Search Results

Search found 88206 results on 3529 pages for 'code coverage'.

Page 629/3529 | < Previous Page | 625 626 627 628 629 630 631 632 633 634 635 636  | Next Page >

• android send html mail using intent

  - by Javadid

  hi friends... i have generated an html code(complete with tags) as a String... now i want to send this html code as a html to mail... my code is as below.. Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_SEND); intent.setType("text/html"); intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_EMAIL, new String[]{"[email protected]"}); intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_SUBJECT, "I would like to buy the following"); intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT, purchaseOrder()); startActivity(Intent.createChooser(intent, "sending mail")); where the purchaseOrder() is the method which passes me the string having full html code... but though the gmail client opens on my nexus1 but it has the String with all html tags and not the actual html view... i tried the following but got error... The gmail crashed... intent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, purchaseOrder()); Can any1 plz help... Thanx

  Read the article

• Can YAML have inheritance?

  - by Jason

  This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MembershipProvider and StructureMap

  - by Ben

  I was using the default AspNetSqlMembershipProvider in my application. Authentication is performed via an AuthenticationService (since I'm also supporting other forms of membership like OpenID). My AuthenticationService takes a MembershipProvider as a constructor parameter and I am injecting the dependency using StructureMap like so: For<MembershipProvider>().Use(Membership.Provider); This will use the MembershipProvider configured in web.config. All this works great. However, now I have rolled my own MembershipProvider that makes use of a repository class. Since the MembershipProvider isn't exactly IoC friendly, I added the following code to the MembershipProvider.Initialize method: _membershipRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IMembershipRepository>(); However, this raises an exception, like StructureMap hasn't been initialized (cannot get instance of IMembershipRepository). However, if I remove the code and put breakpoints at my MembershipProvider's initialize method and my StructureMap bootstrapper, it does appear that StructureMap is configured before the MembershipProvider is initialized. My only workaround so far is to add the above code to each method in the MembershipProvider that needs the repository. This works fine, but I am curious as to why I can't get my instance in the Initialize method. Is the MembershipProvider performing some internal initialization that runs before any of my own application code does? Thanks Ben

  Read the article

• User Control SiteMap Provider Rendering Error

  - by Serexx

  I have created a Custom Server Control that renders the SiteMap as a pure UL for CSS styling. At run-time it renders properly but in VS2008 Design View VS shows this error: Error Rendering Control - menuMainAn unhandled exception has occurred. The provider 'AspNetXmlSiteMapProvider' specified for the defaultProvider does not exist in the providers collection. I have 'AspNetXmlSiteMapProvider' specified in web.config as per here : link text While I am happy that the code runs properly, the Designer error is bothersome if the underlying issue might cause the code to break in some circumstances so I need to understand what is going on... The code explicitly references the sitemap in the Render Method with : int level = 1; string ul = string.Format("<div class='{0}' id='{1}'>{2}</div>", CssClassName, this.ID.ToString(), EnumerateNodesRecursive(SiteMap.RootNode, level)); output.Write(ul); and the recursive method called referrences SiteMap.CurrentNode. Otherwise there are no explicit sitemap references in the code. Does anyone have any ideas why Deisgner is complaining?

  Read the article

• Multicolumn ListView in WPF - errors

  - by Will

  Hi, I am trying to define a multicolumn listview in xaml (visual studio 2008) and then add items to it in c#. I have seen many posts on this subject, and tried the various methods, but I am getting errors. my xaml code is below, VS does not flag any errors on it. <ListView Height="234.522" Name="chartListView" Width="266.337"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" Width="70"/> <GridViewColumn Header="ID" /> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> to try and add data to the columns, I created a button and put the code in the button click : private void button3_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { chartListView.Items.Add("item1").SubItems.Add("item2"); } the error that is showing is on Subitems is: 'int' does not contain a definition for 'SubItems' and no extension method 'SubItems' accepting a first argument of type 'int' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) D:\devel\VS\pchart\pchart\pchart\Window1.xaml.cs Also, I tried looking at some other posts on listview controls such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1260812/listview-inserting-items i tried the code there : ListViewItem item = new ListViewItem(); item.Text=anInspector.getInspectorName().ToString(); and got almost the same error on item.Text as i did with SubItems. is there something earlier in my code, or project definition that i am missing? Thanks for any help

  Read the article

• Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

  - by Christophe Herreman

  The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

  Read the article

• incorporate simple vimeo video request with jquery carousel

  - by Andrew Welch

  Hi, I did a tutorial for a jquery carousel that scrolls a ul. At the moment the ul is hardcoded, but I want to use a simple call to vimeo api to bring in the videos for a certain user into the carousel. I have uploaded my code here: http://www.welchcreative.co.uk/wp-content/infinitecarouselvimeo.zip My problem is that I don't know where I should put the code for the simple vimeo call, because at the moment, I think that the problem is that the vimeo videos load after the jquery stuff because it uses window.onload rather than document ready and I can't seem to work out how to put the two and two together. Ideally, 1. the code loads the vimeo videos first and puts them in a ul wiht the correct classes. 2. the carousel code then acts on the list above. in that order. I hope that isn't too vague. It's a pretty simple idea. I'm new to javascript and jquery. Thanks Andy

  Read the article

• Windows-Mobile Directshow: Specifying bitrate/quality of a WMV video capture

  - by Landstander

  Hi- I'm stumped on this, and I'm really hoping someone could point me in the right direction. I'm currently capturing video in Windows Mobile and encoding it using the WMV 9 DMO (CLSID_CWMV9EncMediaObject). That all works well enough, but the output video's bitrate is too high, resulting in a video file that's much too large for my needs. Ultimately, my goal is to mimic the video settings that Microsoft's Camera Capture Dialog outputs in the "messaging" quality mode (64kbps) from my C++ code. Currently, my code's outputting a WMV file with a bitrate of 352kbps. The only example I could find of specifying the capture bitrate with a WMV9 DMO was this. The idea in that code was basically to use a propertybag to write a bitrate to a property of the DMO. Update: In windows mobile, the closest codec property I can find that seems to equate to the bitrate is "g_wszWMVCVBRQuality". Microsoft's documentation of this property is extremely confusing to me: It basically seems to say that a higher number equates to a higher quality, but it gives absolutely no explanation of the specifics for each number. When I attempt to set this property to value like "1" via a propertybag for the WMV9 DMO, I run into a -2147467259 (unknown) error. To summarize: What is the basic strategy to specify the bitrate/quality of a video being captured via directshow (wmv9) on a windows mobile platform? I've heard (or wondered about) the following methods: Use the propertybag to change the encoder DMO's property that corresponds to bitrate/quality (currently failing) Create your own custom transcoder/encoder to specify it. This seems unnecessary since the WMV encoder works well enough- it's just at too high a bitrate. The VIDEOINFOHEADER has a bitrate property, but I suspect that specifying new settings here will do nothing to alter the actual encoding process since I wouldn't think file attributes would come into play until after the encoding. Any suggestions? PS: I would post specific source code, but at this point it may confuse more than it helps since I'm floundering so much on how to do this. At this point, I'm just trying to validate the general strategy. THANKS!

  Read the article

• New to Linux Kernel/Driver development...

  - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com

  Recently, i began developing a driver of an embedded device running linux. Until now i have only read about linux internals. Having no prior experience in driver devlopment, i am finding it a tad difficult to land my first step. I have downloaded the kernel source-code (v2.6.32). I have read (skimped) Linux Device Drivers (3e) I read a few related posts here on StackOverflow. I understand that linux has a "monolithic" approach. I have built kernel (included existing driver in menuconfig etc.) I know the basics of kconfig and makefile files so that should not be a problem. Can someone describe the structure (i.e. the inter-links) of the various folders in the kernel-source code. In other words given a source-code file, which other files would it refer to for related code (The "#include"-s provide a partial idea) Could someone please help me in getting a better idea? Any help will be greatly appreciated Thank You.

  Read the article

• Simulating Google Appengine's Task Queue with Gearman

  - by sotangochips

  One of the characteristics I love most about Google's Task Queue is its simplicity. More specifically, I love that it takes a URL and some parameters and then posts to that URL when the task queue is ready to execute the task. This structure means that the tasks are always executing the most current version of the code. Conversely, my gearman workers all run code within my django project -- so when I push a new version live, I have to kill off the old worker and run a new one so that it uses the current version of the code. My goal is to have the task queue be independent from the code base so that I can push a new live version without restarting any workers. So, I got to thinking: why not make tasks executable by url just like the google app engine task queue? The process would work like this: User request comes in and triggers a few tasks that shouldn't be blocking. Each task has a unique URL, so I enqueue a gearman task to POST to the specified URL. The gearman server finds a worker, passes the url and post data to a worker The worker simply posts to the url with the data, thus executing the task. Assume the following: Each request from a gearman worker is signed somehow so that we know it's coming from a gearman server and not a malicious request. Tasks are limited to run in less than 10 seconds (There would be no long tasks that could timeout) What are the potential pitfalls of such an approach? Here's one that worries me: The server can potentially get hammered with many requests all at once that are triggered by a previous request. So one user request might entail 10 concurrent http requests. I suppose I could have a single worker with a sleep before every request to rate-limit. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

  - by slugolicious

  It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

  Read the article

• Creating a mouse drag done observable with Reactive Extensions

  - by juharr

  I have the following var leftMouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var leftMouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseMove"); var leftMouseDragging = from down in leftMouseDown let startPoint = down.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) from move in mouseMove.TakeUntil(leftMouseUp) let endPoint = move.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) select new { Start = startPoint, End = endPoint }; which when I subscribe to it will give me the start point of the drag and the current end point. Now I need to do something once the drag is done. I was unsuccessful in attempting to do this completely with RX and ended up doing leftMouseDragging.Subscribe(value=> { dragging = true; //Some other code }); leftMouseUp.Subscribe(e=> { if(dragging) { MessageBox.Show("Just finished dragging"); dragging = false; } }); This works fine until I do a right mouse button drag. Then when I click the left mouse button I get the message box. If I only do a left button drag I get the message box, and then clicking the left mouse button doesn't produce the box. I'd like to do this without the external state, but if nothing else I'd at least like for it to work properly. FYI: I tried making dragging volatile and using a lock, but that didn't work. EDIT It turns out my problem was with a right click context menu. Once I got rid of that my above code worked. So, now my problem is how to I get to have the context menu and still have my code work. I assume the Context menu was handling the left mouse click and that somehow caused my code to not work, but I'm still puzzling it out.

  Read the article

• C# i am trying to make a zoom effect

  - by thrillercd

  Pls help! i am trying to make a zoom effect on a picturebox by mouse wheel.Everything is ok except that when i use mouse middle button to zoom in or zoom out it is ok but it does not zoom in or zoom out the point which the mouse cursor on.when i zoom in the point what i want it always slide .Pls help me to add a snippet code to make it right working. Here is my code. I am trying to make a zoom effect on a picturebox by mouse wheel. Everything is ok except that when I use mouse middle button to zoom in or zoom out it is ok but it does not zoom in or zoom out the point which the mouse cursor on. When I zoom in the point what I want it always slide. Please help me to add a snippet code to make it right working. Here is my code: int i = 5; int index = 10; private double[] zoomfactor = { .25, .33, .50, .66, .80, 1, 1.25, 1.5, 2.0, 2.5, 3.0 }; private void Zoom(int i) { double new_Zoom = zoomfactor[i]; imgBox.Width = Convert.ToInt32(imgBox.Image.Width * new_Zoom); imgBox.Height = Convert.ToInt32(imgBox.Image.Height * new_Zoom); } private void On_wheel(object sender, System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs e) { i = i + e.Delta / 120; if (i < 0) { i = 0; } else { if (i <= index) i = i; else i = index; } Zoom(i); }

  Read the article

• safely hosting a django project over apache using centos

  - by tipu

  Error can be seen at: http://djaffry.selfip.com:8080/ I had a project working great, but I had all the files under /var/www/ and with my limited understanding it's bad, according to django's site: "If your background is in PHP, you’re probably used to putting code under the Web server’s document root (in a place such as /var/www). With Django, you don’t do that. It’s not a good idea to put any of this Python code within your Web server’s document root, because it risks the possibility that people may be able to view your code over the Web. That’s not good for security. Put your code in some directory outside of the document root, such as /home/mycode." So I went to /home/tipu/stuff/ and executed django-admin.py startproject twingle. Then I went to apache and did <VirtualHost *:8080> ServerName tweet_search_engine DocumentRoot /home/tipu/stuff/twingle/ </VirtualHost> <Directory /home/tipu/stuff/twingle> SetHandler python-program PythonHandler django.core.handlers.modpython SetEnv DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE settings PythonOption django.root /home/tipu/stuff/twingle PythonDebug On PythonPath "['/home/tipu/stuff/', '/home/tipu/stuff/twingle/'] + sys.path" </Directory> Now I am getting a 403 Forbidden error.. any idea what I'm doing wrong? I'm newer to Linux (CentOS) and django, so I could be over looking some very simple things.

  Read the article

• Grails - Simple hasMany Problem - How does 'save' work?

  - by gav

  My problem is this: I want to create a grails domain instance, defining the 'Many' instances of another domain that it has. I have the actual source in a Google Code Project but the following should illustrate the problem. class Person { String name static hasMany[skills:Skill] static constraints = { id (visible:false) skills (nullable:false, blank:false) } } class Skill { String name String description static constraints = { id (visible:false) name (nullable:false, blank:false) description (nullable:false, blank:false) } } If you use this model and def scaffold for the two Controllers then you end up with a form like this that doesn't work; My own attempt to get this to work enumerates the Skills as checkboxes and looks like this; But when I save the Volunteer the skills are null! This is the code for my save method; def save = { log.info "Saving: " + params.toString() def skills = params.skills log.info "Skills: " + skills def volunteerInstance = new Volunteer(params) log.info volunteerInstance if (volunteerInstance.save(flush: true)) { flash.message = "${message(code: 'default.created.message', args: [message(code: 'volunteer.label', default: 'Volunteer'), volunteerInstance.id])}" redirect(action: "show", id: volunteerInstance.id) log.info volunteerInstance } else { render(view: "create", model: [volunteerInstance: volunteerInstance]) } } This is my log output (I have custom toString() methods); 2010-05-10 21:06:41,494 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Saving: ["skills":["1", "2"], "name":"Ian", "_skills":["", ""], "create":"Create", "action":"save", "controller":"volunteer"] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,495 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Skills: [1, 2] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,508 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Volunteer[ id: null | Name: Ian | Skills [Skill[ id: 1 | Name: Carpenter ] , Skill[ id: 2 | Name: Sound Engineer ] ]] Note that in the final log line the right Skills have been picked up and are part of the object instance. When the volunteer is saved the 'Skills' are ignored and not commited to the database despite the in memory version created clearly does have the items. Is it not possible to pass the Skills at construction time? There must be a way round this? I need a single form to allow a person to register but I want to normalise the data so that I can add more skills at a later time. If you think this should 'just work' then a link to a working example would be great. Hope this makes sense, thanks in advance! Gav

  Read the article

• android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

  - by moonlightcheese

  I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? edit (4/30/2010-18:24): Just compiled some code where I got the above stated error. I closed some web browser windows and recompiled the same exact code with no edits and it compiled with no issue. this is definitely a compiler issue related to memory usage. Any help would be great.... because I have no idea where to go from here. Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12 Sorry I had to repost this question because regardless of whether I use the native HttpClient class in the Android SDK or my custom version downloaded from apache, the error still occurs.

  Read the article

• JSON parse failed

  - by Mesut

  hello i haven an error abour ajax post success. after the success function i added code for lookin for errors ... else if (exception === 'parsererror') { alert('Requested JSON parse failed.'); ... on my php code: echo json_encode(array('msg' => $msg, 'myClass' => $class)); returns back after my function. i checked in firebug and it returns like, response like {"msg":"Kayd\u0131n\u0131z Ba\u015far\u0131l\u0131","myClass":"alert alert-success"} html like {"msg":"Kayd\u0131n\u0131z Ba\u015far\u0131l\u0131","myClass":"alert alert-success"} there is no json tab on firebug and on my ajax code if i comment the dataType: "json", my success function is working but i cant get the response.msg or response.myClass, if i dont comment it, success function is not working, here is the ajax code $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "index.php?page=addItem&action=addItem&edit=true", data: dataString, success: function(response) { $("#message").html(response.msg); $("#message").addClass(response.myClass); $("#itemForm").fadeOut("slow"); window.setTimeout('location.href = "index.php?page=addItem"', 1000); } });

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

  - by Mad Halfling

  Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

  Read the article

• Why does IIS respond to a secure(SSL) page request with a 302 to its non-secure version?

  - by ISawrub

  I have SSL installed at the root of a server. I have a page whose code behind code is supposed to redirect after certain validation to a secure page. Here's the redirect code: switch (PageBase2.GetParameterValue("Environment")) //Retrieves App Setting named Environment from web.config { case "Server": strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; case "Local": strURL = @"http://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; default: strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; } Response.Redirect(strURL, false); But the page that's been served by IIS is non-secure. I looked at the firebug console and it appears that the client does make a get request to https://server/checkout/payment.aspx but IIS responds with a 302 to http://server/checkout/payment.aspx Any clues, as to what could be causing it. I've even tried forcing SSL for the page, but it doesn't work I get 403.4 error. (SSL is required to view this resource.) And if i remove the redirection logic and code the payment page to redirect to its SSL version when the connection is not secure using Request.IsSecureConnection, i end up with an endless redirect loop, simply because IIS still won't serve the secure version without a 302. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• NULL value when using NSDateFormatter after setting NSDate property via XML parsing

  - by David A Gibson

  Hello, I am using the following code to try and display in a time in a table cell. TimeSlot *timeSlot = [timeSlots objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSDateFormatter *timeFormat = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [timeFormat setDateFormat:@"HH:mm:ss"]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", timeSlot.time); NSDate *mydate = timeSlot.time; NSLog(@"Time: %@", mydate); NSString *theTime = [timeFormat stringFromDate:mydate]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", theTime); The log output is this: 2010-04-14 10:23:54.626 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: (null) I am new to developing for the iPhone and as it all compiles with no errors or warnings I am at a loss as to why I am getting NULL in the log. Is there anything wrong with this code? Thanks Further Info I used the code exactly from your answer lugte098 just to check and I was getting dates which leads me to believe that my TimeSlot class can't have a date correctly set in it's NSDate property. So my question becomes - how from XML do I set a NSDate property? I have this code (abbreviated): -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *) string { if ([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Time"]) { currentTimeSlot.time = string } } Thanks

  Read the article

• Problem in cropping the UIImage using CGContext?

  - by Rajendra Bhole

  Hi, I developing the simple UIApplication in which i want to crop the UIImage (in .jpg format) with help of CGContext. The developed code till now as follows, CGImageRef graphicOriginalImage = [originalImage.image CGImage]; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(originalImage.image.size); CGContextRef ctx = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGBitmapContextCreateImage(graphicOriginalImage); CGFloat fltW = originalImage.image.size.width; CGFloat fltH = originalImage.image.size.height; CGFloat X = round(fltW/4); CGFloat Y =round(fltH/4); CGFloat width = round(X + (fltW/2)); CGFloat height = round(Y + (fltH/2)); CGContextTranslateCTM(ctx, 0, image.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(ctx, 1.0, -1.0); CGRect rect = CGRectMake(X,Y ,width ,height); CGContextDrawImage(ctx, rect, graphicOriginalImage); croppedImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); return croppedImage; } The above code is worked fine but it can't crop image. The original image memory and cropped image memory i will got same(equal to original image memory). The above code is right for cropping the image?????????????????? How i cropping the image (in behind pixels should also be crop) from the center of the image???????????? I already wasting a lot of time for developing the above code , but i didn't get answer or way to find out how to crop the image.Thanks for sending me answer in advanced.

  Read the article

• Linux Kernel - Red/Black Trees

  - by CodeRanger

  I'm trying to implement a red/black tree in Linux per task_struct using code from linux/rbtree.h. I can get a red/black tree inserting properly in a standalone space in the kernel such as a module but when I try to get the same code to function with the rb_root declared in either task_struct or task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT everytime I try an insert. Here's some code: In task_struct I create a rb_root struct for my tree (not a pointer). In init_task.h, macro INIT_TASK(tsk), I set this equal to RB_ROOT. To do an insert, I use this code: rb_insert(&(current-fd_tree), &rbnode); This is where the issue occurs. My insert command is the standard insert that is documented in all RBTree documentation for the kernel: int my_insert(struct rb_root *root, struct mytype *data) { struct rb_node **new = &(root->rb_node), *parent = NULL; /* Figure out where to put new node */ while (*new) { struct mytype *this = container_of(*new, struct mytype, node); int result = strcmp(data->keystring, this->keystring); parent = *new; if (result < 0) new = &((*new)->rb_left); else if (result > 0) new = &((*new)->rb_right); else return FALSE; } /* Add new node and rebalance tree. */ rb_link_node(&data->node, parent, new); rb_insert_color(&data->node, root); return TRUE; } Is there something I'm missing? Some reason this would work fine if I made a tree root outside of task_struct? If I make rb_root inside of a module this insert works fine. But once I put the actual tree root in the task_struct or even in the task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT. Can a root node not be added in these structs? Any tips are greatly appreciated. I've tried nearly everything I can think of.

  Read the article

• Javascript error when integrating django-tinymce and django-filebrowser

  - by jwesonga

  I've set up django-filebrowser in my app without any bugs, I already had django-tinymce set up and it loads the editor in the admin forms. I now want to use django-filebrowser with django-tinymce, but I keep getting a weird javascript error when I click on "Image URL" in the Image popup: r is undefined the error is js/tiny_mce/tiny_mce.js My settings.py file has the following configuration: TINYMCE_JS_URL=MEDIA_URL + 'js/tiny_mce/tiny_mce.js' TINYMCE_DEFAULT_CONFIG = { 'mode': "textareas", 'theme': "advanced", 'language': "en", 'skin': "o2k7", 'dialog_type': "modal", 'object_resizing': True, 'cleanup_on_startup': True, 'forced_root_block': "p", 'remove_trailing_nbsp': True, 'theme_advanced_toolbar_location': "top", 'theme_advanced_toolbar_align': "left", 'theme_advanced_statusbar_location': "none", 'theme_advanced_buttons1': "formatselect,styleselect,bold,italic,underline,bullist,numlist,undo,redo,link,unlink,image,code,template,visualchars,fullscreen,pasteword,media,search,replace,charmap", 'theme_advanced_buttons2': "", 'theme_advanced_buttons3': "", 'theme_advanced_path': False, 'theme_advanced_blockformats': "p,h2,h3,h4,div,code,pre", 'width': '700', 'height': '300', 'plugins': "advimage,advlink,fullscreen,visualchars,paste,media,template,searchreplace", 'advimage_update_dimensions_onchange': True, 'file_browser_callback': "CustomFileBrowser", 'relative_urls': False, 'valid_elements' : "" + "-p," + "a[href|target=_blank|class]," + "-strong/-b," + "-em/-i," + "-u," + "-ol," + "-ul," + "-li," + "br," + "img[class|src|alt=|width|height]," + "-h2,-h3,-h4," + "-pre," + "-code," + "-div", 'extended_valid_elements': "" + "a[name|class|href|target|title|onclick]," + "img[class|src|border=0|alt|title|hspace|vspace|width|height|align|onmouseover|onmouseout|name]," + "br[clearfix]," + "-p[class<clearfix?summary?code]," + "h2[class<clearfix],h3[class<clearfix],h4[class<clearfix]," + "ul[class<clearfix],ol[class<clearfix]," + "div[class]," } TINYMCE_FILEBROWSER = False TINYMCE_COMPRESSOR = False i've tried switching back to older versions of tinyMCE Javascript but nothing seems to work. Would appreciate some help

  Read the article

• Using Sendkeys in python to press {F12} results in other keys pressed?

  - by ThantiK

  import time from ctypes import * import win32gui import win32com.client as comclt X = 119 Y = 53 def PILColorToRGB(pil_color): """ convert a PIL-compatible integer into an (r, g, b) tuple """ hexstr = '%06x' % pil_color # reverse byte order r, g, b = hexstr[4:], hexstr[2:4], hexstr[:2] r, g, b = [int(n, 16) for n in (r, g, b)] return (r, g, b) wsh = comclt.Dispatch("WScript.Shell") w = win32gui user = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\user32.dll") h = user.GetDC(0) gdi = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\gdi32.dll") while True: FG = w.GetWindowText(w.GetForegroundWindow()) #FG = Foreground window title. if FG == "World of Warcraft": rgb = (PILColorToRGB(gdi.GetPixel(h,X,Y))) #X, Y time.sleep(0.333) #don't check too often. if (rgb[0] >= 130): #While Pixel (X, Y) is Red... #print "%d %d %d" % (rgb[0], rgb[1], rgb[2]) #Debug wsh.SendKeys("{F12}") #Send a key. time.sleep(0.7) #Add some extra down-time if we send the key. else: time.sleep(5) Basically all this code does is read a pixel on the screen, and send a key (F12) if the pixel is red. But when using this code I regularly get some phantom key-code being pressed. The application I'm using this on is obviously world of warcraft, and I have checked that all keybinds are standard keybinds. However randomly it seems I get either an up arrow, or a w pressed, which moves my character forward whenever this code executes (F12 is bound to a macro, unbound from any movement. If I press f12 with a hardware event, it does not exhibit this behavior. What in the world could be going on here?

  Read the article

• Fluent config not generating mapping files

  - by rboarman

  Hello, I am trying to get Fluent nHibernate to generate mappings so I can take a look at the files and the sql. My code is based on this post and on what I can glean from the documentation. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1375146/fluent-mapping-entities-and-classmaps-in-different-assemblies I am using the latest code from git. Here’s my config code: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); var ft = Fluently.Configure(cfg); //DbConnection by fluent ft.Database ( MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ConnectionString("……") .ShowSql() .UseReflectionOptimizer() ); //get mapping files. ft.Mappings(m => { //set up the mapping locations m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"C:\temp"); m.Apply(cfg); }); I also tried: var sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(“……")) .Mappings(p => p.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"c:\temp\")) .BuildSessionFactory(); I have verified that the connection string is correct. The issue is that no mapping files show up in the ExportTo folder and no sql code shows up in the output window or in the log file. No errors or exceptions are generated either. I have no idea where to go from here. Thank you in advance. Rick

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 625 626 627 628 629 630 631 632 633 634 635 636  | Next Page >