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• visual analysis of web pages in ruby

  - by Clint Miller

  I'm looking to write some code that does visual analysis of web pages, preferably using Ruby. My code will need to be able to determine the top, left, width, height, background color, color, and font size for all the elements in the DOM. Of course, these values can only be calculated once all CSS is applied. So, I don't think that Nokogiri is up for the job. Ultimately, I'm trying to use this data in a VIPS-like (Vision-Based Page Segmentation) algorithm in an attempt to find the main content in downloaded news articles. I've considered using Watir to drive Chrome or Firefox and then extract the data. The problem is that browsers can't be run headless through Watir (I think). Ultimately, this code will be running on an array of Linux servers in a data center. So, the code won't have easy access to an X Server for displaying the browser. I suppose one solution is to use Watir and run a headless X Server on the Linux servers. That's a bit of a pain, but it looks like my best option right now. Does anyone have any better ideas?

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• How to insert <li> element on <ul> using pure javascript

  - by Damiii

  I am having an issue with javascript and i don't know how to solve it ... Actually my code is working good with jsfiddle, but when i try to insert on my HTML page ,it simply doesnt work anymore ... What i want to, is to add the < li on < ul each time i tried to hit the button named "Add" ! HTML code: .... <td width="50%" valign="top"> <b> SUPER: </b> <ul id="ul"> </ul> </td> .... <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="add()"/> .... JavaScript code: <script type="text/javascript"> function add(){ var ul = document.getElementById("ul"); var li = document.createElement("li"); li.innerHTML = "LoL"; ul.appendChild(li); } </script> The result with that code : it doesn't add anything on my HTML page when i try to hit the button... Thankfully,

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• .Net Hash Codes no longer persistent?

  - by RobV

  I have an API where various types have custom hash codes. These hash codes are based on getting the hash of a string representation of the object in question. Various salting techniques are used so that as far as possible Hash Codes do not collide and that Objects of different types with equivalent string representations have different Hash Codes. Obviously since the Hash Codes are based on strings there are some collisions (infinite strings vs the limited range of 32 bit integers). I use hashes based on string representations since I need the hashes to persist over sessions and particularly for use in database storage of objects. Suddenly today my code has started generating different hash codes for Objects which is breaking all kinds of things. It was working earlier today and I haven't touched any of the code involved in Hash Code generation. I'm aware that the .Net documentation allows for implementation of hash codes between .Net framework versions to change (and between 32 and 64 bit versions) but I haven't changed the framework version and there has been no framework updates recently as far as I can remember Any ideas because this seems really weird? Edit Hash Codes are generated like follows: //Compute Hash Code this._hashcode = (this._nodetype + this.ToString() + PlainLiteralHashCodeSalt).GetHashCode();

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• OSX launchctl programmatically as root

  - by Lukas1

  I'm trying to start samba service using launchctl from OSX app as root, but I get error status -60031. I can run without problems the command in Terminal: sudo launchctl load -F /System/Library/LaunchDaemons/com.apple.AppleFileServer.plist` In the objective-c code, I'm using (I know it's deprecated, but that really shouldn't be the issue here) AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges method. Here's the code: NSString *command = @"launchctl"; // Conversion of NSArray args to char** args here (not relevant part of the code) OSStatus authStatus = AuthorizationCreate(NULL, kAuthorizationEmptyEnvironment, kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, &_authRef); if (authStatus != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Failed to create application authorization: %d", (int)authStatus); return; } FILE* pipe = NULL; AuthorizationFlags flags = kAuthorizationFlagDefaults; AuthorizationItem right = {kAuthorizationRightExecute, 0, NULL, 0}; AuthorizationRights rights = {1, &right}; // Call AuthorizationCopyRights to determine or extend the allowable rights. OSStatus stat = AuthorizationCopyRights(_authRef, &rights, NULL, flags, NULL); if (stat != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Copy Rights Unsuccessful: %d", (int)stat); return; } OSStatus status = AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges(_authRef, command.UTF8String, flags, args, &pipe); if (status != errAuthorizationSuccess) { NSLog(@"Error executing command %@ with status %d", command, status); } else { // some other stuff } I have also tried using different flags then kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, but that led to either the same problem or error code -60011 - invalid flags. What am I doing wrong here, please?

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• JQuery: using .LIVE problems

  - by TeddTedd

  I have the following JQuery code: $("#myDIV li:eq(0)").live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(1)").live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(2)").live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(3)").live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); And realized it's really inefficient. So I tried the following, which I believe is much more effect; however, the code does not work: var tab_node = $("#myDIV li"); tab_node.eq(0).live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); tab_node.eq(1).live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); tab_node.eq(2).live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); tab_node.eq(3).live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); Any idea how I can make my code more efficient while also work? UPDATE: From the answers below, it sounds like these two statements are not equalavent. New Question: Is there any way to run my original code more efficient?

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• what patern is layerd architechture in asp.net ?

  - by haansi

  Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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• Firefox handles xxx.submit(), Safari doesn't ... what can be done?

  - by Prairiedogg

  I'm trying to make a pull down menu post a form when the user selects (releases the mouse) on one of the options from the menu. This code works fine in FF but Safari, for some reason, doesn't submit the form. I re-wrote the code using jquery to see if jquery's .submit() implementation handled the browser quirks better. Same result, works in FF doesn't work in safari. The following snippets are from the same page, which has some django template language mixed in. Here's the vanilla js attempt: function formSubmit(lang) { if (lang != '{{ LANGUAGE_CODE }}') { document.getElementById("setlang_form").submit(); } } Here's the jquery attempt: $(document).ready(function() { $('#lang_submit').hide() $('#setlang_form option').mouseup(function () { if ($(this).attr('value') != '{{ LANGUAGE_CODE }}') { $('#setlang_form').submit() } }); }); and here's the form: <form id="setlang_form" method="post" action="{% url django.views.i18n.set_language %}"> <fieldset> <select name="language"> {% for lang in interface_languages %} <option value="{{ lang.code }}" onmouseup="formSubmit('{{ lang.name }}')" {% ifequal lang.code LANGUAGE_CODE %}selected="selected"{% endifequal %}>{{ lang.name }}</option> {% endfor %} </select> </fieldset> </form> My question is, how can I get this working in Safari?

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• Blocking HTML and Javascript from being displayed on my site

  - by Tim Powell

  I am working on this new social networking site. One of it's various functions is posting. You can post to Facebook and my site, or Twitter and my site. That being said, I couldn't help but try and post HTML as I was testing sql injection. When I did, I noticed that there where ways to manipulate the site to, for instance, using a element to completely screw up the CSS design, or redirect a user to another site using javascript. That being said, I want to make my site a safe environment for my users... not a site that is used to distribute computer viruses, porn, and other things that might make someone tend to stay off of my site. When I searched this topic, I found ways to "strip" the HTML out of the $post variable before submitting it to the database. However, I would just like to make it so you can post any text, including HTML and Javascript, without the browser interpreting it as "run this..." code: I want to display it as plane text. I've seen it on Facebook, and when I looked at it the source code of a post, it showed <, /, and as regular text. I tried "dissecting" Facebook's source code, but found nothing. I have tried using tags such as <pre> and <code>, but because of the lack of ability to style and control them, I gave up and went back to just allowing HTML. Please, anyone who knows how to do this, please help me out. Thanks in advance, TP

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• transforming 1d (1column) into 5d(5column) matrix through copy paste or other

  - by Curious

  Ex. I want to take the column with 12345..... and order 5 columns across as seen. next 5 numbers in column will be next row. However my code creates a 4 row gap in between each successive row. I dont know what additional logic (possibly if then statement) I can embed into do loop to may make it cleaner. I am new to this, so showing as much sample code to learn the syntax would be most beneficial. thanks in advance. Below is the Result of my code. VBA code is below result. 1 1 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 6 7 8 9 10 7 8 9 10 11 11 12 13 14 15 12 13 14 15 16 16 17 17 Sub Working_Code() ' Working_Code Macro Do ActiveCell.Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(0, 5).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(1, -5).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-1, 6).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(2, -6).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-2, 7).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(3, -7).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-3, 8).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(4, -8).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-4, 9).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(5, -9).Select Loop Until IsEmpty(ActiveCell.Offset(0, -1)) End Sub

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• Why aren't variables declared in "try" in scope in "catch" or "finally"?

  - by Jon Schneider

  In C# and in Java (and possibly other languages as well), variables declared in a "try" block are not in scope in the corresponding "catch" or "finally" blocks. For example, the following code does not compile: try { String s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } In this code, a compile-time error occurs on the reference to s in the catch block, because s is only in scope in the try block. (In Java, the compile error is "s cannot be resolved"; in C#, it's "The name 's' does not exist in the current context".) The general solution to this issue seems to be to instead declare variables just before the try block, instead of within the try block: String s; try { s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } However, at least to me, (1) this feels like a clunky solution, and (2) it results in the variables having a larger scope than the programmer intended (the entire remainder of the method, instead of only in the context of the try-catch-finally). My question is, what were/are the rationale(s) behind this language design decision (in Java, in C#, and/or in any other applicable languages)?

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• How to execute python script on the BaseHTTPSERVER created by python?

  - by user1731699

  I have simply created a python server with : python -m SimpleHTTPServer I had a .htaccess (I don't know if it is usefull with python server) with: AddHandler cgi-script .py Options +ExecCGI Now I am writing a simple python script : #!/usr/bin/python import cgitb cgitb.enable() print 'Content-type: text/html' print ''' <html> <head> <title>My website</title> </head> <body> <p>Here I am</p> </body> </html> ''' I make test.py (name of my script) an executed file with: chmod +x test.py I am launching in firefox with this addres: (http : //) 0.0.0.0:8000/test.py Problem, the script is not executed... I see the code in the web page... And server error is: localhost - - [25/Oct/2012 10:47:12] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 200 - localhost - - [25/Oct/2012 10:47:13] code 404, message File not found localhost - - [25/Oct/2012 10:47:13] "GET /favicon.ico HTTP/1.1" 404 - How can I manage the execution of python code simply? Is it possible to write in a python server to execute the python script like with something like that: import BaseHTTPServer import CGIHTTPServer httpd = BaseHTTPServer.HTTPServer(\ ('localhost', 8123), \ CGIHTTPServer.CGIHTTPRequestHandler) ###  here some code to say, hey please execute python script on the webserver... ;-) httpd.serve_forever() Or something else...

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• Jquery Modal Popup opens twice on Single Click with ASP.Net MVC3

  - by user1704379

  I am using Modal Popup in my MVC3 application it works fine but opens twice for a single Click on the link. The Modal pop is triggered from the 'Index' view of my Home Controller. I am calling a view 'PopUp.cshtml' in my modal popup. The related ActionMethod 'PopUp' for the respective view is in my 'Home' controller. Here is the code, Jquery code on layout.cshtml page, <script type="text/javascript"> $.ajaxSetup({ cache: false }); $(document).ready(function () { $(".openPopup").live("click", function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $("<div></div><p>") .attr("id", $(this).attr("data-dialog-id")) .appendTo("body") .dialog({ autoOpen: true, title: $(this).attr("data-dialog-title"), modal: true, height: 250, width: 900, left: 0, buttons: { "Close": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }) .load(this.href); }); $(".close").live("click", function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $(this).dialog("close"); }); }); </script> cshtml code in 'PopUp.cshtml' @{ ViewBag.Title = "PopUp"; Layout = null; } <h2>PopUp</h2> <p> Hello this is a Modal Pop-Up </p> Call modal popup code in Index view of Home Controller, <p> @Html.ActionLink("Click here to open modal popup", "Popup", "Home",null, new { @class = "openPopup", data_dialog_id = "popuplDialog", data_dialog_title = "PopUp" }) </p> What am I doing wrong that the modal pop up opens twice ? Thanks in Advance !

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• Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

  - by Tom

  I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

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• Jquery, how to escape quotes

  - by Sandro Antonucci

  I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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• Importing a div's content from a Static HTML file using PHP or jQuery or Ajax?

  - by Vikram

  Hello friends a newbie question... The Issue is like this: I have a static HTML file and I want to import just a portion of that file into another page. How can I do that. Example Code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Some title here</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css" /> </head> <body> <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <div id="box-2"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="script.js"></script> </body> </html> Now what I want is to read this HTML file and import just this bit: <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> Is there a way of doing it? Kindly help. Even a PHP, jQuery, Ajax or any other solution will also do. Please help me.

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• How to use .htaccess to redirect to an url that includes a query parameter

  - by wbervoets

  Hi guys, I've been struggling with a redirect where the final URL includes a query parameter that is an URL. It seems htaccess is escaping some characters. Here is my htaccess: Code: RewriteRule ^mypath http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 [L,R=302] First, if I put Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 in my browser address bar, www.otherserver.com will do its thing and then redirect to otherserver2 (including the &param2=1 which is a parameter of that URL and not of the URL otherserver.com) That's the behaviour I need :-) Now when I try to use the htaccess redirect from my site: http://mysite/mypath; the behaviour is not the same then putting the same URL in the browser address bar; it now tries to redirect to http ://otherserver2.com/ (no param2=1 anymore). (ps: otherserver1 and otherserver2 are not under my control.) I've tried escaping the redirectto parameter in my htaccess, like below, but it didn't work either: Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http%3a%2f%otherserver2.com%2f%3fparam2%3d1 Because then my browser tries to go to httpotherserver.com (all special characters are gone) In the end I would like to see http ://mysite/mypath to show the contents of Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 (preferred solution) or do a redirect to that URL. I hope my message is not to confusing, I hope someone can help me out; as I've already spent hours on this :-)

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• ViewController behaving oddly when pushed on the window

  - by ayazalavi

  I am using multiple controller during launch of an application in app delegate. One controller is for registration and the second controller is tabbar. tabbar was loading fine but when I pushed registration controller on window, contents went up by 20 units and I have good white blank screen at bottom. Therefore I recreated frame of my registration view controller in its viewdidload method and slided it 20 units down. The code is self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 20, self.view.frame.size.width, self.view.frame.size.height); and code in my app delegate for launch application was - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { if (![self accountExists]) { //code if account does not exists on iphone app database self.registerAccount = [[registerViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"registerViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:registerAccount.view]; } else if([self autoLoginForAnyAccount]){ //code for autologin to app } else { self.tabBarController.selectedIndex = 1; self.tabBarController.delegate = self; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; } [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } if anyone knows why there is a white space at bottom when registration controller is pushed then please share it with me.

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• queued view updates not happening when performSelector afterDelay:0 used

  - by JosephH

  Hi all, I have an app that performs some calculations based on data arriving on a socket or local user interaction. I want to show an 'activity spinner' whilst the calculation happens. spinner = [[UIActivityIndiactorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge]; [spinner setCenter:self.view.center]; [self.view addSubview:spinner]; [spinner startAnimating]; [self performSelector:@selector(doCalcs) withObject:nil afterDelay:0]; This works well, except in the case where the code is run as a result of a message arriving over the network. I'm using http://code.google.com/p/cocoaasyncsocket/ to handle sockets and the code is running in the onSocket:didReadData:withTag: method. 'doCalcs' takes a few seconds. The spinner doesn't appear whilst it's running. If I change afterDelay:0 to afterDelay:1 then the spinner does appear the whole time doCalcs is running, but with the downside that it takes an extra second. So it seems the code is all correct, but for whatever reason the spinner isn't getting a chance to get on screen before doCalcs runs. Any suggestions would be most welcome.

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• How can I create an Assembly program WITHOUT using libraries?

  - by Newbie

  Hello. I've literally only just started looking to learn Assembly language. I'm using the NASM assembler on Windows Vista. Usually, when I begin to learn a new language, I'll copy someone else's Hello World code and try to understand it line-by-line. However, I'm finding it suprisingy difficult to find a Hello World program that doesn't reference other libraries! You see, there's no point trying to understand each line of the code if it is closely linked with a whole library of additional code! One of the reasons I want to learn Assembly is so that I can have near complete control over the programs I write. I don't want to be depending on any libraries. And so my question is this: Can anyone give me NASM-compatible Assembly code to a completely stand-alone Hello World program that can output to the Windows Vista console? Alternatively, I appreciate that a library may be required to tell the pogram WHERE to print the output (ie. the Windows console). Other than that, I can't see why any libraries should be required. Am I overlooking anything?

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• Problem FlashVars parameter asp.net

  - by sofie-vo

  Code for asp.net page <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="trainingupload.aspx.vb" Inherits="trainingupload" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div height> <object width="1000" height="800"> <param name="movie" value="player.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" '/> <embed src="bin-release/trainingscentrum.swf" FlashVars='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" ' width="1500" height="800" /> </embed> </object> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind Public Function getuser() As Guid Dim user As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() Dim userid As Guid = (CType(user.ProviderUserKey, Guid)) Return userid End Function In the code above I use an function to return the userid. When I replace <%=String.Format(getuser())% with an actual userid, I get the value in my flex application. But this code returns nothing. What am I doing wrong?

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• Time out when creating a site collection

  - by Daeko

  I am trying to create a site collection programmatically. It has worked for about 6 months, but after the servers have been updated (various patches) it doesn’t work anymore (we have 3 servers: 1 development, 1 test, 1 production). It is still working in my development environment which hasn’t been updated, but not on the two others. I don’t receive any error messages, it just hangs at the code that is supposed to add the site collection (see code below). I am using Windows Server 2003 R2 and Sharepoint 2007 (version 12.0.0.6421 ). It doesn’t give me any errors, it just hangs until Internet Explorer comes with a “request timed out” response. If I try and debug the code, the code just stops there and nothing happens. No error messages or anything. public static string CreateSPAccountSite(string siteName) { string url = ""; SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { SPWeb web = SPContext.Current.Web; using (SPSite siteCollectionOuter = new SPSite(web.Site.ID)) { SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication; SPSiteCollection siteCollection = webApp.Sites; SPSite site = siteCollection.Add("sites/" + siteName, siteName, "Auto generated Site collection.", 1033, "STS#0", siteCollectionOuter.Owner.LoginName, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Name, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Email); //Hangs here site.PortalName = "Portal"; site.PortalUrl = mainUrl; // https://www.ourdomain.net url = site.Url; } }); return url; //Should be "https://www.outdomain.net/sites/siteName" }

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• Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

  - by ScottKoon

  I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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• Optimization of a c++ matrix/bitmap class

  - by Andrew

  I am searching a 2D matrix (or bitmap) class which is flexible but also fast element access. The contents A flexible class should allow you to choose dimensions during runtime, and would look something like this (simplified): class Matrix { public: Matrix(int w, int h) : data(new int[x*y]), width(w) {} void SetElement(int x, int y, int val) { data[x+y*width] = val; } // ... private: // symbols int width; int* data; }; A faster often proposed solution using templates is (simplified): template <int W, int H> class TMatrix { TMatrix() data(new int[W*H]) {} void SetElement(int x, int y, int val) { data[x+y*W] = val; } private: int* data; }; This is faster as the width can be "inlined" in the code. The first solution does not do this. However this is not very flexible anymore, as you can't change the size anymore at runtime. So my question is: Is there a possibility to tell the compiler to generate faster code (like when using the template solution), when the size in the code is fixed and generate flexible code when its runtime dependend? I tried to achieve this by writing "const" where ever possible. I tried it with gcc and VS2005, but no success. This kind of optimization would be useful for many other similar cases.

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• How to tell if leaving iOS app entered foreground from fast-app switching or manually?

  - by JPK

  Is there a way to tell if an iOS app enters the foreground from fast-app switching or manually? I need to know by the time applicationWillEnterForeground is called, so some specific code can be executed (or not executed) depending on the condition in which the app entered the foreground. EDIT: It turned out that this was more of a design issue for me. I moved my code to applicationDidBecomeActive. I also added a BOOL property to the appDelegate called fastAppSwitching (probably the wrong name for it). I set this to YES in application:handleOpenURL and application:openURL:sourceApplication:annotation. Then I added the following code to application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions: if (launchOptions) { self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } else { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } In applicationDidBecomeActive, I used the following code: if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; //stop, don't go any further } else { ... } EDIT2: MaxGabriel makes a good point below: "Just a warning to others taking the solution described here, applicationDidBecomeActive: is called when the user e.g. ignores a phone call or text message, unlike applicationWillEnterForeground". This is actually also true for in-app purchases and Facebook in-app authorization (new in iOS 6). So, with some further testing, this is the current solution: Add a new Bool called passedThroughWillEnterForeground. In applicationWillResignActive: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationDidEnterBackground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationWillEnterForeground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = YES; In applicationDidBecomeActive: if (passedThroughWillEnterForeground) { //we are NOT returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog, etc //do nothing with this BOOL - just reset it self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; } else { //we ARE returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog - IE //This is the same as fast-app switching in our book, so let's keep it simple and use this to set that self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } else { ... } EDIT3: I think we also need a bool to tell if app was launched from terminated.

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• Externally disabling signals for a Linux program.

  - by Harry

  Hello, On Linux, is it possible to somehow disable signaling for programs externally... that is, without modifying their source code? Context: I'm calling a C (and also a Java) program from within a bash script on Linux. I don't want any interruptions for my bash script, and for the other programs that the script launches (as foreground processes). While I can use a... trap '' INT ... in my bash script to disable the Ctrl C signal, this works only when the program control happens to be in the bash code. That is, if I press Ctrl C while the C program is running, the C program gets interrupted and it exits! This C program is doing some critical operation because of which I don't want it be interrupted. I don't have access to the source code of this C program, so signal handling inside the C program is out of question. #!/bin/bash trap 'echo You pressed Ctrl C' INT # A C program to emulate a real-world, long-running program, # which I don't want to be interrupted, and for which I # don't have the source code! # # File: y.c # To build: gcc -o y y.c # # #include <stdio.h> # int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { # printf("Performing a critical operation...\n"); # for(;;); // Do nothing forever. # printf("Performing a critical operation... done.\n"); # } ./y Regards, /HS

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