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  • NoSQL DB for .Net document-based database (ECM)

    - by Dane
    I'm halfway through coding a basic multi-tenant SaaS ECM solution. Each client has it's own instance of the database / datastore, but the .Net app is single instance. The documents are pretty much read only (i.e. an image archive of tiffs or PDFs) I've used MSSQL so far, but then started thinking this might be viable in a NoSQL DB (e.g. MongoDB, CouchDB). The basic premise is that it stores documents, each with their own particular indexes. Each tenant can have multiple document types. e.g. One tenant might have an invoice type, which has Customer ID, Invoice Number and Invoice Date. Another tenant might have an application form, which has Member Number, Application Number, Member Name, and Application Date. So far I've used the old method which Sharepoint (used?) to use, and created a document table which has int_field_1, int_field_2, date_field_1, date_field_2, etc. Then, I've got a "mapping" table which stores the customer specific index name, and the database field that will map to. I've avoided the key-value pair model in the DB due to volume of documents. This way, we can support multiple document types in the one table, and get reasonably high performance out of it, and allow for custom document type searches (i.e. user selects a document type, then they're presented with a list of search fields). However, a NoSQL DB might make this a lot simpler, as I don't need to worry about denormalizing the document. However, I've just got concerns about the rest of the data around a document. We store an "action history" against the document. This tracks views, whether someone emails the document from within the system, and other "future" functionality (e.g. faxing). We have control over the document load process, so we can manipulate the data however it needs to be to get it in the document store (e.g. assign unique IDs). Users will not be adding in their own documents, so we shouldn't need to worry about ACID compliance, as the documents are relatively static. So, my questions I guess : Is a NoSQL DB a good fit Is MongoDB the best for Asp.Net (I saw Raven and Velocity, but they're still kinda beta) Can I store a key for each document, and then store the action history in a MSSQL DB with this key? I don't need to do joins, it would be if a person clicks "View History" against a document. How would performance compare between the two (NoSQL DB vs denormalized "document" table) Volumes would be up to 200,000 new documents per month for a single tenant. My current scaling plan with the SQL DB involves moving the SQL DB into a cluster when certain thresholds are reached, and then reviewing partitioning and indexing structures.

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  • Visual Studio 2005 - Debugger stopped working.

    - by eric
    More fun and pain with Visual Studio. Visual Studio 2005. About two months ago, I started an assignment. In my role, I cannot install or configure development software. Trust me this has given me plenty of heartburn. No IIS is involved here, just File Sharing. That being said, when I first started I had a problem with my debugger not working. The debugger just stopped. I was able to get it working. Now the problem has returned and I am pulling every last hair on my head. Almost none of my symbols loads. It can't find the PDB files. In Debugger options, I checked the Symbol section. My symbol file location entry is completely blank. ? I don't know why. I did not touch this prior to the problem occurring. I have cleared the Temporary ASP.NET folders. Example: Here is my Module Output CppCodeProvider.dll C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_MSIL\CppCodeProvider\8.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\CppCodeProvider.dll No No Cannot find or open the PDB file. 17 8.0.50727.762 12/2/2006 4:23 AM 6A510000-6A52C000 [1844] WebDev.WebServer.EXE: Managed WebDev.WebHost.dll C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_32\WebDev.WebHost\8.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\WebDev.WebHost.dll No No Cannot find or open the PDB file. 3 8.0.50727.42 9/23/2005 4:20 AM 6D040000-6D050000 [1844] WebDev.WebServer.EXE: Managed So I enabled the SHFUSION.dll in my versio of the the Framework I am using... In my GAC, I can see this version of WebDev.WebHost.dll for example: ProcessArchitecture(x86) Public key token matches: b03f5f7f11d50a3a 8.0.50727.42 I then see some custom dlls. I should note, I created a new project. Recreated my files manually by importing them. The debugger worked 5 times and died. I'm at a loss of what to do next? The obvious has been checked: The project is set to Debug Configuration Manager Configuration Debug Platform .NET Build : checked. Web.Config: I have attempted to manually attach to the Webdev process from the Debug window and that doesn't work. I have googled this and this problem seems to occur quite a bit.

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  • PHP fopen returning null on files that work fine with include and get_file_contents

    - by brad allred
    Hi, I have XAMPP installed on a windows 2000 server. everything is working great except the PHP fopen function. I can neither create nor open files with it. the strange thing is that i can include/require/file_get_contents/other file related functions; also fopen does not generate any errors or notices it just returns NULL. I have gone as far as to grant full control of the file and all enclosing folders to everybody but i still get NULL instead of a file pointer. I have tried this on php 5.2.9, 5.2.13, and 5.3.1 with the same effect. i have gone through the php.ini file looking for something that is breaking it; i have even tried deleting and using the basic ini file from a linux box where fopen is working and still nothing. I know i have to restart apache after changing my ini and all that and have been (I have even restarted the server) so thats not it. I am at this poing assuming it is an apache configuration issue somehow, tomorrow im going to run a test through php-cli to make sure. I really don't want to bruise my head anymore over this can some apache/php wizard come to my aid? Hi guys, thanks for the responses. you are right is is not any config problem. the problem has to be with one of my dlls or one of my included files. I just tried the same code that isn't working in a new file without any include and i disabled my custom libraries and it worked. for the record here is what I was doing that wasn't working: $test_file = 'c:\\test.csv';//everybody has full control. is very large. if(file_exists($test_file) && is_readable($test_file)){ $fp = fopen($test_file, 'r'); echo var_export($fp, true);//outputs NULL. on my linux box this is a number. if($fp !== false){ //do the work fread($fp, 10);//throws the error that $fp is not a valid file handle } } something that i am including must be breaking fopen somehow. works as expected in new file with no includes.

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  • paypal ipn case is not calling in paypal "pay now"

    - by Ipsita Rout
    paypal ipn case is not calling in paypal "pay now". In paypal button the following is set. return : "http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=return" cancel_return : "cancel_return" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=cancel" notify_url : value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=ipn" paypal_form.php <form name="paypal" action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="rm" value="2"> <input type="hidden" name="no_notes" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="custom" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]"> <input type="hidden" name="return" id="return" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=return"> <input type="hidden" name="cancel_return" id="cancel_return" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=cancel"> <input type="hidden" name="notify_url" id="notify_url" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=ipn"> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/WEBSCR-640-20110429-1/en_GB/i/btn/btn_paynow_SM.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online."> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/WEBSCR-640-20110429-1/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> paypal.php <? include('db_connect.php'); $choice=isset($_GET['ch'])?$_GET['ch']:''; switch($choice){ case 'return': print "Thank You For Buying this product,Please Visit Again,If is there any complements Then suggest us.."; break; case 'ipn': $sql="INSERT INTO paypal(add_date) VALUES(now())"; mysql_query($sql); $x = fopen('test1.txt','w+'); $str2 = 'post data:dfydfhgfhjg'; foreach($_POST as $k=>$v){ $str2 .= $k.'--'.$v; } fwrite($x,$str2); fclose($x); break; case 'cancel': print "Thank You for visiting this site,Please inform your friend to buy products through paypal which is easy service... "; break; } ?>

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  • iPhone: didSelectRowAtIndexPath not invoked

    - by soletan
    Hi, I know this issue being mentioned before, but resolutions there didn't apply. I'm having a UINavigationController with an embedded UITableViewController set up using IB. In IB the UITableView's delegate and dataSource are both set to my derivation of UITableViewController. This class has been added using XCode's templates for UITableViewController classes. There is no custom UITableViewCell and the table view is using default plain style with single title, only. Well, in simulator the list is rendered properly, with two elements provided by dataSource, so dataSource is linked properly. If I remove the outlet link for dataSource in IB, an empty table is rendered instead. As soon as I tap on one of these two items, it is flashing blue and the GDB encounters interruption in __forwarding__ in scope of a UITableView::_selectRowAtIndexPath. It's not reaching breakpoint set in my non-empty method didSelectRowIndexPath. I checked the arguments and method's name to exclude typos resulting in different selector. I recently didn't succeed in whether delegate is set properly, but as it is set equivalently to dataSource which is getting two elements from the same class, I expect it to be set properly. So, what's wrong? I'm running iPhone/iPad SDK 3.1.2 ... but tried with iPhone SDK 3.1 in simulator as well. EDIT: This is the code of my UITableViewController derivation: #import "LocalBrowserListController.h" #import "InstrumentDescriptor.h" @implementation LocalBrowserListController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self listLocalInstruments]; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; } - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [entries count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; if ( ( [entries count] > 0 ) && ( [indexPath length] > 0 ) ) cell.textLabel.text = [[[entries objectAtIndex:[indexPath indexAtPosition:[indexPath length] - 1]] label] retain]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if ( ( [entries count] > 0 ) && ( [indexPath length] > 0 ) ) { ... } } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } - (void) listLocalInstruments { NSMutableArray *result = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:10]; [result addObject:[InstrumentDescriptor descriptorOn:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"example" ofType:@"idl"] withLabel:@"Default 1"]]; [result addObject:[InstrumentDescriptor descriptorOn:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"example" ofType:@"xml"] withLabel:@"Default 2"]]; [entries release]; entries = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:result]; } @end

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  • [How to] Checkbox :: Select one at a time

    - by neo-nant
    This is the code section from inno setup.My intention is to make two Checkbox where at a time one is being selected. But this code return error when first checkbox is clicked. [code] procedure CheckBoxOnClick(Sender: TObject); var Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin if CheckBox.Checked then ///error:"Could not call proc" [sud it be global if then how to or what to change?] BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbUnchecked; Box2.State := cbChecked; END else BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbChecked; Box2.State := cbUnchecked; END; end; procedure Box2OnClick(Sender: TObject); var Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin if Box2.Checked then ///error:same BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbChecked; Box2.State := cbUnchecked; END else BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbUnchecked; Box2.State := cbChecked; END; end; procedure CreateTheWizardPages; var Page: TWizardPage; Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin { TButton and others } Page := CreateCustomPage(wpWelcome, '', ''); CheckBox := TNewCheckBox.Create(Page); CheckBox.Top :=ScaleY(8)+ScaleX(50); CheckBox.Width := Page.SurfaceWidth; CheckBox.Height := ScaleY(17); CheckBox.Caption := 'Do this'; CheckBox.Checked := True; CheckBox.OnClick := @CheckBoxOnClick; CheckBox.Parent := Page.Surface; Box2 := TNewCheckBox.Create(Page); Box2.Top :=ScaleY(8)+ScaleX(70); Box2.Width := Page.SurfaceWidth; Box2.Height := ScaleY(17); Box2.Caption := 'No,Thanks.'; Box2.Checked := False; Box2.OnClick := @Box2OnClick; Box2.Parent := Page.Surface; end; procedure InitializeWizard(); //var begin { Custom wizard pages } CreateTheWizardPages; end; Please tell me where to change..

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  • Adding Icons next to items in Navigation Drawer

    - by DunriteJW
    I have been trying to figure this out for quite some time right now. I've looked all over this site and many others, and can't find anything that works. I simply want icons next to each item in my navigation drawer. I am currently using the method that Google's navigation drawer sample app uses. in the MainActivity.java I have the following: mColorTitles = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.colors_array); mDrawerLayout = (DrawerLayout) findViewById(R.id.drawer_layout); mDrawerList = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.left_drawer); mColorIcons = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.color_icons); adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.drawer_list_item, mColorTitles); // set a custom shadow that overlays the main content when the drawer opens mDrawerLayout.setDrawerShadow(R.drawable.drawer_shadow, GravityCompat.START); // set up the drawer's list view with items and click listener mDrawerList.setAdapter(adapter); mDrawerList.setOnItemClickListener(new DrawerItemClickListener()); my drawer_list_item.xml: <TextView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/text1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceListItemSmall" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:paddingLeft="5dp" android:paddingRight="16dp" android:textColor="#000" android:background="?android:attr/activatedBackgroundIndicator" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeightSmall"/> it currently just makes the navigation drawer display the color titles from the array. I have the icons that I want in another array, and they follow the exact same order as I want them associated with the colors. I just have no idea how to even begin inserting the icons from that array into the navigation items if it helps, here's what my arrays look like in my strings.xml (not full code) <string-array name="colors_array"> <item>Home</item> <item>Cherry</item> <item>Crimson</item> ... <array name="color_icons"> <item>@drawable/homeicon</item> <item>@drawable/cherryicon</item> <item>@drawable/crimsonicon</item> ... I've tried putting a drawable in the drawer_list_item, which works, but (of course) it always puts the same one in there. I could not think of a way to change it according to the color. I am relatively new to android programming, so if I am missing something simple, I'm sorry. If you could help me out, I would greatly appreciate it, as this is basically the last thing I need to do before I publish my application to the Play Store. Thanks in advance!

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  • Web P2P video confrence solution

    - by dtroy
    I'm looking for the best possible solution which will allow me to incorporate live video/audio conference between 2 users(only 2 at this point) into a flash gaming platform. The video chat is not just an extra feature, it's the main one. I'm mainly looking at open source implementations or something I'll be able to implement myself, but will consider commercial products if they are exactly what I need. Here are a few things I've looked at, but so far, I didn't find any of them good enough: Flash player 10's P2P capabilities sound promising, but I am aware of the fact that Adobe has not release any information on the RTMFP protocol and that there is no commercial server which supports it at this point. Stream all the video/audio live through a flash server (not p2p), but from my personal experience you don't get a smooth conversation. I think TokBox uses this method Java applets are a possible solution too (to perform p2p), but I don't think it will be a nice and elegant solution to combine them in the game at this point (and requires the user to authorize them). BTW, I couldn't find any useful implementations. So, If you know of any, i'll look into them. Google Gmail Video Chat uses a custom (and proprietary) browser plug-in which does the p2p and streams the video/audio into the flash player. This is a possible solution, but I rather not implement the entire p2p protocol stack + browser plug-in at this stage and concentrate on other aspect of the game itself. I think they are using XMPP based protocol similar to Jingle and they've release a Jingle librarby but without the video confrencing implementation. EDIT: In response to Branden: I am aware of Adobe Stratus. Stratus is a beta, hosted rendezvous service that aids establishing communications between Flash Player endpoints (RTMFP server). This current release of the Stratus is prerelease and is designed for evaluation purposes only. The service is not final. There is no guarantee that the service will continue to exist in the future or any information about the future cost. That's why I don't think it can be used as a commercial solution. At least not yet. I'd appreciate your suggestions and advice. thanks!

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  • [solved] PHP-called hyperlink stopped showing when CSS table implemented

    - by Luke
    EDIT: Solved - was not flutter's tag stripping, should work as advertised. I'm using Flutter (which creates custom fields) in Wordpress to display profile information entered as a Post. Before I implemented the CSS tables the link showed up and was clickable. Now I get nothing returned, even when I try to call the link outside the table. If you know anything about this, here's my code in the index.php file and I remain available for any questions. <?php if (in_category('Profile')) { ?> <table id="mytable" cellspacing="0"> -snip- <tr> <th class="row1" valign="top">Website </td> <td>Link: <a href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FrWebsite', $single=true) ?>"> <?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FrWebsite', $single=true) ?></a></td> </tr> -snip- </table> Thanks, L Edit: @Josh - there is a foreach looping construct in the table and it is reading and displaying the code correctly, I see what you're getting at now: <tr> <th class="row2" valign="top">Specialities </td> <td class="alt" valign="top"><?php $my_array = get('Expertise'); $output = ""; foreach($my_array as $check) { $output .= "<span>$check</span><br/> "; } echo $output; ?></td> </tr> Edit - @Josh - here's the old code as far as I can remember it, there was no major difference just a <td> tag where there now stands a <th>, there wasn't the class="" and there was no "Link:" and FrWebsite was called Website, but it still didn't work when called Website so I changed to see if that was the error. <tr> <td width="200" valign="top">Website </td> <td><a href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Website', $single=true) ?>"><?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Website', $single=true) ?></a></td> </tr>

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  • What are the Tags Around Default iPhone Address Book People Phone Number Labels?

    - by rnistuk
    My question concerns markup that surrounds some of the default phone number labels in the Person entries of the Contact list on the iPhone. I have created an iPhone contact list address book entry for a person, "John Smith" with the following phone number entries: Mobile (604) 123-4567 iPhone (778) 123-4567 Home (604) 789-4561 Work (604) 456-7891 Main (604) 789-1234 megaphone (234) 567-8990 Note that the first five labels are default labels provided by the Contacts application and the last label, "megaphone", is a custom label. I wrote the following method to retrieve and display the labels and phone numbers for each person in the address book: -(void)displayPhoneNumbersForAddressBook { ABAddressBookRef book = ABAddressBookCreate(); CFArrayRef people = ABAddressBookCopyArrayOfAllPeople(book); ABRecordRef record = CFArrayGetValueAtIndex(people, 0); ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(record, kABPersonPhoneProperty); NSLog(@"---------" ); NSLog(@"displayPhoneNumbersForAddressBook" ); CFStringRef label, phone; for (CFIndex i = 0; i < ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); ++i) { label = ABMultiValueCopyLabelAtIndex(multi, i); phone = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); NSLog(@"label: \"%@\" number: \"%@\"", (NSString*)label, (NSString*)phone); CFRelease(label); CFRelease(phone); } NSLog(@"---------" ); CFRelease(multi); CFRelease(people); CFRelease(book); } and here is the output for the address book entry that I entered: 2010-03-08 13:24:28.789 test2m[2479:207] --------- 2010-03-08 13:24:28.789 test2m[2479:207] displayPhoneNumbersForAddressBook 2010-03-08 13:24:28.790 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Mobile>!$_" number: "(604) 123-4567" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.790 test2m[2479:207] label: "iPhone" number: "(778) 123-4567" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.791 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Home>!$_" number: "(604) 789-4561" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.791 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Work>!$_" number: "(604) 456-7891" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.792 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Main>!$_" number: "(604) 789-1234" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.792 test2m[2479:207] label: "megaphone" number: "(234) 567-8990" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.793 test2m[2479:207] --------- What are the markup characters _$!< and >!$_ surrounding most, save for iPhone, of the default labels for? Can you point me to where in the "Address Book Programming Guide for iPhone OS" I can find the information? Thank you for your help.

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  • Defining where on the page the flowdocument I am printing will 'start' and 'end'

    - by Sagi1981
    Dear community. I am almost done with implementing a printing functionality, but I am having trouble getting the last hurdle done with. My problem is, that I am printing some reports, consisting of a header (with information about the person the report is about), a footer (with a page number) and the content in the middle, which is a FlowDocument. Since the flowdocuments can be fairly long, It is very possible that they will span multiple pages. My approach is to make a custom FlowDocumentPaginator which derives from DocumentPaginator. In there i define my header and my footer. However, when I print my page, the flowdocument and my header and footer are on top of eachother. So my question is plain and simple - how do I define from where and to where the flowdocument part on the pages will be placed? here is the code from my custommade Paginator: public class HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator : DocumentPaginator { private DocumentPaginator flowDocumentpaginator; public HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(FlowDocument document) { flowDocumentpaginator = ((IDocumentPaginatorSource) document).DocumentPaginator; } public override bool IsPageCountValid { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.IsPageCountValid; } } public override int PageCount { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageCount; } } public override Size PageSize { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize; } set { flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize = value; } } public override IDocumentPaginatorSource Source { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.Source; } } public override DocumentPage GetPage(int pageNumber) { DocumentPage page = flowDocumentpaginator.GetPage(pageNumber); ContainerVisual newVisual = new ContainerVisual(); newVisual.Children.Add(page.Visual); DrawingVisual header = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = header.RenderOpen()) { //Header data } newVisual.Children.Add(header); DrawingVisual footer = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = footer.RenderOpen()) { Typeface typeface = new Typeface("Trebuchet MS"); FormattedText text = new FormattedText("Page " + (pageNumber + 1).ToString(), CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, FlowDirection.LeftToRight, typeface, 14, Brushes.Black); dc.DrawText(text, new Point(page.Size.Width - 100, page.Size.Height-30)); } newVisual.Children.Add(footer); DocumentPage newPage = new DocumentPage(newVisual); return newPage; } } And here is the printdialogue call: private void btnPrint_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { PrintDialog printDialog = new PrintDialog(); if (printDialog.ShowDialog() == true) { FlowDocument fd = new FlowDocument(); MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(<My string of text - RTF formatted>)); TextRange tr = new TextRange(fd.ContentStart, fd.ContentEnd); tr.Load(stream, DataFormats.Rtf); stream.Close(); fd.ColumnWidth = printDialog.PrintableAreaWidth; HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator paginator = new HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(fd); printDialog.PrintDocument(paginator, "myReport"); } } catch (Exception ex) { //Handle } }

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  • Using NHibernate to map a nChar column to an enumerated type

    - by Morrislgn
    Hello Folks, I am trying to map a table frp, a SQL Server 2005 DB to a class which contains an enum: public class MyClass{ private YesNoOptional addressSetting; public YesNoOptional AddressSetting{ {get; set;} } } public enum YesNoOptional { Yes, No, Optional } This will dictate that one of three values is inserted into the corresponding column - 'Y', 'N', 'O'. This column is of type nchar(1). My mapping file is like so (addressSetting is the property which is causing the problem): <class name="IncidentDefinition" table="IR_INCIDENT_DEF" lazy="false" > <id name="Guid" column="INT_GUID" > <generator class="guid"></generator> </id> <property name="Reference" column="INT_REF" ></property> <property name="Description" column="INT_DESCRIPTION" ></property> <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" ></property> <property name="Active" column="INT_ACTIVE" type="YesNo"></property> <property name="PinDocId" column="INT_PIN_DOC_ID"></property> </class> Using the config above I get the following error: NHibernate.ADOException: could not initialize a collection: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format.. If I try to map the enum using a custom type like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="ML.Types.YesNoOptional, ML.Types" ></property> Error: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format. Next, if I try using a specific type like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="String" ></property> This error is generated: NHibernate.PropertyAccessException: The type System.String can not be assigned to a property of type System.ArgumentException: Object of type 'System.String' cannot be converted to type 'ML.Types.YesNoOptional'.. As a last resort I tried to specify the type as a char like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="Char" ></property> This works a bit better, as it in it doesnt throw an error, however instead of returning the character from the table and mapping it to the enumerated type the ASCII value of the character is returned instead - so Y is represented by 89! I am hoping someone can explain what I am doing wrong and\or how why this is happening please? Thanks Morris

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  • Am I Leaking ADO.NET Connections?

    - by HardCode
    Here is an example of my code in a DAL. All calls to the database's Stored Procedures are structured this way, and there is no in-line SQL. Friend Shared Function Save(ByVal s As MyClass) As Boolean Dim cn As SqlClient.SqlConnection = Dal.Connections.MyAppConnection Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand Try cmd.Connection = cn cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.CommandText = "proc_save_my_class" cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param1", s.Foo) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param2", s.Bar) Return True Finally Dal.Utility.CleanupAdoObjects(cmd, cn) End Try End Function Here is the Connection factory (if I am using the correct term): Friend Shared Function MyAppConnection() As SqlClient.SqlConnection Dim cn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ToString) cn.Open() If cn.State <> ConnectionState.Open Then ' CriticalException is a custom object inheriting from Exception. Throw New CriticalException("Could not connect to the database.") Else Return cn End If End Function Here is the Dal.Utility.CleaupAdoObjects() function: Friend Shared Sub CleanupAdoObjects(ByVal cmd As SqlCommand, ByVal cn As SqlConnection) If cmd IsNot Nothing Then cmd.Dispose() If cn IsNot Nothing AndAlso cn.State <> ConnectionState.Closed Then cn.Close() End Sub I am getting a lot of "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." error messages reported by the users. The application's DAL opens a connection, reads or saves data, and closes it. No connections are ever left open - intentionally! There is nothing obvious on the Windows 2000 Server hosting the SQL Server 2000 that would indicate a problem. Nothing in the Event Logs and nothing in the SQL Server logs. The timeouts happen randomly - I cannot reproduce. It happens early in the day with only 1 to 5 users in the system. It also happens with around 50 users in the system. The most connections to SQL Server via Performance Monitor, for all databases, has been about 74. The timeouts happen in code that both saves to, and reads from, the database in different parts of the application. The stack trace does not point to one or two offending DAL functions. It's happened in many different places. Does my ADO.NET code appear to be able to leak connections? I've goolged around a bit, and I've read that if the connection pool fills up, this can happen. However, I'm not explicitly setting any connection pooling. I've even tried to increase the Connection Timeout in the connection string, but timeouts happen long before the 300 second (5 minute) value: <add name="MyConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=MyServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=SSPI;Connection Timeout=300;"/> I'm at a total loss already as to what is causing these Timeout issues. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • Where to put a glossary of important terms and patterns in documentation?

    - by Tetha
    Greetings. I want to document certain patterns in the code in order to build up a consistent terminology (in order to easen communication about the software). I am, however, unsure, where to define the terms given. In order to get on the same level, an example: I have a code generator. This code generator receives a certain InputStructure from the Parser (yes, the name InputStructure might be less than ideal). This InputStructure is then transformed into various subsequent datastructures (like an abstract description of the validation process). Each of these datastructures can be either transformed into another value of the same datastructure or it can be transformed into the next datastructure. This should sound like Pipes and Filters to some degree. Given this, I call an operation which takes a datastructures and constructs a value of the same datastructure a transformation, while I call an operation which takes a datastructure and produces a different follow-up datastructure a derivation. The final step of deriving a string containing code is called emitting. (So, overall, the codegenerator takes the input-structure and transforms, transforms, derives, transforms, derives and finally emits). I think emphasizing these terms will be benefitial in communications, because then it is easy to talk about things. If you hear "transformation", you know "Ok, I only need to think about these two datastructures", if you hear "emitting", you know "Ok, I only need to know this datastructure and the target language.". However, where do I document these patterns? The current code base uses visitors and offers classes called like ValidatorTransformationBase<ResultType> (or InputStructureTransformationBase<ResultType>, and so one and so on). I do not really want to add the definition of such terms to the interfaces, because in that case, I'd have to repeat myself on each and every interface, which clearly violates DRY. I am considering to emphasize the distinction between Transformations and Derivations by adding further interfaces (I would have to think about a better name for the TransformationBase-classes, but then I could do thinks like ValidatorTransformation extends ValidatorTransformationBase<Validator>, or ValidatorDerivationFromInputStructure extends InputStructureTransformation<Validator>). I also think I should add a custom page to the doxygen documentation already existing, as in "Glossary" or "Architecture Principles", which contains such principles. The only disadvantage of this would be that a contributor will need to find this page in order to actually learn about this. Am I missing possibilities or am I judging something wrong here in your opinion? -- Regards, Tetha

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  • How to modularize a JSF/Facelets/Spring application with OSGi?

    - by lexicore
    I'm working with very large JSF/Facelets applications which use Spring for DI/bean management. My applications have modular structure and I'm currently looking for approaches to standardize the modularization. My goal is to compose a web application from a number of modules (possibly depending on each other). Each module may contain the following: Classes; Static resources (images, CSS, scripts); Facelet templates; Managed beans - Spring application contexts, with request, session and application-scoped beans (alternative is JSF managed beans); Servlet API stuff - servlets, filters, listeners (this is optional). What I'd like to avoid (almost at all costs) is the need to copy or extract module resources (like Facelets templates) to the WAR or to extend the web.xml for module's servlets, filters, etc. It must be enough to add the module (JAR, bundle, artifact, ...) to the web application (WEB-INF/lib, bundles, plugins, ...) to extend the web application with this module. Currently I solve this task with a custom modularization solution which is heavily based on using classpath resources: Special resources servlet serves static resources from classpath resources (JARs). Special Facelets resource resolver allows loading Facelet templates from classpath resources. Spring loads application contexts via the pattern classpath*:com/acme/foo/module/applicationContext.xml - this loads application contexts defined in module JARs. Finally, a pair of delegating servlets and filters delegate request processing to the servlets and filters configured in Spring application contexts from modules. Last days I read a lot about OSGi and I was considering, how (and if) I could use OSGi as a standardized modularization approach. I was thinking about how individual tasks could be solved with OSGi: Static resources - OSGi bundles which want to export static resources register a ResourceLoader instances with the bundle context. A central ResourceServlet uses these resource loaders to load resources from bundles. Facelet templates - similar to above, a central ResourceResolver uses services registered by bundles. Managed beans - I have no idea how to use an expression like #{myBean.property} if myBean is defined in one of the bundles. Servlet API stuff - use something like WebExtender/Pax Web to register servlets, filters and so on. My questions are: Am I inventing a bicycle here? Are there standard solutions for that? I've found a mentioning of Spring Slices but could not find much documentation about it. Do you think OSGi is the right technology for the described task? Is my sketch of OSGI application more or less correct? How should managed beans (especially request/session scope) be handled? I'd be generally graefult for your comments.

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  • Why would some POST data go missing when using Uploadify?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have been using Uploadify in my PHP application for the last couple months, and I've been trying to track down an elusive bug. I receive emails when fatal errors occur, and they provide me a good amount of details. I've received dozens of them. I have not, however, been able to reproduce the problem myself. Some users (like myself) experience no problem, while others do. Before I give details of the problem, here is the flow. User visits edit screen for a page in the CMS I am using. Record id for the page is put into a form as a hidden value. User clicks the Uploadify browse button and selects a file (only single file selection is allowed). User clicks Submit button for my form. jQuery intercepts the form submit action, triggers Uploadify to start uploading, and returns false for the submit action (manually cancelling the form submit event so that Uploadify can take over). Uploadify uploads to a custom process script. Uploadify finishes uploading and triggers the Javascript completion callback. The Javascript callback calls $('#myForm').submit() to submit the form. Now that's what SHOULD happen. I've received reports of the upload freezing at 100% and also others where "I/O Error" is displayed. What's happening is, the form is submitting with the completion callback, but some post parameters present in the form are simply not in the post data. The id for the page, which earlier I said is added to the form as a hidden field, is simply not there in the post data ($_POST)--there is no item for 'id' in the $_POST array. The strange thing is, the post data DOES contain values for some fields. For instance, I have an input of type text called "name" which is for the record name, and it does show up in the post data. Here is what I've gathered: This has been happening on Mac OSX 10.5 and 10.6, Windows XP, and Windows 7. I can post exact user agent strings if that helps. Users must use Flash 10.0.12 or later. We've made it so the form reverts to using a normal "file" field if they have < 10.0.12. Does anyone have ANY ideas at all what the cause of this could be?

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  • JbossESB jmsProvider cannot convert IBMMQ JMS Message JMSTextMessage

    - by Himanshu
    I am trying to integrate IBMMQ v6.0.2 with jbossESB. we have local Queue available on IBMMQ on one of our QA QUEUEMANAGER. I am able to listen to the QUEUE using JMSprovider of jboss ESB. As soon as a message (of type jms_text ) is dropped , esb listen to it and pick it up and before it hit the next action it throws following error message. ERROR [JmsComposer] Unsupported JMS message type: com.ibm.jms.JMSTextMessage Here are the steps I followed. jboss-service.mxl : Defined Connection Factory and QUEUE added jars ( com.ibm.mq.* ) to ${jbossesb}/server/${mynode}/lib Added jms lsinterner configuration on jboss-esb.xml Please guide me what I m missing here... Do I need to create custom MessagePlugin ? jboss-esb looks like this <jms-provider name="WSMQ" connection-factory="MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <jms-bus busid="queuestartGwChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" acknowledge-mode ="AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE" /> </jms-bus> <jms-bus busid="queuestartEsbChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" /> </jms-bus> </jms-provider> jboss-service.xml looks like this <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQConnectionFactory" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <attribute name="JndiName">MQQueueConnectionFactory</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="IsXA">false</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="HostName">111.111.111.111</attribute> <attribute name="Port">1415</attribute> <attribute name="Channel">MYCO.SVRCONN</attribute> <attribute name="TransportType">CLIENT</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQDestination" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=WSMQRequestQueue"> <attribute name="JndiName">wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="DestinationName">MYCO.SERVICEORDER.QA01.QL01</attribute> <attribute name="TargetClient">MQ</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> I am using jboss-eap-4.3. Really appreciate any help.

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  • IIS doing unexpected redirect

    - by user2967489
    I have website abc.com and abc.co.in.I have two webservers also. The following issue happens only in abc.co.in with same application deployed on same. We have written a custom IHttpModule and do a rewrite to abc.co.in?some=data. Expected behavior: When user enters some.abc.co.in the expected behavior is browser still display some.abc.co.in but internally call abc.co.in?some=data Actual behavior: The page is rendered properly but in browser the URL changes to some.abc.co.in?some=data I checked what is happening 1.First the server receives the request and does a 301 redirect. 2.The redirect location is some.abc.co.in?some=data I am stuck in this for a day and critical to fix to make our site up and running. How to debug this issue further ?.Any one can think of possible cause? ETW Trace shows <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <OldUrl>/</OldUrl> <NewUrl>/fp?&id=hazzel&params=</NewUrl> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <ModuleName>DefaultDocumentModule</ModuleName> <Notification>128</Notification> <HttpStatus>301</HttpStatus> <HttpReason>Moved Permanently</HttpReason> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <Headers>Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Location: http://some.abc.co.in/fp/?id=data Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET </Headers> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData>

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  • Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <ViewController>,<Tab>

    - by onkar
    I am trying to implement Tabs into my secondView.On button touch(from ViewController.m) I am navigating to secondView(Tabs). In my Tabs.xib file I have added a TabBar at bottom and it is custom class of UITabBar. ViewController.m - (IBAction)touchedInside:(id)sender { NSLog(@"touhced up inside"); Tabs *temp = [[Tabs alloc]initWithNibName:@"Tabs" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:temp animated:YES]; [self presentViewController:temp animated:YES completion:nil]; } Tabs.m - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; AppDelegate *appDelegate = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UITabBarController *tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc]init]; /* Tab_1 *firstView = [[Tab_1 alloc] init]; UITabBarItem *item1 = [[UITabBarItem alloc]initWithTitle:@"First" image:nil tag:1]; [firstView setTabBarItem:item1]; NSLog(@"after first tab is added"); Tab_2 *secondView = [[Tab_2 alloc] init]; UITabBarItem *item2 = [[UITabBarItem alloc]initWithTitle:@"Sec" image:nil tag:1] ; [secondView setTabBarItem:item2]; NSLog(@"after second tab is added"); [tabBarController setViewControllers:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstView,secondView,nil] animated:NO]; NSLog(@"after tab is added"); [appDelegate.window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; NSLog(@"after view is added"); */ appDelegate.window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; // Override point for customization after application launch. UIViewController *viewController1 = [[Tab_1 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 1" bundle:nil]; UIViewController *viewController2 = [[Tab_2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 2" bundle:nil]; UIViewController *viewController3 = [[Tab_2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 1" bundle:nil]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:viewController1, viewController2, viewController3, nil]; appDelegate.window.rootViewController = self.tabBarController; [appDelegate.window makeKeyAndVisible]; Tabs *temp = [[Tabs alloc]initWithNibName:@"Tabs" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:temp animated:NO]; } Errors Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <ViewController: 0x6833c80>. 2012-12-06 09:57:48.963 demoTabs[667:f803] Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <Tabs: 0x6a3fc90>.

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  • get current selected button cell placed inside tableview using cocoa

    - by Swati
    hi i have a NSTableView i have two columns A and B B contains some data A contains custom button the button is added to column A using this: Below code is placed inside awakeFromNib method NSButtonCell *buttonCell = [[[NSButtonCell alloc] init] autorelease]; [buttonCell setBordered:NO]; [buttonCell setImagePosition:NSImageOnly]; [buttonCell setButtonType:NSMomentaryChangeButton]; [buttonCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [buttonCell setSelectable:TRUE]; [buttonCell setTag:100]; [buttonCell setTarget:self]; [buttonCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; [[myTable tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] setDataCell:buttonCell]; Some code in display cell of nstableview: -(void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(id)cell forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"DataIdentifier"]) { } else if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *zCell = (NSButtonCell *)cell; [zCell setTag:rowIndex]; [zCell setTitle:@"abc"]; [zCell setTarget:self]; [zCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; } } } now i want that when i click on the button the image of button cell gets changed as well as i want to do some coding. When button gets clicked then by default the tableView's reference gets passed. How can i get the button cell reference i looked here for similar problem: Cocoa: how to nest a button inside a Table View cell? but i am unable to add button inside column of NSTableView. How i change the image: - (void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView setObjectValue:(id)object forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)row; { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *aCell = (NSButtonCell *)[[tableView tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] dataCellForRow:row]; NSInteger index = [[aCell title]intValue]; if([self.selectedIndexesArray count]>0) { if(![self.selectedIndexesArray containsObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]) { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray removeObjectAtIndex:[selectedIndexesArray indexOfObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]]; } } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } } } } I have debugged the code and found that proper tag and titles are passed but image applies on more than one button cell, this is too very irregular. cant understand how its working!!! Any suggestions what am i doing wrong??

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  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

    - by davidhong
    I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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