor; public MetaDataShapeProvider(IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor) { this.workContextAccessor = workContextAccessor; } public void Discover(ShapeTableBuilder builder) { builder .Describe("Parts_Common_Metadata_Summary") .OnDisplaying(displaying => { ContentItem contentItem = displaying.Shape.ContentItem; if (contentItem != null) displaying.ShapeMetadata.Alternates.Add("Metadata__" + contentItem.ContentType); }); } } This is being caught correctly but the contentItem is null. Should I just create an alternate with a fixed name like "Metadata-BlogPost" and use that, to make this general purpose it should really be a dynamic name so I can use another alternate template elsewhere. Thanks, Ian

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  • Dynamically populated NSPopUpButtonCell menu in an NSOutlineView

    - by Mo
    I’m working with an NSOutlineView which has two columns. My dataSource supplies the outline view with a tree of items of a custom class which represents file types (that is, you initialise it with a UTI). The first column is the display name of the file type (e.g., “Source code”, “Interface Builder NIB document”, etc.). The second column is an NSPopUpButtonCell which is supposed to allow the user to pick a handler for the given document type (think of Xcode’s “File Types” preference pane, and you’re pretty much there). I can generate an NSMenu for a given item in the tree, populated with options based upon the Launch Services database entries for the UTI, complete with the relevant application icon and and so on. In fact, the menu itself works wonderfully, populated by way of NSPopUpButtonCellWillPopUpNotification. The problem is, try as I might, the cell when the menu isn’t popped up always contains precisely one of two things: either an empty string, or the default text for the cell, the former if the result of -handlerName on the item (the attribute assigned to the column) is non-nil, the latter otherwise. Moreover, I’m manually calling -selectItem: on the NSPopUpButtonCell instance, which just seems Wrong. In contrast, the left-hand column, which is just an NSTextFieldCell, everything just works (although granted, all it’s got to do is read the value from the item and present it). (Disclaimer: I’m fairly new at Cocoa UI stuff; I know Objective-C, and lots of other programming languages, but I’ve not a huge amount of experience of building Mac OS X UIs, so be gentle).

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  • Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

    - by john c
    OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

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  • Protocol specific channel handlers

    - by Mickael Marrache
    I'm writing an application server that will receive SIP and DNS messages from the network. When I receive a message from the network, I understand from the documentation that at first, I get a ChannelBuffer. I would like to determine which kind of message has been received (SIP or DNS) and to decode it. To determine the message type, I can dedicate port to each type of message, but I would be interested to know if there exist another solution for that. My question is more about how to decode the ChannelBuffer. Is there a ChannelHandler provided by Netty to decode SIP or DNS messages? If not, what would be the right place in the type hierarchy to write my custom ChannelHandler? To illustrate my question, let's take as example the HttpRequestDecoder, the hierarchy is: java.lang.Object org.jboss.netty.channel.SimpleChannelUpstreamHandler org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.frame.FrameDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.replay.ReplayingDecoder<HttpMessageDecoder.State> org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpMessageDecoder org.jboss.netty.handler.codec.http.HttpRequestDecoder Also, do I need to use two different ChannelHandler for decoding and encoding, or is there a possibility to use a single ChannelHandler for both? Thanks

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Comparing textbox.text value to value in SQL Server

    - by Anicho
    Okay so I am trying to compare a login textbox password and username with a custom validator using linq to get information from the database it always returns false though on the validator could someone please tell me where my code below is going wrong. This will be very much appreciated... thank you in advanced... protected void LoginValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { TiamoDataContext context = new TiamoDataContext(); var UsernameCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Username; var PasswordCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Password; String test1 = PasswordCheck.ToString(); String test2 = UsernameCheck.ToString(); if (test1 == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text && test2 == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text) { args.IsValid = true; Session["Username"] = TextBoxLoginUsername; Response.Redirect("UserProfile.aspx"); } else { args.IsValid = false; } } I dont know where I am going wrong I know its most probably some sort of silly mistake and me being inexperienced at this...

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  • iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

    - by StuartW
    My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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  • Copy SQL Server data from one server to another on a schedule

    - by rwmnau
    I have a pair of SQL Servers at different webhosts, and I'm looking for a way to periodically update the one server using the other. Here's what I'm looking for: As automated as possible - ideally, without any involvement on my part once it's set up. Pushes a number of databases, in their entirely (including any schema changes) from one server to the other Freely allows changes on the source server without breaking my process. For this reason, I don't want to use replication, as I'd have to break it every time there's an update on the source, and then recreate the publication and subscription One database is about 4GB in size and contains binary data. I'm not sure if there's a way to export this to a script, but it would be a mammoth file if I did. Originally, I was thinking of writing something that takes a scheduled full backup of each database, FTPs the backups from one server to the other once they're done, and then the new server picks it up and restores it. The only downside I can see to this is that there's no way to know that the backups are done before starting to transfer them - can these backups be done synchronously? Also, the server being refreshes is our test server, so if there's some downtime involved in moving the data, that's fine. Does anybody out there have a better idea, or is what I'm currently considering the best non-replication way to go? Thanks for your help, everybody. UPDATE: I ended up designing a custom solution to get this done using BAT files, 7Zip,command line FTP, and OSQL, so it runs in a completely automatic way and aggregates the data from a dozen servers across the country. I've detailed the steps in a blog entry. Thanks for all your input!

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  • How to nest joins with CakePHP?

    - by Daren Thomas
    I'm trying to behave. So, instead of using following SQL syntax: select * from tableA INNER JOIN tableB on tableA.id = tableB.tableA_id LEFT OUTER JOIN ( tableC INNER JOIN tableD on tableC.tableD_id = tableD.id) on tableC.tableA_id = tableA.id I'd like to use the CakePHP model->find(). This will let me use the Paginator too, since that will not work with custom SQL queries as far as I understand (unless you hardcode one single pagination query to the model which seems a little inflexible to me). What I've tried so far: /* inside tableA_controller.php, inside an action, e.g. "view" */ $this->paginate['recursive'] = -1; # suppress model associations for now $this->paginate['joins'] = array( array( 'table' => 'tableB', 'alias' => 'TableB', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableB.tableA_id = TableA.id', ), array( 'table' => 'tableC', 'alias' => 'TableC', 'type' => 'left', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableA_id = TableA.id', 'joins' = array( # this would be the obvious way to do it, but doesn't work array( 'table' => 'tableD', 'alias' => 'TableD', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableD_id = TableD.id' ) ) ) ) That is, nesting the joins into the structure. But that doesn't work (CakePHP just ignores the nested 'joins' element which was kind of what I expected, but sad. I have seen hints in comments on how to do subqueries (in the where clause) using a statement builder. Can a similar trick be used here?

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  • Creating an HTTP-Redirected Virtual Directopry in IIS 6.0 without specifying physical path & WMI/ADS

    - by Steve Johnson
    My question is : Is it possible to create a working IIS 6.0 Virtual Directory with providing Physical Path of the Virtual Directory.? I know that manually, it is not possible via IIS but programmatically such a virtual directory can be created. If an HTTPRedirect is set on that virtual directory but the site physical path is not specified, then will it work? Simply stated, how to create an HTTp-redirected Virtual Directory , directly without specifying any physical path to a folder or network share. Here is my code. Try If Directory.Exists(HomeDirectory) = False And Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then Directory.CreateDirectory(HomeDirectory) End If Dim website As DirectoryEntry website = New DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & IISServer & "/W3SVC/" & WebsiteId & "/Root") Dim NewVDir As DirectoryEntry = website.Children.Add(VDirName, "IIsWebVirtualDir") If Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then NewVDir.Properties("Path")(0) = Path NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect").Clear() Else NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect")(0) = Path End If If ((Perm And Permission.Read) = Permission.Read) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessRead")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.Write) = Permission.Write) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessWrite")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.DirBrowse) = Permission.DirBrowse) Then NewVDir.Properties("EnableDirBrowsing")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.CreatetApplication) = Permission.CreatetApplication) Then NewVDir.Invoke("AppCreate", True) End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptOnly) = Permission.ScriptOnly) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessScript")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptNExecute) = Permission.ScriptNExecute) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessExecute")(0) = True End If NewVDir.Properties("AuthAnonymous")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AuthNTLM")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserName")(0) = AnonUserName NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserPass")(0) = AnonPassword NewVDir.Properties("AppFriendlyName")(0) = AppFriendlyName NewVDir.CommitChanges() website.CommitChanges() NewVDir.Close() website.Close() Success = True Catch Err As Exception Throw New Exception("My Custom Exception Here: " & Err.Message) End Try

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  • Subsonic, child records, and collections

    - by Dane
    Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

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  • Looking for detailed explanation of Hibernate UserType methods for mutable objects

    - by Tom
    I am creating a custom UserType class in Hibernate. The specific case is for an HL7v3 clinical document (I work in health IT). It is a mutable object and most of the documentation around the Hibernate UserType interface seems to center around immutable types. I want a better understanding of how and when the interface methods are used, specifically: assemble - why two parameters (one Serializable, one Object)? What is the use case for this method? disassemble - should I just implement this method to return a serializable form (e.g. String representation)? When and how is this method invoked? equals - is this for update? read? contention? dirty reads? What are the consequences of simply returning false in most cases? replace - I really don't understand where the three Object parameters come from, when this method is invoked, and what Hibernate expects to return, or how that return value is used. Any pointers would be appreciated. I've searched and read all I can find on the subject, but have not found much documentation at all explaining how these methods are used for mutable objects.

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  • ListView Final Column Autosize creates scrollbar

    - by Courtney de Lautour
    Hi There, I am implementing a custom control which derives from ListView. I would like for the final column to fill the remaining space (Quite a common task), I have gone about this via overriding the OnResize method: protected override void OnResize(EventArgs e) { base.OnResize(e); if (Columns.Count == 0) return; Columns[Columns.Count - 1].Width = -2; // -2 = Fill remaining space } or via another method: protected override void OnResize(EventArgs e) { base.OnResize(e); if (!_autoFillLastColumn) return; if (Columns.Count == 0) return; int TotalWidth = 0; int i = 0; for (; i < Columns.Count - 1; i++) { TotalWidth += Columns[i].Width; } Columns[i].Width = this.DisplayRectangle.Width - TotalWidth; } Edit: This works fine until I dock the ListView into a parent container and resize via that control. Every second time the control size shrinks (IE, drag the the border one pixel), I get a scroll bar on the bottom which can't move at all (not even one pixel). The result of which is when I drag the size of the parent I am left with a flickering scroll bar in the ListView, and a 50% chance it will be there when the dragging stops.

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  • UITableView not responding to row selection until a different row is selected

    - by Larry Fransson
    This is driving me nuts. I have searched on everything I can think of to find a solution but haven't found one yet. I've got a UITableView that uses custom cells. The accessory is the detail disclosure button. I would like the cell to respond to either row selection or the disclosure button being tapped. It responds to the disclosure button just as you would expect. But selecting the row is a different story. When I select the row, it highlights, but nothing happens until I tap a different row. Then the previously selected row does what it was supposed to do, which is to create and push a new view controller for that row. If I tap a single row five times and then tap a different row, it then creates and pushes five view controllers for that first row. It does this both in the simulator and on the device. What's really maddening is that I have another tableview in the same application that responds correctly to row selection or tapping the detail disclosure button. I can't find anything I've done differently between the two. Has anyone seen this before?

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  • Control Attributes render Encoded on dot net 4 - how to disable the encoding ?

    - by Aristos
    I have an issue in asp.net 4. When I add an attribute on controls, then the render it encoded. For example, when I type this code txtQuestion.Attributes["onfocus"] = "if(this.value == this.title) { this.value = ''; this.style.backgroundColor='#FEFDE0'; this.style.color='#000000'; }"; I get render onfocus="if(this.value == this.title){this.value = &#39;&#39;;this.style.backgroundColor=&#39;#FEFDE0&#39;; this.style.color=&#39;#000000&#39;;}" And every ' hash been change to & #39; Is there a way to disable this new future only on some controls ? or an easy way to make a custom render ? My Fail tries I have all ready try some thinks but I fail. For example this fails. txtQuestion.RenderingCompatibility = new Version("3.5"); I also locate the point that this attributes renders and is on public virtual void RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag tagKey) function, there every attribute have a flag if he wish to be encoded, but I do not know how can anyone set it or not. Anyway, thank you in advanced.

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  • ASP.NET output caching - dynamically update dependencies

    - by ColinE
    Hi All, I have an ASP.NET application which requires output caching. I need to invalidate the cached items when the data returned from a web service changes, so a simple duration is not good enough. I have been doing a bit of reading about cache dependencies and think I have the right idea. It looks like I will need to create a cache dependency to my web service. To associate the page output with this dependency I think I should use the following method: Response.AddCacheItemDependency(cacheKey); The thing I am struggling with is what I should add to the cache? The dependency my page has is to a single value returned by the web service. My current thinking is that I should create a Custom Cache Dependency via subclassing CacheDependency, and store the current value in the cache. I can then use Response.AddCacheItemDependency to form the dependency. I can then periodically check the value and for a NotifyDependencyChange in order to invalidate my cached HTTP response. The problem is, I need to ensure that the cache is flushed immediately, so a periodic check is not good enough. How can I ensure that my dependant object in the cache which represents the value returned by the web service is re-evaluated before the HTTP response is fetched from the cache? Regards, Colin E.

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  • UISlider how to set the initial value

    - by slim
    I'm pretty new at this iphone dev stuff and i'm working on some existing code at a company. The uislider i'm trying to set the initial value on is actually in a UITableViewCell and is a custom control. I was thinking in the cell init cell = (QuantitiesCell *)[self loadCellWithNibName:@"QuantitiesCell" forTableView:ltableView withStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault]; i could just call something like ((QuantitiesCell *)cell).value = 5; The actual QuantitiesCell class has the member value and the following functions -(void)initCell;{ if (listOfValues == nil) { [self initListOfValues]; } quantitiesSLider.maximumValue = [listOfValues count]-1; quantitiesSLider.minimumValue = 0; quantitiesSLider.value = self.value; } -(void)initListOfValues;{ listOfValues = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; int j =0; for (float i = minValue; i <= maxValue+increment; i=i+increment) { [listOfValues addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat: i]]; if (i == value) { quantitiesSLider.value = j; } j++; } } like i said, i'm pretty new at this so if i need to post more of the code to show whats going to get help, let me know, This slider always is defaulting to 1, the slider ranges usually from 1-10, and i want to set it to a specific value of the item i'm trying to edit.

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  • How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

    - by Boydski
    I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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  • spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

    - by mdma
    I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

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