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• Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

  - by Phil Nash

  We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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• XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

  - by rjovic

  Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

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• Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

  - by Marcel Korpel

  As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

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• Reducing Time Complexity in Java

  - by Koeneuze

  Right, this is from an older exam which i'm using to prepare my own exam in january. We are given the following method: public static void Oorspronkelijk() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; int max = -1; char let = '*'; for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { int tel = 1; for (int j=i+1;j<bs.length();j++) { if (bs.charAt(j) == bs.charAt(i)) tel++; } if (tel > max) { max = tel; let = bs.charAt(i); } } System.out.println(max + " keer " + let); } The questions are: what is the output? - Since the code is just an algorithm to determine the most occuring character, the output is "6 keer " (6 times space) What is the time complexity of this code? Fairly sure it's O(n²), unless someone thinks otherwise? Can you reduce the time complexity, and if so, how? Well, you can. I've received some help already and managed to get the following code: public static void Nieuw() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; HashMap<Character, Integer> letters = new HashMap<Character, Integer>(); char max = bs.charAt(0); for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { char let = bs.charAt(i); if(!letters.containsKey(let)) { letters.put(let,0); } int tel = letters.get(let)+1; letters.put(let,tel); if(letters.get(max)<tel) { max = let; } } System.out.println(letters.get(max) + " keer " + max); } However, I'm uncertain of the time complexity of this new code: Is it O(n) because you only use one for-loop, or does the fact we require the use of the HashMap's get methods make it O(n log n) ? And if someone knows an even better way of reducing the time complexity, please do tell! :)

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• Backdoor in OpenBSD how is it that no developer saw it ? And what about other Linux ? [closed]

  - by user310291

  It had been revealed that there have been backdoor implanted in OpenBSD http://www.infoworld.com/d/developer-world/software-security-honesty-the-best-policy-285 OpenBSD is opensource, how is it that nobody in the community developper could see it in the source code ? So how can one trust all the other "opensource" Linux Of course OpenBSD is only a case, the point is not about OpenBSD, it is about opensource in general. my question is not about Openbsd per se it's about source code os inspection especially c/c++ since most are written in these languages. Also once the source is compiled how one can be sure that it really reflects the source code ? If a law requires that a backdoor being implanted and obliges to deny that kind of action under the guise of security, how can you be sure that the system has not been corrupted by some tools ? As said there is there is a "nondisclosure agreement" My guess is that 99.99% of developpers in the world are just incapable of understanding os source code and won't even bother to look at it. And above all nobody wonders about why the gov wants such massive backdoor, and that of course they will pressure medias to deny.

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• Rails routing problem

  - by Steve

  I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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• how to enable iFrame designMode in a local webpage without using the localhost server?

  - by vjk2005

  The code... <html> <body> <iframe id="editableFrame"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> editableFrame.document.designMode="on"; </script> </body> </html> gets the iFrame editable only when run off a server(http://...)(online or from localhost). How do I get this working by simply opening it up as a local html file(file:///...) in the browser? Some browser specific notes: 1. Firefox needs slightly different code to enable designMode but the problem still remains. 2. IE8 gets me the behavior I want with this code, but it pops up a warning about enabling ActiveX controls which the user must accept before getting the iFrame editable. 3. Opera 10.5 is the only browser that has the behavior I want... iFrames are editable without needing to run the code off a server.

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• phpUnit - mock php extended exception object

  - by awongh

  I'm testing some legacy code that extends the default php exception object. This code prints out a custom HTML error message. I would like to mock this exception object in such a way that when the tested code generates an exception it will just echo the basic message instead of giving me the whole HTML message. I cannot figure out a way to do this. It seems like you can test for explicit exceptions, but you can't change in a general way the behavior of an exception, and you also can't mock up an object that extends a default php functionality. ( can't think of another example of this beyond exceptions... but it would seem to be the case ) I guess the problem is, where would you attach the mocked object?? It seems like you can't interfere with 'throw new' and this is the place that the object method is called.... Or if you could somehow use the existing phpunit exception functionality to change the exception behavior the way you want, in a general way for all your code... but this seems like it would be hacky and bad....

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• When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

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• how avoids deadlock condition

  - by rima

  Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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• .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

  - by Ian Boyd

  When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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• Shell script task status monitoring

  - by Bikram Agarwal

  I'm running an ANT task in background and checking in 60 second intervals whether that task is complete or not. If it is not, every 60 seconds, a message should be displayed on screen - "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started", where $slept is 60, 120, 180 n so on. There's a limit of 1200 seconds, after which the script will show the log via 'ant log' command and ask the user whether to continue. If the user chooses to continue, 300 seconds are added to the time limit and the process repeats. The code that I am using for this task is - ant deploy & limit=1200 deploy_check() { while [ ${slept:-0} -le $limit ]; do sleep 60 && slept=`expr ${slept:-0} + 60` if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started." else wait $! && echo "Application ${New_App_Name} deployed successfully" || echo "Deployment of ${New_App_Name} failed" break fi done } deploy_check if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process did not finish in $slept seconds. Here's the log." ant log echo "Do you want to kill the process? Press Ctrl+C to kill. Press Enter to continue." read log limit=`expr ${limit} + 300` deploy_check fi Now, the problem is - this code is not working. This looks like a perfectly good code and yet, this is not working. Can anyone point out what is wrong with this code, please.

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• firefox lead dot in cookie issue

  - by Jon

  Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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• Processing XML form input in ASP

  - by Omar Kooheji

  I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

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• ASP.NET MVC jQuery autocomplete with url.action helper in a script included in a page.

  - by Boob

  I have been building my first ASP.NET MVC web app. I have been using the jQuery autocomplete widget in a number of places like this: <head> $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); </head> The thing is I have this jQuery code in a number of different places through my web app. So i thought I would create a seperate javascript script (script.js) where I could put this code and then just include it in the master page. Then i can put all these repeated pieces of code in that script and just call them where I need too. So I did this. My code is shown below: In the site.js script I put this function: function doAutoComplete() { $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); } On the page I have: <head> <script src="../../Scripts/site.js" type="text/javascript"></script> doAutoComplete(); </head> But when I do this I get an Invalid Argument exception and the autocomplete doesnt work. What am I doing wrong? Any ideas?Do i need to pass something to the doAutoComplete function?

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• How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

  - by Holli

  One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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• Separating Javascript functions

  - by msharma

  I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

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• Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

  - by Matthias Günther

  Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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• RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

  - by AaronS

  I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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• How to I pass parameters to Ruby/Python scripts from inside PHP?

  - by Roger

  Hi, everybody. I need to turn HTML into equivalent Markdown-structured text. From what I could discover, I have only two good choices: Python: Aaron Swartz's html2text.py Ruby: Singpolyma's html2markdown.rb As I am programming in PHP, I need to pass the HTML code, call the Ruby/Python Script and receive the output back. I started creating a simple test just to know if my server was configured to run both languages. PHP code: echo exec('./hi.rb'); Ruby code: #!/usr/bin/ruby puts "Hello World!" It worked fine and I am ready to go to the next step. Unfortunately, all I know is that the function is Ruby works like this: HTML2Markdown.new('<h1>HTMLcode</h1>').to_s I don't know how to make PHP pass the string (with the HTML code) to Ruby nor how to make the ruby script receive the variable and pass it back to PHP (after have parsed it into Markdown). Believe it or not: I know less of Python. A folk made a similar question here ("how to call ruby script from php?") but with no practical information to my case. Any help would be a joy - thanks. Rogério Madureira. atipico.com.br

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• How to query AD to get name email from lan id

  - by Kumar

  I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

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• Returning a CSS element

  - by TMP

  Is there a way to return a CSS element? I was using Adobe Edge and adding some of my own code in their code tab, but in order to create boundaries I would need to keep track of margin-top or margin-left. The following code works to move the element "woo" but I'm not sure how to call the elements to add something like "|| sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left"0px"}) to the move left code. //Move RIGHT if (e.which == 39) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"+=10px"}); } //Move UP else if (e.which == 38) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"-=10px"}); } //Move Left else if (e.which == 37) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"-=10px"}); } //Move DOWN else if (e.which == 40) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"+=10px"}); } EDIT: I changed the Left if statement to the following: else if (e.which == 37 && ($("woo").css("margin-left")>0)) { It seems to be working to some extent except for now it won't move left at all! I tried doing <0 too in case I was screwing up a sign but it won't let me move the element left either.

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• Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object?

  - by Bill

  I am programming in C#; the code was working about a week ago, however it throws an exception and I don't understand at all what could be wrong with it. Var root = new CalculationNode(); -> Throw exception. In the call stack thats the only thing listed, I've been told that it could be that I need a clean build, but I am open to any ideas or suggestions. Thanks, -Bill Update: Exception's Detail System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message=Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Source=Calculator.Logic StackTrace: at ~.Calculator.Logic.MyBaseExpressionParser.Parse(String expression) in ~\Source\Calculator.Logic\MyBaseExpressionParser.cs:line 44 at ~.Calculator.Logic.Tests.MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.BasicMathDivision() in ~\Projects\Tests\Calculator.Logic.Tests\MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.cs:line 60 InnerException: CalculationNode's code: public sealed calss CalculationNode { public CalculationNode() { this.Left = null; this.Right = null; this.Element = new CalculationElement(); } public CalculationNode Left {get;set;} public CalculationNode Right {get;set;} public CalculationElement Element {get; set;} } CalculationElement's code: public sealed class CalculationElement { public CalculationElement() { Value = string.Empty; IsOperator = false; } public string Value {get; set} public bool IsOperator {get; set} }

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• Returning a variable in a public void...

  - by James Rattray

  Hello, I'm abit new to programming Android App's, however I have come across a problem, I can't find a way to make global variables -unlike other coding like php or VB.NET, are global variables possible? If not can someone find a way (and if possible implement the way into the code I will provide below) to get a value from the variable 'songtoplay' so I can use in another Public Void... Here is the code: final Spinner hubSpinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.myspinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.colours, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter .setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); hubSpinner.setAdapter(adapter); // hubSpinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView, View selectedItemView, int position, long id) { //code Object ttestt = hubSpinner.getSelectedItem(); final String test2 = ttestt.toString(); Toast message1 = Toast.makeText(Textbox.this, test2, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); message1.show(); String songtoplay = test2; // Need songtoplay to be available in another 'Public Void' } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView) { //Code } }); Basically, it gets the value from the Spinner 'hubSpinner' and displays it in a Toast. I then want it to return a value for string variable 'songtoplay' -or find a way to make it global or useable in another Public Void, (Which is will a button, -loading the song to be played) Please help me, Thanks alot. James

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