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  • http post request with cross-origin in javascript

    - by Calamarico
    i have a problem with a http post call in firefox. I know that when there are a cross origin, firefox first do a OPTIONS before the POST to know the access-control-allow headers. With this code i dont have any problem: Net.requestSpeech.prototype.post = function(url, data) { if(this.xhr != null) { this.xhr.open("POST", url); this.xhr.onreadystatechange = Net.requestSpeech.eventFunction; this.xhr.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/json; charset=utf-8"); this.xhr.send(data); } } I test this code with a simple html that invokes this function. Everything is ok and i have the response of the OPTIONS and POST, and i process the response. But, i'm trying to integrate this code with an existen application with uses jquery (i dont know if this is a problem), when the send(data) executes in this case, the browser (firefox) do the same, first do a OPTION request, but in this case dont receive the response of the server and puts this message in console: [18:48:13.529] OPTIONS http://localhost:8111/ [undefined 31ms] Undefined... the undefined is because dont receive the response, but the code is the same, i dont know why in this case the option dont receive the response, someone have an idea? i debug my server app and the OPTIONS arrive ok to the server, but it seems like the browser dont wait to the response. edit more later: ok i think that the problem is when i run with a simple html with a SCRIPT tag that invokes the method who do the request run ok, but in this app that dont receive the response, i have a form that do a onsubmit event, i think that the submit event returns very fast and the browser dont have time to get the OPTIONS request. edit more later later: WTF, i resolve the problem make the POST request to sync: this.xhr.open("POST", url, false); The submit reponse very quickly and can't wait to the OPTION response of the browser, any idea to this?

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  • Scanning, Checking, Converting, Copying values ... How to ? -- C --

    - by ZaZu
    Hi there, Its been a while now and im still trying to get a certain code to work. I asked some question about different commands etc. before, but now I hope this is the final one (combining all questions in one code). I basically want to : *Scan an input (should be character ? ) *Check if its a number *If not, return error *Convert that character into a float number *Copy the value to another variable ( I called it imp here) Here is what I came up with : #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> #include<ctype.h> main(){ int digits; float imp=0; int alpha; do{ printf("Enter input\n\n"); scanf("\n%c",&alpha); digits=isdigit(alpha); if(digits==0){ printf("error\n\n"); } imp=atof(alpha); }while(digits==0); } The problem is this code does not work at all ... It gives me that atof must be of a const char and whenever I try changing it around, it just keeps failing. I am frustrated and forced to ask here, because I believe I have tried alot and I keep failing, but I wont be relieved until I get it to work xD So I really need your help guys. Please tell me why isnt this code working, what am I doing wrong ? I am still learning C and really appreciate your help :)

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  • FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

    - by goober
    I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • IPhone - Memory Management problems.

    - by user321721
    i am going over my code and trying to get a handle on proper memory management. This code: imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:myImage] autorelease]; causes my application to crash. I am using multiple view controllers within a nav bar controller. The app works fine, i cant select a person from the first view controller (tableview) and it puts me to a list of that persons photos, i can then select a photo from that view controller (tableview) and move to a final view with a scrollview for viewing the photo. Once i hit back on the navbar the previous view loads (list of photos in a tableview) however the app crashes right before the row is deselected using this code: (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if(RowSelected != nil) { [MainTableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:RowSelected animated:YES]; } } Row selected is stored when a the user clicks a row. If i leave the code as : imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:myImage]; The app runs fine. Am i doing something wrong? do i not need to autorelease this? Thanks!

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  • Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

    - by Jason Axelrod
    I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • Two AJAX asynchronus GET call: Only one get the xml file

    - by Woho87
    Hi! I have two AJAX GET calls that are set to asynchcronus = true; I want to obtain two XML files on my server. The two AJAX calls and rendering are defined in function foo & koo. And are called simultaneously. function foo(){ var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200){ var xmlDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; //Do something } } xmlhttp.open('get', 'url', true); xmlhttp.send(); } function koo(){ //Almost the same as function foo } foo(); koo(); I've noticed that inside the if statement in the first function call(foo), the code their will never compile. While in the second function call(koo). The code inside the if statement can be compiled. If I set both asynchronus to false, then there is no problem at all. If I remove the second function call(koo) from the code, than the code inside the if statement can be compiled. What can I do to have both asynchronus AJAX calls?

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  • How to prevent multiple definitions in C?

    - by Jordi
    I'm a C newbie and I was just trying to write a console application with Code::Blocks. Here's the (simplified) code: main.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include "test.c" // include not necessary for error in Code::Blocks int main() { //t = test(); // calling of method also not necessary return 0; } test.c: void test() {} When I try to build this program, it gives the following errors: *path*\test.c|1|multiple definition of `_ test'| obj\Debug\main.o:*path*\test.c|1|first defined here| There is no way that I'm multiply defining test (although I don't know where the underscore is coming from) and it seems highly unlikely that the definition is somehow included twice. This is all the code there is. I've ruled out that this error is due to some naming conflict with other functions or files being called test or test.c. Note that the multiple and the first definition are on the same line in the same file. Does anyone know what is causing this and what I can do about it? Thanks!

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  • Firefox handles xxx.submit(), Safari doesn't ... what can be done?

    - by Prairiedogg
    I'm trying to make a pull down menu post a form when the user selects (releases the mouse) on one of the options from the menu. This code works fine in FF but Safari, for some reason, doesn't submit the form. I re-wrote the code using jquery to see if jquery's .submit() implementation handled the browser quirks better. Same result, works in FF doesn't work in safari. The following snippets are from the same page, which has some django template language mixed in. Here's the vanilla js attempt: function formSubmit(lang) { if (lang != '{{ LANGUAGE_CODE }}') { document.getElementById("setlang_form").submit(); } } Here's the jquery attempt: $(document).ready(function() { $('#lang_submit').hide() $('#setlang_form option').mouseup(function () { if ($(this).attr('value') != '{{ LANGUAGE_CODE }}') { $('#setlang_form').submit() } }); }); and here's the form: <form id="setlang_form" method="post" action="{% url django.views.i18n.set_language %}"> <fieldset> <select name="language"> {% for lang in interface_languages %} <option value="{{ lang.code }}" onmouseup="formSubmit('{{ lang.name }}')" {% ifequal lang.code LANGUAGE_CODE %}selected="selected"{% endifequal %}>{{ lang.name }}</option> {% endfor %} </select> </fieldset> </form> My question is, how can I get this working in Safari?

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  • How to Populate a 'Tree' structure 'Declaratively'

    - by mackenir
    I want to define a 'node' class/struct and then declare a tree of these nodes in code in such a way that the way the code is formatted reflects the tree structure, and there's not 'too much' boiler plate in the way. Note that this isn't a question about data structures, but rather about what features of C++ I could use to arrive at a similar style of declarative code to the example below. Possibly with C++0X this would be easier as it has more capabilities in the area of constructing objects and collections, but I'm using Visual Studio 2008. Example tree node type: struct node { string name; node* children; node(const char* name, node* children); node(const char* name); }; What I want to do: Declare a tree so its structure is reflected in the source code node root = node("foo", [ node("child1"), node("child2", [ node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" ]), node("child3") ]); NB: what I don't want to do: Declare a whole bunch of temporary objects/colls and construct the tree 'backwards' node grandkids[] = node[3] { node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" }; node kids[] = node[3] { node("child1"), node("child2", grandkids) node("child3") }; node root = node("foo", kids);

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  • Serialization of Queue type not working

    - by Soham
    Consider this piece of code: private Queue Date=new Queue(); //other declarations public DateTime _Date { get { return (DateTime)Date.Peek();} set { Date.Enqueue(value); } } //other properties and stuff.... public void UpdatePosition(...) { //other code IFormatter formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); Stream Datestream = new MemoryStream(); formatter.Serialize(Datestream, Date); byte[] Datebin = new byte[2048]; Datestream.Read(Datebin,0,2048); //Debug-Bug Console.WriteLine(Convert.ToString(this._Date)); Console.WriteLine(BitConverter.ToString(Datebin, 0, 3)); //other code } The output of the first WriteLine is perfect. I.e to check if really the Queue is initialised or not. It is. The right variables are stored etc. (I inserted a value in that Queue, that part of the code is not shown.) But the second WriteLine is not giving the right expected answer: It serializes the entire Queue to 00-00-00.

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  • local vs core contoller

    - by latvian
    Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

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  • what patern is layerd architechture in asp.net ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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  • Documentation style: how do you differentiate variable names from the rest of the text within a comm

    - by Alix
    Hi, This is a quite superfluous and uninteresting question, I'm afraid, but I always wonder about this. When you're commenting code with inline comments (as opposed to comments that will appear in the generated documentation) and the name of a variable appears in the comment, how do you differentiate it from normal text? E.g.: // Try to parse type. parsedType = tryParse(type); In the comment, "type" is the name of the variable. Do you mark it in any way to signify that it's a symbol and not just part of the comment's text? I've seen things like this: // Try to parse "type". // Try to parse 'type'. // Try to parse *type*. // Try to parse <type>. // Try to parse [type]. And also: // Try to parse variable type. (I don't think the last one is very helpful; it's a bit confusing; you could think "variable" is an adjective there) Do you have any preference? I find that I need to use some kind of marker; otherwise the comments are sometimes ambiguous, or at least force you to reread them when you realise a particular word in the comment was actually the name of a variable. (In comments that will appear in the documentation I use the appropriate tags for the generator, of course: @code, <code></code>, etc) Thanks!

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  • JQuery: using .LIVE problems

    - by TeddTedd
    I have the following JQuery code: $("#myDIV li:eq(0)").live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(1)").live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(2)").live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(3)").live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); And realized it's really inefficient. So I tried the following, which I believe is much more effect; however, the code does not work: var tab_node = $("#myDIV li"); tab_node.eq(0).live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); tab_node.eq(1).live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); tab_node.eq(2).live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); tab_node.eq(3).live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); Any idea how I can make my code more efficient while also work? UPDATE: From the answers below, it sounds like these two statements are not equalavent. New Question: Is there any way to run my original code more efficient?

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  • Update text on CCLabelTFF end in bad access?

    - by TheDeveloper
    I'm doing a little game in Coco2D and I have a countdown clock Note: As I am just trying to fix a bug, I am not working on cleanup so the timer can stop, etc. Here is my code I'm using to setup the label and start the timer: timer = [CCLabelTTF labelWithString:@"10.0000" fontName:@"Helvetica" fontSize:20]; timerDisplay = timer; timerDisplay.position = ccp(277,310); [self addChild:timerDisplay]; timeLeft = 10; timerObject = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.1 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; Note: timeLeft is a double This is updateTimers's code: -(void)updateTimer { NSLog(@"Got Called!"); timeLeft = timeLeft -0.1; [timer setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",timeLeft]]; timerDisplay = timer; timerDisplay.position = ccp(277,310); [self removeChild:timerDisplay cleanup:YES]; //[self addChild:timerDisplay]; if (timeLeft <= 0) { [timerObject invalidate]; } } When I run this I toggle between crashing on this this: [timer setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",timeLeft]]; and in the green arrow thing it gives Thread 1: EXEC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x8) and 0x197a7ff: movl 16(%edi), %esi and in the green arrow thing it gives Thread 1: EXEC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x8)

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  • Why aren't variables declared in "try" in scope in "catch" or "finally"?

    - by Jon Schneider
    In C# and in Java (and possibly other languages as well), variables declared in a "try" block are not in scope in the corresponding "catch" or "finally" blocks. For example, the following code does not compile: try { String s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } In this code, a compile-time error occurs on the reference to s in the catch block, because s is only in scope in the try block. (In Java, the compile error is "s cannot be resolved"; in C#, it's "The name 's' does not exist in the current context".) The general solution to this issue seems to be to instead declare variables just before the try block, instead of within the try block: String s; try { s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } However, at least to me, (1) this feels like a clunky solution, and (2) it results in the variables having a larger scope than the programmer intended (the entire remainder of the method, instead of only in the context of the try-catch-finally). My question is, what were/are the rationale(s) behind this language design decision (in Java, in C#, and/or in any other applicable languages)?

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  • .Net Hash Codes no longer persistent?

    - by RobV
    I have an API where various types have custom hash codes. These hash codes are based on getting the hash of a string representation of the object in question. Various salting techniques are used so that as far as possible Hash Codes do not collide and that Objects of different types with equivalent string representations have different Hash Codes. Obviously since the Hash Codes are based on strings there are some collisions (infinite strings vs the limited range of 32 bit integers). I use hashes based on string representations since I need the hashes to persist over sessions and particularly for use in database storage of objects. Suddenly today my code has started generating different hash codes for Objects which is breaking all kinds of things. It was working earlier today and I haven't touched any of the code involved in Hash Code generation. I'm aware that the .Net documentation allows for implementation of hash codes between .Net framework versions to change (and between 32 and 64 bit versions) but I haven't changed the framework version and there has been no framework updates recently as far as I can remember Any ideas because this seems really weird? Edit Hash Codes are generated like follows: //Compute Hash Code this._hashcode = (this._nodetype + this.ToString() + PlainLiteralHashCodeSalt).GetHashCode();

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  • some problem with iOS 4.2.1

    - by bicbac
    Hi, I've been developing an app with MacBook Pro (MBP) so far. Last week one of my friends gave me new macbook air 11"(MBA). so Now I can test my code with more than one machine with the same version of developing tools - Both machine has Xcode (3.2.5) and iOS SDK 4.2.1). After some point my app starts get terminated suddenly(iPhone sumulator), and I was using MBP. I got no error message whatsoever. it just stops. I reckon the crash comes from dealing with memory, like 'release'/ 'double-release'. (I'm not 100% sure though). Anyway I thought there must be some mistake within my code for sure. -Confusion starts from this part.- With my MBA, on the other hand, I don'y see any crash. It just works fine. There is nothing different between MBA & MBP except the h/w specifications. Same code, same versions of XCode and iOS SDK. Is the fact that no crash at MBA suggesting that I have to look somewhere else than the code itself? I red some article and Q&As on iOS4.2.1 and XCode 3.2.5 that the most recent version of XCode doesn't recognize the iOS 4.2.1 since the 4.2.1 came out later the 3.2.5. Is it the reason? I have no idea at this moment what should be the next move. thanks

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  • parse a special xml in python

    - by zhaojing
    I have s special xml file like below: <alarm-dictionary source="DDD" type="ProxyComponent"> <alarm code="402" severity="Alarm" name="DDM_Alarm_402"> <message>Database memory usage low threshold crossed</message> <description>dnKinds = database type = quality_of_service perceived_severity = minor probable_cause = thresholdCrossed additional_text = Database memory usage low threshold crossed </description> </alarm> ... </alarm-dictionary> I know in python, I can get the "alarm code", "severity" in tag alarm by: for alarm_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('alarm'): if alarm_tag.hasAttribute('code'): alarmcode = str(alarm_tag.getAttribute('code')) And I can get the text in tag message like below: for messages_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('message'): messages = "" for message_tag in messages_tag.childNodes: if message_tag.nodeType in (message_tag.TEXT_NODE, message_tag.CDATA_SECTION_NODE): messages += message_tag.data But I also want to get the value like dnkind(database), type(quality_of_service), perceived_severity(thresholdCrossed) and probable_cause(Database memory usage low threshold crossed ) in tag description. That is, I also want to parse the content in the tag in xml. Could anyone help me with this? Thanks a lot!

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  • Move iFrame in the DOM using jQuery

    - by Josh
    My overall aim is to create an editor which I can skin using jQuery UI (by creating a custom toolbar which uses integration calls), using TinyMCE. Lets say I have a TinyMCE editor on a page. The actual editor is an iFrame contained inside a lot of horrible table code, which is also where the current (to be scrapped) toolbar is. I want just the iframe inside a div - ideally get rid of the table code. So...I want to transform: <table> <tr> <td><iframe id="xyz"></iframe></td> </tr> </table> into <div id="test"> <iframe id="xyz"></iframe> </div> So far, I've tried using: $('#xyz').clone(true).appendTo('#test'); Which clones the iframe, but no content inside it. Is there a way to make this work? If not, can I somehow strip the table code from around the iFrame away? If I cant do that, I'll think I'll have to keep the table code.

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  • Importing a div's content from a Static HTML file using PHP or jQuery or Ajax?

    - by Vikram
    Hello friends a newbie question... The Issue is like this: I have a static HTML file and I want to import just a portion of that file into another page. How can I do that. Example Code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Some title here</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css" /> </head> <body> <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <div id="box-2"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="script.js"></script> </body> </html> Now what I want is to read this HTML file and import just this bit: <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> Is there a way of doing it? Kindly help. Even a PHP, jQuery, Ajax or any other solution will also do. Please help me.

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  • queued view updates not happening when performSelector afterDelay:0 used

    - by JosephH
    Hi all, I have an app that performs some calculations based on data arriving on a socket or local user interaction. I want to show an 'activity spinner' whilst the calculation happens. spinner = [[UIActivityIndiactorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge]; [spinner setCenter:self.view.center]; [self.view addSubview:spinner]; [spinner startAnimating]; [self performSelector:@selector(doCalcs) withObject:nil afterDelay:0]; This works well, except in the case where the code is run as a result of a message arriving over the network. I'm using http://code.google.com/p/cocoaasyncsocket/ to handle sockets and the code is running in the onSocket:didReadData:withTag: method. 'doCalcs' takes a few seconds. The spinner doesn't appear whilst it's running. If I change afterDelay:0 to afterDelay:1 then the spinner does appear the whole time doCalcs is running, but with the downside that it takes an extra second. So it seems the code is all correct, but for whatever reason the spinner isn't getting a chance to get on screen before doCalcs runs. Any suggestions would be most welcome.

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

    - by Tom
    I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

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