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• How to use an Audio Unit on the iPhone

  - by CodeToaster

  I'm looking for a way to change the pitch of recorded audio as it is saved to disk, or played back (in real time). I understand Audio Units can be used for this. The iPhone offers limited support for Audio Units (for example it's not possible to create/use custom audio units, as far as I can tell), but several out-of-the-box audio units are available, one of which is AUPitch. How exactly would I use an audio unit (specifically AUPitch)? Do you hook it into an audio queue somehow? Is it possible to chain audio units together (for example, to simultaneously add an echo effect and a change in pitch)? EDIT: After inspecting the iPhone SDK headers (I think AudioUnit.h, I'm not in front of a Mac at the moment), I noticed that AUPitch is commented out. So it doesn't look like AUPitch is available on the iPhone after all. weep weep Apple seems to have better organized their iPhone SDK documentation at developer.apple.com of late - now its more difficult to find references to AUPitch, etc. That said, I'm still interested in quality answers on using Audio Units (in general) on the iPhone.

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• Webbased data modelling and management tool

  - by pixeldude

  Is there a web-based tool available, where I am able to... ...define data models (like in a database admin tool) ...fill in data (in custom web forms, not too generic) with basic features like completion ...import data from CSV oder Excel Sheets ...export data to CSV or SQL ...create snapshots of my data models (versions, diff, etc.) ...share my data models ...discuss/collaborate with other people about my data models Well, I can develop something like this in PHP or with Ruby or whatever. But this is such a common task, where the application support could be a lot better. And it would be language and database independent. This would help to maintain data models in different versions and you can maybe share your data models with others, extend it with your team members, etc. There is a website called FreeBase, which allows you to define a data entity model and fill in data, which also has export features, but I need to define my own data model with my own granularity and structure. And it should not be shared in public if I don't want to. How do you solve problems like this yourself?

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• maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

  - by Ed

  Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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• WPF validation red border doesn't show If UserControl collapsed first

  - by Creepy Gnome

  There seems to be a bug with WPF in 3.5, and I was hoping someone may have found a workaround. Basically if you have a custom UserControl that contains a TextBox and it is in a Window but initialized to be Collapsed by default in the xaml or code behind if it fails validation when you make the control visible it will not show the red border until it fails while visible. However, this works correctly when visibility is set to Hidden, just no when Collapsed. I am already overriding the ErrorTemplate with a style to workaround the Adornment issue with the red border staying visibile when you collapse the control. Below is my full style for the TextBox. If there is any additional changes or additions to make it work correctly with collapsed controls that would be great. <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="3" /> <Setter Property="Validation.ErrorTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <ControlTemplate.Resources> <BooleanToVisibilityConverter x:Key="converter" /> </ControlTemplate.Resources> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Border BorderThickness="2" BorderBrush="Red" Visibility="{ Binding ElementName=placeholder, Mode=OneWay, Path=AdornedElement.IsVisible, Converter={StaticResource converter}}" > <AdornedElementPlaceholder x:Name="placeholder" /> </Border> </DockPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true" > <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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• How should I implement lazy session creation in PHP?

  - by Adam Franco

  By default, PHP's session handling mechanisms set a session cookie header and store a session even if there is no data in the session. If no data is set in the session then I don't want a Set-Cookie header sent to the client in the response and I don't want an empty session record stored on the server. If data is added to $_SESSION, then the normal behavior should continue. My goal is to implement lazy session creation behavior of the sort that Drupal 7 and Pressflow where no session is stored (or session cookie header sent) unless data is added to the $_SESSION array during application execution. The point of this behavior is to allow reverse proxies such as Varnish to cache and serve anonymous traffic while letting authenticated requests pass through to Apache/PHP. Varnish (or another proxy-server) is configured to pass through any requests without cookies, assuming correctly that if a cookie exists then the request is for a particular client. I have ported the session handling code from Pressflow that uses session_set_save_handler() and overrides the implementation of session_write() to check for data in the $_SESSION array before saving and will write this up as library and add an answer here if this is the best/only route to take. My Question: While I can implement a fully custom session_set_save_handler() system, is there an easier way to get this lazy session creation behavior in a relatively generic way that would be transparent to most applications?

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• Automatic web form testing/filling

  - by Polatrite

  I recently became lead on getting an inordinate amount of testing done in a very short period of time. We have many different web forms, using custom (Telerik) controls that need to be tested for proper data validation and sensible handling of the data. Some of the forms are several pages long with 30-80 different controls for data entry. I am looking for a software solution (that is free) that would allow me to automate the process of filling in these forms by designing a script, or using a UI. The other requirement is that I can't use any browsers but IE6 (terrible, I know). I have previously used AutoHotkey to great success for automatic Windows form testing, since Autohotkey's API allows you to directly reference controls on the Windows form. However Autohotkey does not have similar support for web forms (everything is just one big "InternetExplorer" control). While I would prefer that I could script some variance in the data to help serialize each test, it's not necessary, as I could go back through and manually edit a field or two (plus "break" whatever control I'm currently testing) to serialize each test. If you've ever seen Spawner: http://forge.mysql.com/projects/project.php?id=214 It's almost exactly the sort of thing I'm looking for (Spawner generates dummy SQL data, as opposed to dummy webform data) - but I won't be picky, I've got a really short deadline to meet and had this thrust in my lap just today. ;) Edit1: One of the challenges of just using Autohotkey to simulate keyboard input (tabbing through controls) is that some controls don't currently have tab index (bug), and some controls cause a page reload after modification, resulting in inconsistent control focus (tabbing screwed up). Our application makes heavy use of page reloads to populate fields (select a location, it auto-populates a city, for example).

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• In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

  - by frankadelic

  We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

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• CONFUSING : CGAffineTransform - rotation on uibutton resizes buttonimage ?! (iPad)

  - by Michael

  hi there, i've got a strange problem using uibuttons, type custom. i'm placing 4 of those buttons on a scrollview, rotating each button by a random angle using CGAffineTransform. now it seems, that the buttons itself change size depending on the angle of rotation. can't get this problem solved :( UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(tempCtxSize); [cookbookImage drawInRect:CGRectMake(imgOffsetX, imgOffsetY+frmOffsetY, cookbookImage.size.width, cookbookImage.size.height)]; [cookbookFrame drawInRect:CGRectMake(0.0f, frmOffsetY, cookbookFrame.size.width, cookbookFrame.size.height)]; UIImage *combinedImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); ... ... UIButton *cookbookViewButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [cookbookViewButton setFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, combinedImage.size.width, combinedImage.size.height)]; [cookbookViewButton setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; [cookbookViewButton setBackgroundImage:combinedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; CGAffineTransform rotation = [cookbookViewButton transform]; rotation = CGAffineTransformRotate(rotation, angle); // some random angle [cookbookViewButton setTransform:rotation]; thx for your help in advance!

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• Membership Provider users in different tables

  - by Mike

  I have an existing database with users and administrators in different tables. I am rewriting an existing website in ASP.net and need to decide - should I merge the two tables into one users table and just have one provider, OR leave the tables separated and have two different providers. Administrators, they need the ability to create, edit and delete users. I am thinking that the membership/profile provider way of editing users (i.e. System.Web.Profile.ProfileBase pro = System.Web.Profile.ProfileBase.Create("User1"); pro.Initialize("User1", true); txtEmail.Text = pro["SecondaryEmail"].ToString(); is the best way to edit users because the provider handles it? You cannot use this if you have two separate providers? (because they are both looking at different tables). Or should I make a whole lot of methods to edit the users for the administrators? UPDATE: Making a custom membership provider look at both tables is fine, but then what about the profile provider? The profile provider GetPropertyValues and SetPropertyValues would be going on the same set of properties for users and admins. Mike

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• Iphone CATextLayer doesn't show it's text.

  - by lovecactus

  Here is my new bee issue: I was simply trying to add a CATextlayer in an UIView layer. However, according to the following code, I only get the CATextlayer's background color be displayed in the UIView, without any text. Just wonder what did I missed to display the text. Could anyone ofter a hint/sample how to use CATextlayer? Thanks. (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if ((self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil])) { // Custom initialization CATextLayer *TextLayer = [CATextLayer layer]; TextLayer.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); TextLayer.string = @"Test"; TextLayer.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:18].fontName; TextLayer.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor].CGColor; TextLayer.wrapped = NO; //TextLayer.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; self.view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f)]; self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; [self.view.layer addSublayer:TextLayer]; [self.view.layer layoutSublayers]; } return self; }

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• Zend Layout and Bootstrapping

  - by emeraldjava

  So i'm using the standard Zend Layout for my site. I have a number of custom controllers and views, and the content of these pages is displayed, but the details in the head element of the layout.phtml are not shown. Do i need to manually associate the Zend_Layout with each specific controller?. I expected since the layout is loaded via the bootstrap this should be available for free. My app.ini file has # layout resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.layout.layout = "layout" #resources.view[] = # Views resources.view.encoding = "UTF-8" resources.view.basePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/views/" my layout.phtml <?php echo $this->doctype() ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <?php echo $this->headTitle() ?> <?php echo $this->jQuery();?> </head> <!-- application/layouts/scripts/layout.phtml --> <body> <div id="content"> <?php echo $this->layout()->content ?> </div> </body>

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• Python template engine

  - by jturo

  Hello there, Could it be possible if somebody could help me get started in writing a python template engine? I'm new to python and as I learn the language I've managed to write a little MVC framework running in its own light-weight-WSGI-like server. I've managed to write a script that finds and replaces keys for values: (Obviously this is not how my script is structured or implemented. this is just an example) from string import Template html = '<html>\n' html += ' <head>\n' html += ' <title>This is so Cool : In Controller HTML</title>\n' html += ' </head>\n' html += ' <body>\n' html += ' Home | <a href="/hi">Hi ${name}</a>\n' html += ' </body>\n' html += '<html>' Template(html).safe_substitute(dict(name = 'Arturo')) My next goal is to implement custom statements, modifiers, functions, etc (like 'for' loop) but i don't really know if i should use another module that i don't know about. I thought of regular expressions but i kind feel like that wouldn't be an efficient way of doing it Any help is appreciated, and i'm sure this will be of use to other people too. Thank you

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• how can I speed up insertion of many rows to a table via ADO.NET?

  - by jcollum

  I have a table that has 5 columns: AcctId (int), Address1 (varchar), Address2 (varchar), Person1 (varchar), Person2 (varchar) . I'm generating random data to insert into this table via a C# console application. I've tried doing this random data insert via SQL-Server and decided it was not a good solution -- SQL is not good at random on an each-row basis. Generating the random data -- 975k rows of it -- takes a minimal amount of time. It's in a List of custom objects. I need to take this random data and update many rows in the database with the new random data. I tried updating the rows one at a time, very slow because of the repeated searching of the List object in code. So I think the best approach is to put all the randomized data into a table in the database, then update all the other tables that use this data. I.e. UPDATE t SET t.Address1=d.Address1 FROM Table1 t INNER JOIN RandomizedData d ON d.AcctId = t.Acct_ID. The database is very un-normalized so this Acct data is sprinkled all over the place. I've got no control of the normalization. So, having decided to insert all of the randomized data into a single table, I set out to create insert scripts: USE TheDatabase Insert tmp_RandomizedData SELECT 1,'4392 EIGHTH AVE','','JENNIFER CARTER','BARBARA CARTER' UNION ALL SELECT 2,'2168 MAIN ST','HNGR F','DANIEL HERNANDEZ','SUSAN MARTIN' // etc another 98 times... // FYI, this is not real data! I'm building this INSERT script in batches of 100. It's taking on average 175 ms to run each insert. Does this seem like a long time? It's going to take about 35 mins to run the whole insert. The table doesn't have a primary key or any indexes. I was planning on adding those after all the data in inserted (thinking that that would be faster). Is there a better way to do this?

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• django powering multiple shops from one code base on a single domain

  - by imanc

  Hey, I am new to django and python and am trying to figure out how to modify an existing app to run multiple shops through a single domain. Django's sites middleware seems inappropriate in this particular case because it manages different domains, not sites run through the same domain, e.g. : domain.com/uk domain.com/us domain.com/es etc. Each site will need translated content - and minor template changes. The solution needs to be flexible enough to allow for easy modification of templates. The forms will also need to vary a bit, e.g minor variances in fields and validation for each country specific shop. I am thinking along the lines of the following as a solution and would love some feedback from experienced django-ers: In short: same codebase, but separate country specific urls files, separate templates and separate database Create a middleware class that does IP localisation, determines the country based on the URL and creates a database connection, e.g. /au/ will point to the au specific database and so on. in root urls.py have routes that point to a separate country specific routing file, e..g (r'^au/',include('urls_au')), (r'^es/',include('urls_es')), use a single template directory but in that directory have a localised directory structure, e.g. /base.html and /uk/base.html and write a custom template loader that looks for local templates first. (or have a separate directory for each shop and set the template directory path in middleware) use the django internationalisation to manage translation strings throughout slight variances in forms and models (e.g. ZA has an ID field, France has 'door code' and 'floor' etc.) I am unsure how to handle these variations but I suspect the tables will contain all fields but allowing nulls and the model will have all fields but allowing nulls. The forms will to be modified slightly for each shop. Anyway, I am keen to get feedback on the best way to go about achieving this multi site solution. It seems like it would work, but feels a bit "hackish" and I wonder if there's a more elegant way of getting this solution to work. Thanks, imanc

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• Writing language converter in ANTLR

  - by Stefan

  I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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• Global.asax Event: Application_OnPostAuthenticateRequest

  - by Hemant Kothiyal

  Hi, I am using Application_OnPostAuthenticateRequest event in global.asax to get roles and permissions of authenticated user also i have made my custom principal class to get user detail and roles and permission. To get some information which remain same for that user. following are the code void Application_OnPostAuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Get a reference to the current User IPrincipal objIPrincipal = HttpContext.Current.User; // If we are dealing with an authenticated forms authentication request if ((objIPrincipal.Identity.IsAuthenticated) && (objIPrincipal.Identity.AuthenticationType == "Forms")) { CustomPrincipal objCustomPrincipal = new CustomPrincipal(); objCustomPrincipal = objCustomPrincipal.GetCustomPrincipalObject(objIPrincipal.Identity.Name); HttpContext.Current.User = objCustomPrincipal; CustomIdentity ci = (CustomIdentity)objCustomPrincipal.Identity; HttpContext.Current.Cache["CountryID"] = FatchMasterInfo.GetCountryID(ci.CultureId); HttpContext.Current.Cache["WeatherLocationID"] = FatchMasterInfo.GetWeatherLocationId(ci.UserId); Thread.CurrentPrincipal = objCustomPrincipal; } } My question is as following This event fires every time for every request. Hence for each request the code execute? My approach is right or not? Is it right to add HttpContext.Current.Cache in this event or we should move it on session start

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• is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution on sql server

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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• Is it possible to write an IIS URL Rewrite Rule that examines content of HTTP Post?

  - by JohnRudolfLewis

  I need to split a portion of functionality away from a legacy ISAPI dll onto another solution (ASP.NET MVC most likely). IIS7's URL Rewrite sounded like a perfect candidate for the job, but it turns out I cannot find a way to configure the rules the way I need. I need to write a rule that examines the content of the HTTP post for a particular value. i.e. <form method="post" action="legacy_isapi.dll"> <input name="foo" /> </form> if (Request.Form["foo"] == "bar") Context.RewritePath("/some_other_url/on_the_same_machine/foo/bar"); As a proof of concept, I was able to create an IHttpModule that examines context.Request.Form collection and performs a rewrite when certain parameters are present. I installed this module in my website, and it works. Rather than a custom module, however, I'd rather extend the existing URL Rewrite module to support examining the content of the HTTP Post as one of its rules. Is this possible?

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• Handling Errors in PHP

  - by Mike

  I have a custom class that, when called, will redirect to a page and send a 'message_type' and 'message' variable via GET. When the page opens it checks for these variables and displays a 'success', 'warning', or 'error' message depending on the 'message_type' variable. I made it so the user thinks they stay on the same page. It also allows for other variables to be passed along with the message. Is this good practice, or should I just start using exceptions? Example: //Call a static function that will redirect to a page, with an error message RedirectWithMessage::go('somepage.php', MessageType::ERROR, 'Error message here.'); The following checkMessage() function is an include file: function checkMessage() { if((isset($_GET['message_type']) && strlen($_GET['message_type'])) && (isset($_GET['message']) && strlen($_GET['message_type']))) { DisplayMessage::display($_GET['message_type'], $_GET['message']); return true; } return false; } On the page that is redirected to, call checkMessage(); //If a message is received, display it. If not, do nothing checkMessage(); I know this might be vague, and I can supply more code if necessary. I guess the issue is that I don't have much experience using exceptions, but I think they seem cumbersome (writing try-catch blocks everywhere). Please let me know if I am making this more difficult for myself or if there is a better solution. Thanks! Mike

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• How to get a UIScrollView embedded within a UITableCellView to scroll?

  - by Zan

  I have a scroll view containing several images embedded within a custom cell view, it sometimes scrolls horizontally if I keep holding the cell for a while. I tried a lot of things and it doesn't seem to work, please help? Here's part of the CustomCell : UITableViewCell code: -(void) layoutSubviews { CGRect scrollViewFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 200); self.scrollView.frame = scrollViewFrame; self.scrollView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; self.scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake((320*3), 200); self.scrollView.scrollEnabled = YES; self.scrollView.clipsToBounds = YES; self.scrollView.pagingEnabled = YES; self.scrollView.showsHorizontalScrollIndicator = NO; self.scrollView.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = NO; self.scrollView.scrollsToTop = NO; self.scrollView.delegate = self; self.scrollView.userInteractionEnabled = YES; // add 3 images to subview here pageControl.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:0 green:0 blue:0 alpha:0.7]; pageControl.frame = CGRectMake(0, 170, 320, 30); pageControl.numberOfPages = 8;} I tested the code on a UIViewController and it works just fine, I'm guessing that this is caused by cell selection and I tried returning nil when the cell gets selected and that didn't work. I also tried passing touches to the scrollview and that didn't work either, please help?

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• Winforms, databinding, Listbox and textbox

  - by Snake

  Hi dear friends, I have a ListBox (MyListBox) on my screen, and a Textbox (MyTextBox). The ListBox is filled with a List(Of T), which are all custom items. Now I try to do this: The ListBox' datasource is the List(Of T). Now when an Item changes I want the textbox to be updated to a particular property of the selected item in my ListBox. In code this means: Me.MyListBox.DisplayMember = "SelectionName" Me.MyListBox.ValueMember = "Id" MyTextbox.DataBindings.Add(New Binding("Text", Me._listOfItems, "SelectedItem.Comment", True, DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged)) Me.MyListBox.DataSource = Me._listOfItems this does not work. But when I bind to SelectedValue instead of SelectedItem it works perfectly. The _listOfItems is declared as this: Dim _listOfItems As List(Of MyItem) = New List(Of MyItem)() Where MyItem is this: public class MyItem { public string SelectionName { get; set; } public int Id { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } } I tried overriding the ToString() in MyItem so that it would use that. But that doesn't work either. Anybody care to give it a try? Thanks! -Snakiej

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• How can I read the properties of an object that I assign to the Session in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by quakkels

  Hey all, I'm trying my hand at creating a session which stores member information which the application can use to reveal certain navigation and allow access to certain pages and member role specific functionality. I've been able to assign my MemberLoggedIn object to the session in this way: //code excerpt start... MemberLoggedIn loggedIn = new MemberLoggedIn(); if (computedHash == member.Hash) { loggedIn.ID = member.ID; loggedIn.Username = member.Username; loggedIn.Email = member.Email; loggedIn.Superuser = member.Superuser; loggedIn.Active = member.Active; Session["loggedIn"] = loggedIn; } else if (ModelState.IsValid) { ModelState.AddModelError("Password", "Incorrect Username or Password."); } return View(); That works great. I then can send the properties of Session["loggedIn"] to the View in this way: [ChildActionOnly] public ActionResult Login() { if (Session["loggedIn"] != null) ViewData.Model = Session["loggedIn"]; else ViewData.Model = null; return PartialView(); } In the Partial View I can reference the session data by using Model.Username or Model.Superuser. However, it doesn't seem to work that way in the controller or in a custom Action Filter. Is there a way to get the equivalent of Session["loggedIn"].Username?

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• how to create nettcpbinding of this custombinding

  - by evgeni

  I am new at wcf programming model and i want to use nettcpbinding. before i ask my question below is my custom binding : <customBinding> <binding name="basic"> <security authenticationMode="UserNameForCertificate"/> <binaryMessageEncoding/> <httpsTransport/> </binding> </customBinding> when i create a service reference using a simple console application it finds a certificate and ask me to use it.and this way i can use the webservice ... but when i change binding to nettcpbinding with TransportWithMessageCredential the service is looking for certificate and could not find it like this : </binding> </netTcpBinding> ServiceCertificate.SetCertificate(StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My, X509FindType.FindByIssuerName, "Contoso.com"). at this point i use a customnamevalidator and i do it programmatically. so why when i use nettcpbinding with TransportWithMessageCredential why is SetCertificate could not find the installed certificate ? am i missed something ? or do i have to ad something? thanks .

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• CheckBox won't toggle in Android ListView with focusable="false"

  - by user3563124

  I'm creating a ListView with a custom Adapter for displaying my entries. Each row contains a checkbox, and my adapter contains the following code: CheckBox cb = (CheckBox) v.findViewById(R.id.item_sold); cb.setChecked(p.isSold); setupCheckboxListener(cb, v, position); ... private void setupCheckboxListener(CheckBox check, final View v, final int position) { check.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { CheckBox cb = (CheckBox) v; if (cb.isChecked()) { System.out.println("Should become false!"); cb.setChecked(false); } else { System.out.println("Should become true!"); cb.setChecked(true); } } }); My row XML file includes the following: <CheckBox android:id="@+id/item_sold" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="0.10" android:layout_gravity="center" android:gravity="center" android:focusable="false" android:clickable="false"/> But anytime I press one of the checkboxes, check.isChecked() returns true, even if the box is unchecked. I even checked to make sure that the checkboxes were distinct and weren't picking up just the last value/etc. Setting up the listeners inline instead of in a method doesn't seem to help, either. It's literally just the isChecked() condition that isn't working appropriately - it seems to always give me the inverse value. Setting an onClick on the row is not acceptable in this case because I need to allow row selection for something else. What could be causing this issue?

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