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• getting Error while set up the connection pool in jboss

  - by Yashwant Chavan

  Hi as per following Connection pool configuration facing some issue. Place a copy of mysql-connector-java-[version]-bin.jar in $JBOSS_HOME/server/all/lib. Then, follow the example configuration file named mysql-ds.xml in the $JBOSS_HOME/docs/examples/jca directory that comes with a JBoss binary installation. To activate your DataSource, place an xml file that follows the format of mysql-ds.xml in the deploy subdirectory in either $JBOSS_HOME/server/all, $JBOSS_HOME/server/default, or $JBOSS_HOME/server/[yourconfig] as appropriate. I am getting following error resource-ref: jdbc/buinessCaliberDb has no valid JNDI binding. Check the jboss-web/resource-ref. This is my mysql-ds.xml <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>jdbc/buinessCaliberDb</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:mysql:///BUSINESS</connection-url> <driver-class>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</driver-class> <user-name>root</user-name> <password>password</password> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <!-- should only be used on drivers after 3.22.1 with "ping" support <valid-connection-checker-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLValidConnectionChecker</valid-connection-checker-class-name> --> <!-- sql to call when connection is created <new-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</new-connection-sql> --> <!-- sql to call on an existing pooled connection when it is obtained from pool - MySQLValidConnectionChecker is preferred for newer drivers <check-valid-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</check-valid-connection-sql> --> <!-- corresponding type-mapping in the standardjbosscmp-jdbc.xml (optional) --> <metadata> <type-mapping>mySQL</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and this my web.xml entry <resource-ref> <description>DB Connection</description> <res-ref-name>jdbc/buinessCaliberDb</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> and this jboss-web.xml entry <jboss-web> <resource-ref> <description>DB Connection</description> <res-ref-name>jdbc/buinessCaliberDb</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </jboss-web> Please help

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• NoSQL DB for .Net document-based database (ECM)

  - by Dane

  I'm halfway through coding a basic multi-tenant SaaS ECM solution. Each client has it's own instance of the database / datastore, but the .Net app is single instance. The documents are pretty much read only (i.e. an image archive of tiffs or PDFs) I've used MSSQL so far, but then started thinking this might be viable in a NoSQL DB (e.g. MongoDB, CouchDB). The basic premise is that it stores documents, each with their own particular indexes. Each tenant can have multiple document types. e.g. One tenant might have an invoice type, which has Customer ID, Invoice Number and Invoice Date. Another tenant might have an application form, which has Member Number, Application Number, Member Name, and Application Date. So far I've used the old method which Sharepoint (used?) to use, and created a document table which has int_field_1, int_field_2, date_field_1, date_field_2, etc. Then, I've got a "mapping" table which stores the customer specific index name, and the database field that will map to. I've avoided the key-value pair model in the DB due to volume of documents. This way, we can support multiple document types in the one table, and get reasonably high performance out of it, and allow for custom document type searches (i.e. user selects a document type, then they're presented with a list of search fields). However, a NoSQL DB might make this a lot simpler, as I don't need to worry about denormalizing the document. However, I've just got concerns about the rest of the data around a document. We store an "action history" against the document. This tracks views, whether someone emails the document from within the system, and other "future" functionality (e.g. faxing). We have control over the document load process, so we can manipulate the data however it needs to be to get it in the document store (e.g. assign unique IDs). Users will not be adding in their own documents, so we shouldn't need to worry about ACID compliance, as the documents are relatively static. So, my questions I guess : Is a NoSQL DB a good fit Is MongoDB the best for Asp.Net (I saw Raven and Velocity, but they're still kinda beta) Can I store a key for each document, and then store the action history in a MSSQL DB with this key? I don't need to do joins, it would be if a person clicks "View History" against a document. How would performance compare between the two (NoSQL DB vs denormalized "document" table) Volumes would be up to 200,000 new documents per month for a single tenant. My current scaling plan with the SQL DB involves moving the SQL DB into a cluster when certain thresholds are reached, and then reviewing partitioning and indexing structures.

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• Visual Studio 2005 - Debugger stopped working.

  - by eric

  More fun and pain with Visual Studio. Visual Studio 2005. About two months ago, I started an assignment. In my role, I cannot install or configure development software. Trust me this has given me plenty of heartburn. No IIS is involved here, just File Sharing. That being said, when I first started I had a problem with my debugger not working. The debugger just stopped. I was able to get it working. Now the problem has returned and I am pulling every last hair on my head. Almost none of my symbols loads. It can't find the PDB files. In Debugger options, I checked the Symbol section. My symbol file location entry is completely blank. ? I don't know why. I did not touch this prior to the problem occurring. I have cleared the Temporary ASP.NET folders. Example: Here is my Module Output CppCodeProvider.dll C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_MSIL\CppCodeProvider\8.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\CppCodeProvider.dll No No Cannot find or open the PDB file. 17 8.0.50727.762 12/2/2006 4:23 AM 6A510000-6A52C000 [1844] WebDev.WebServer.EXE: Managed WebDev.WebHost.dll C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_32\WebDev.WebHost\8.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\WebDev.WebHost.dll No No Cannot find or open the PDB file. 3 8.0.50727.42 9/23/2005 4:20 AM 6D040000-6D050000 [1844] WebDev.WebServer.EXE: Managed So I enabled the SHFUSION.dll in my versio of the the Framework I am using... In my GAC, I can see this version of WebDev.WebHost.dll for example: ProcessArchitecture(x86) Public key token matches: b03f5f7f11d50a3a 8.0.50727.42 I then see some custom dlls. I should note, I created a new project. Recreated my files manually by importing them. The debugger worked 5 times and died. I'm at a loss of what to do next? The obvious has been checked: The project is set to Debug Configuration Manager Configuration Debug Platform .NET Build : checked. Web.Config: I have attempted to manually attach to the Webdev process from the Debug window and that doesn't work. I have googled this and this problem seems to occur quite a bit.

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• iPhone: didSelectRowAtIndexPath not invoked

  - by soletan

  Hi, I know this issue being mentioned before, but resolutions there didn't apply. I'm having a UINavigationController with an embedded UITableViewController set up using IB. In IB the UITableView's delegate and dataSource are both set to my derivation of UITableViewController. This class has been added using XCode's templates for UITableViewController classes. There is no custom UITableViewCell and the table view is using default plain style with single title, only. Well, in simulator the list is rendered properly, with two elements provided by dataSource, so dataSource is linked properly. If I remove the outlet link for dataSource in IB, an empty table is rendered instead. As soon as I tap on one of these two items, it is flashing blue and the GDB encounters interruption in __forwarding__ in scope of a UITableView::_selectRowAtIndexPath. It's not reaching breakpoint set in my non-empty method didSelectRowIndexPath. I checked the arguments and method's name to exclude typos resulting in different selector. I recently didn't succeed in whether delegate is set properly, but as it is set equivalently to dataSource which is getting two elements from the same class, I expect it to be set properly. So, what's wrong? I'm running iPhone/iPad SDK 3.1.2 ... but tried with iPhone SDK 3.1 in simulator as well. EDIT: This is the code of my UITableViewController derivation: #import "LocalBrowserListController.h" #import "InstrumentDescriptor.h" @implementation LocalBrowserListController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self listLocalInstruments]; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; } - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [entries count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; if ( ( [entries count] > 0 ) && ( [indexPath length] > 0 ) ) cell.textLabel.text = [[[entries objectAtIndex:[indexPath indexAtPosition:[indexPath length] - 1]] label] retain]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if ( ( [entries count] > 0 ) && ( [indexPath length] > 0 ) ) { ... } } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } - (void) listLocalInstruments { NSMutableArray *result = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:10]; [result addObject:[InstrumentDescriptor descriptorOn:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"example" ofType:@"idl"] withLabel:@"Default 1"]]; [result addObject:[InstrumentDescriptor descriptorOn:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"example" ofType:@"xml"] withLabel:@"Default 2"]]; [entries release]; entries = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:result]; } @end

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• objective-c Add to/Edit .plist file

  - by Dave

  Does writeToFile:atomically, add data to an existing .plist? Is it possible to modify a value in a .plist ? SHould the app be recompiled to take effect the change? I have a custom .plist list in my app. The structure is as below: <array> <dict> <key>Title</key> <string>MyTitle</string> <key>Measurement</key> <dict> <key>prop1</key> <real>28.86392</real> <key>prop2</key> <real>75.12451</real> </dict> <key>Distance</key> <dict> <key>prop3</key> <real>37.49229</real> <key>prop4</key> <real>58.64502</real> </dict> </dict> </array> The array tag holds multiple items with same structure. I need to add items to the existing .plist. Is that possible? I can write a UIView to do just that, if so. *EDIT - OK, I just tried to writetofile hoping it would atleast overwrite if not add to it. Strangely, the following code selects different path while reading and writing. NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; The .plist file is in my project. I can read from it. When I write to it, it is creating a .plist file and saving it in my /users/.../library/! Does this make sense to anyone?

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• What is a good dumbed-down, safe template system for PHP?

  - by Wilhelm

  (Summary: My users need to be able to edit the structure of their dynamically generated web pages without being able to do any damage.) Greetings, ladies and gentlemen. I am currently working on a service where customers from a specific demographic can create a specific type of web site and fill it with their own content. The system is written in PHP. Many of the users of this system wish to edit how their particular web site looks, or, more commonly, have a designer do it for them. Editing the CSS is fine and dandy, but sometimes that's not enough. Sometimes they want to shuffle the entire page structure around by editing the raw HTML of the dynamically created web pages. The templating system used by WordPress is, as far as I can see, perfect for my use. Except for one thing which is critically important. In addition to being able to edit how comments are displayed or where the menu goes, someone editing a template can have that template execute arbitrary PHP code. As the same codebase runs all these different sites, with all content in the same databse, allowing my users to run arbitrary code is clearly out of the question. So what I need, is a dumbed-down, idiot-proof templating system where my users can edit most of the page structure on their own, pulling in the dynamic sections wherever, without being able to even echo 1+1;. Observe the following psuedocode: <!DOCTYPE html> <title><!-- $title --></title> <!-- header() --> <!-- menu() --> <div>Some random custom crap added by the user.</div> <!-- page_content() --> That's the degree of power I'd like to grant my users. They don't need to do their own loops or calculations or anything. Just include my variables and functions and leave the rest to me. I'm sure I'm not the only person on the planet that needs something like this. Do you know of any ready-made templating systems I could use? Thanks in advance for your reply.

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• Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <ViewController>,<Tab>

  - by onkar

  I am trying to implement Tabs into my secondView.On button touch(from ViewController.m) I am navigating to secondView(Tabs). In my Tabs.xib file I have added a TabBar at bottom and it is custom class of UITabBar. ViewController.m - (IBAction)touchedInside:(id)sender { NSLog(@"touhced up inside"); Tabs *temp = [[Tabs alloc]initWithNibName:@"Tabs" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:temp animated:YES]; [self presentViewController:temp animated:YES completion:nil]; } Tabs.m - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; AppDelegate *appDelegate = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UITabBarController *tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc]init]; /* Tab_1 *firstView = [[Tab_1 alloc] init]; UITabBarItem *item1 = [[UITabBarItem alloc]initWithTitle:@"First" image:nil tag:1]; [firstView setTabBarItem:item1]; NSLog(@"after first tab is added"); Tab_2 *secondView = [[Tab_2 alloc] init]; UITabBarItem *item2 = [[UITabBarItem alloc]initWithTitle:@"Sec" image:nil tag:1] ; [secondView setTabBarItem:item2]; NSLog(@"after second tab is added"); [tabBarController setViewControllers:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstView,secondView,nil] animated:NO]; NSLog(@"after tab is added"); [appDelegate.window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; NSLog(@"after view is added"); */ appDelegate.window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; // Override point for customization after application launch. UIViewController *viewController1 = [[Tab_1 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 1" bundle:nil]; UIViewController *viewController2 = [[Tab_2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 2" bundle:nil]; UIViewController *viewController3 = [[Tab_2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 1" bundle:nil]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:viewController1, viewController2, viewController3, nil]; appDelegate.window.rootViewController = self.tabBarController; [appDelegate.window makeKeyAndVisible]; Tabs *temp = [[Tabs alloc]initWithNibName:@"Tabs" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:temp animated:NO]; } Errors Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <ViewController: 0x6833c80>. 2012-12-06 09:57:48.963 demoTabs[667:f803] Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <Tabs: 0x6a3fc90>.

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• Gathering Staff anyone interested?

  - by kasene

  Thread Title - Gathering Staff Rush-Soft Game Design is currently looking for staff of a moderate skill level. Team Name - RushSoft Game Design Project Name - N/A We are gathering staff so that we can begin working on a new game. Target Aim - Freeware / Free Version - Paid Version With our first project our aim is to simply get our name out there. Generally we will be targeting a freeware distribution platform or a Free and Paid version. Compensation - Prehaps in the future but don't rely on it If in the future we start developing a game we intend to make any sort of sizable profit from then yes, there will be compensation however currently our low, low funding comes from generous donations. Any money that we make for now will go to the teams funding for things like engine licenses and company registration. Technology - C/C++ RSETech Our primary functional language will be C/C++ as most games are. We will be using a custom built library built on Direct3D called RSETech or RushSoft Engine Technology. Currently its is fully capable of being used for developing a game. The final version is made up of almost entirely C (No C++ or OOP). There is a C++ version currently in the works. Programming: - Microsoft Visual C++ 2008 / 2010 2D Art - Photoshop CS2 - GIMP Talent Needed - We currently are in need of x2 Programmers - With understanding of the following C/C ++ and game programming aspects: -If/Else Conditions -Functions/Methods -Arrays -Pointers (You don't need to fully understand these. Just know when they need to be used.) -Enums -Loops (For and While) -Structs (and How to use . and - syntax) -Classes (and how to call methods and access variables from a class) -State Machines -Switches -Include Guards -Understanding of how game loops work in general. (Init, Update, Render, Deinit) x2 Artists - As long as you have the means to and are able to draw 2D sprites and collab with a game designer to get a good result. 1 or more Game Designers - You can design levels (for platformers) as well as write game scripts and you can come up with good ideas and game mechanics. As long as you can do these things and are able to work well with artists and programmers you're golden. Business Consultant - Someone who knows the industry and how it works. Will inquire about possible distribution platforms as well as contact other developers, websites, and publishers on RushSofts behalf. Team Structure - Kasene Clark - Co-Founder/Lead Programmer/Game Designer Casey W - Co-Founder/Artist(GC/Animation)/Game Designer Nathan Mayworm - Game Designer. Website - RushSoft Websitek Contact - Kasene Clark [email protected] - [email protected] Phone - 12075181967 Feedback - Any Thank You! -Kasene

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• [solved] PHP-called hyperlink stopped showing when CSS table implemented

  - by Luke

  EDIT: Solved - was not flutter's tag stripping, should work as advertised. I'm using Flutter (which creates custom fields) in Wordpress to display profile information entered as a Post. Before I implemented the CSS tables the link showed up and was clickable. Now I get nothing returned, even when I try to call the link outside the table. If you know anything about this, here's my code in the index.php file and I remain available for any questions. <?php if (in_category('Profile')) { ?> <table id="mytable" cellspacing="0"> -snip- <tr> <th class="row1" valign="top">Website </td> <td>Link: <a href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FrWebsite', $single=true) ?>"> <?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FrWebsite', $single=true) ?></a></td> </tr> -snip- </table> Thanks, L Edit: @Josh - there is a foreach looping construct in the table and it is reading and displaying the code correctly, I see what you're getting at now: <tr> <th class="row2" valign="top">Specialities </td> <td class="alt" valign="top"><?php $my_array = get('Expertise'); $output = ""; foreach($my_array as $check) { $output .= "<span>$check</span><br/> "; } echo $output; ?></td> </tr> Edit - @Josh - here's the old code as far as I can remember it, there was no major difference just a <td> tag where there now stands a <th>, there wasn't the class="" and there was no "Link:" and FrWebsite was called Website, but it still didn't work when called Website so I changed to see if that was the error. <tr> <td width="200" valign="top">Website </td> <td><a href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Website', $single=true) ?>"><?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Website', $single=true) ?></a></td> </tr>

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• What to do when you need more verbs in REST

  - by Richard Levasseur

  There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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• [How to] Checkbox :: Select one at a time

  - by neo-nant

  This is the code section from inno setup.My intention is to make two Checkbox where at a time one is being selected. But this code return error when first checkbox is clicked. [code] procedure CheckBoxOnClick(Sender: TObject); var Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin if CheckBox.Checked then ///error:"Could not call proc" [sud it be global if then how to or what to change?] BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbUnchecked; Box2.State := cbChecked; END else BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbChecked; Box2.State := cbUnchecked; END; end; procedure Box2OnClick(Sender: TObject); var Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin if Box2.Checked then ///error:same BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbChecked; Box2.State := cbUnchecked; END else BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbUnchecked; Box2.State := cbChecked; END; end; procedure CreateTheWizardPages; var Page: TWizardPage; Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin { TButton and others } Page := CreateCustomPage(wpWelcome, '', ''); CheckBox := TNewCheckBox.Create(Page); CheckBox.Top :=ScaleY(8)+ScaleX(50); CheckBox.Width := Page.SurfaceWidth; CheckBox.Height := ScaleY(17); CheckBox.Caption := 'Do this'; CheckBox.Checked := True; CheckBox.OnClick := @CheckBoxOnClick; CheckBox.Parent := Page.Surface; Box2 := TNewCheckBox.Create(Page); Box2.Top :=ScaleY(8)+ScaleX(70); Box2.Width := Page.SurfaceWidth; Box2.Height := ScaleY(17); Box2.Caption := 'No,Thanks.'; Box2.Checked := False; Box2.OnClick := @Box2OnClick; Box2.Parent := Page.Surface; end; procedure InitializeWizard(); //var begin { Custom wizard pages } CreateTheWizardPages; end; Please tell me where to change..

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• Am I Leaking ADO.NET Connections?

  - by HardCode

  Here is an example of my code in a DAL. All calls to the database's Stored Procedures are structured this way, and there is no in-line SQL. Friend Shared Function Save(ByVal s As MyClass) As Boolean Dim cn As SqlClient.SqlConnection = Dal.Connections.MyAppConnection Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand Try cmd.Connection = cn cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.CommandText = "proc_save_my_class" cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param1", s.Foo) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param2", s.Bar) Return True Finally Dal.Utility.CleanupAdoObjects(cmd, cn) End Try End Function Here is the Connection factory (if I am using the correct term): Friend Shared Function MyAppConnection() As SqlClient.SqlConnection Dim cn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ToString) cn.Open() If cn.State <> ConnectionState.Open Then ' CriticalException is a custom object inheriting from Exception. Throw New CriticalException("Could not connect to the database.") Else Return cn End If End Function Here is the Dal.Utility.CleaupAdoObjects() function: Friend Shared Sub CleanupAdoObjects(ByVal cmd As SqlCommand, ByVal cn As SqlConnection) If cmd IsNot Nothing Then cmd.Dispose() If cn IsNot Nothing AndAlso cn.State <> ConnectionState.Closed Then cn.Close() End Sub I am getting a lot of "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." error messages reported by the users. The application's DAL opens a connection, reads or saves data, and closes it. No connections are ever left open - intentionally! There is nothing obvious on the Windows 2000 Server hosting the SQL Server 2000 that would indicate a problem. Nothing in the Event Logs and nothing in the SQL Server logs. The timeouts happen randomly - I cannot reproduce. It happens early in the day with only 1 to 5 users in the system. It also happens with around 50 users in the system. The most connections to SQL Server via Performance Monitor, for all databases, has been about 74. The timeouts happen in code that both saves to, and reads from, the database in different parts of the application. The stack trace does not point to one or two offending DAL functions. It's happened in many different places. Does my ADO.NET code appear to be able to leak connections? I've goolged around a bit, and I've read that if the connection pool fills up, this can happen. However, I'm not explicitly setting any connection pooling. I've even tried to increase the Connection Timeout in the connection string, but timeouts happen long before the 300 second (5 minute) value: <add name="MyConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=MyServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=SSPI;Connection Timeout=300;"/> I'm at a total loss already as to what is causing these Timeout issues. Any ideas are appreciated.

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• JbossESB jmsProvider cannot convert IBMMQ JMS Message JMSTextMessage

  - by Himanshu

  I am trying to integrate IBMMQ v6.0.2 with jbossESB. we have local Queue available on IBMMQ on one of our QA QUEUEMANAGER. I am able to listen to the QUEUE using JMSprovider of jboss ESB. As soon as a message (of type jms_text ) is dropped , esb listen to it and pick it up and before it hit the next action it throws following error message. ERROR [JmsComposer] Unsupported JMS message type: com.ibm.jms.JMSTextMessage Here are the steps I followed. jboss-service.mxl : Defined Connection Factory and QUEUE added jars ( com.ibm.mq.* ) to ${jbossesb}/server/${mynode}/lib Added jms lsinterner configuration on jboss-esb.xml Please guide me what I m missing here... Do I need to create custom MessagePlugin ? jboss-esb looks like this <jms-provider name="WSMQ" connection-factory="MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <jms-bus busid="queuestartGwChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" acknowledge-mode ="AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE" /> </jms-bus> <jms-bus busid="queuestartEsbChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" /> </jms-bus> </jms-provider> jboss-service.xml looks like this <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQConnectionFactory" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <attribute name="JndiName">MQQueueConnectionFactory</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="IsXA">false</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="HostName">111.111.111.111</attribute> <attribute name="Port">1415</attribute> <attribute name="Channel">MYCO.SVRCONN</attribute> <attribute name="TransportType">CLIENT</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQDestination" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=WSMQRequestQueue"> <attribute name="JndiName">wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="DestinationName">MYCO.SERVICEORDER.QA01.QL01</attribute> <attribute name="TargetClient">MQ</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> I am using jboss-eap-4.3. Really appreciate any help.

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• Web P2P video confrence solution

  - by dtroy

  I'm looking for the best possible solution which will allow me to incorporate live video/audio conference between 2 users(only 2 at this point) into a flash gaming platform. The video chat is not just an extra feature, it's the main one. I'm mainly looking at open source implementations or something I'll be able to implement myself, but will consider commercial products if they are exactly what I need. Here are a few things I've looked at, but so far, I didn't find any of them good enough: Flash player 10's P2P capabilities sound promising, but I am aware of the fact that Adobe has not release any information on the RTMFP protocol and that there is no commercial server which supports it at this point. Stream all the video/audio live through a flash server (not p2p), but from my personal experience you don't get a smooth conversation. I think TokBox uses this method Java applets are a possible solution too (to perform p2p), but I don't think it will be a nice and elegant solution to combine them in the game at this point (and requires the user to authorize them). BTW, I couldn't find any useful implementations. So, If you know of any, i'll look into them. Google Gmail Video Chat uses a custom (and proprietary) browser plug-in which does the p2p and streams the video/audio into the flash player. This is a possible solution, but I rather not implement the entire p2p protocol stack + browser plug-in at this stage and concentrate on other aspect of the game itself. I think they are using XMPP based protocol similar to Jingle and they've release a Jingle librarby but without the video confrencing implementation. EDIT: In response to Branden: I am aware of Adobe Stratus. Stratus is a beta, hosted rendezvous service that aids establishing communications between Flash Player endpoints (RTMFP server). This current release of the Stratus is prerelease and is designed for evaluation purposes only. The service is not final. There is no guarantee that the service will continue to exist in the future or any information about the future cost. That's why I don't think it can be used as a commercial solution. At least not yet. I'd appreciate your suggestions and advice. thanks!

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• What are the Tags Around Default iPhone Address Book People Phone Number Labels?

  - by rnistuk

  My question concerns markup that surrounds some of the default phone number labels in the Person entries of the Contact list on the iPhone. I have created an iPhone contact list address book entry for a person, "John Smith" with the following phone number entries: Mobile (604) 123-4567 iPhone (778) 123-4567 Home (604) 789-4561 Work (604) 456-7891 Main (604) 789-1234 megaphone (234) 567-8990 Note that the first five labels are default labels provided by the Contacts application and the last label, "megaphone", is a custom label. I wrote the following method to retrieve and display the labels and phone numbers for each person in the address book: -(void)displayPhoneNumbersForAddressBook { ABAddressBookRef book = ABAddressBookCreate(); CFArrayRef people = ABAddressBookCopyArrayOfAllPeople(book); ABRecordRef record = CFArrayGetValueAtIndex(people, 0); ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(record, kABPersonPhoneProperty); NSLog(@"---------" ); NSLog(@"displayPhoneNumbersForAddressBook" ); CFStringRef label, phone; for (CFIndex i = 0; i < ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); ++i) { label = ABMultiValueCopyLabelAtIndex(multi, i); phone = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); NSLog(@"label: \"%@\" number: \"%@\"", (NSString*)label, (NSString*)phone); CFRelease(label); CFRelease(phone); } NSLog(@"---------" ); CFRelease(multi); CFRelease(people); CFRelease(book); } and here is the output for the address book entry that I entered: 2010-03-08 13:24:28.789 test2m[2479:207] --------- 2010-03-08 13:24:28.789 test2m[2479:207] displayPhoneNumbersForAddressBook 2010-03-08 13:24:28.790 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Mobile>!$_" number: "(604) 123-4567" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.790 test2m[2479:207] label: "iPhone" number: "(778) 123-4567" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.791 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Home>!$_" number: "(604) 789-4561" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.791 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Work>!$_" number: "(604) 456-7891" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.792 test2m[2479:207] label: "_$!<Main>!$_" number: "(604) 789-1234" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.792 test2m[2479:207] label: "megaphone" number: "(234) 567-8990" 2010-03-08 13:24:28.793 test2m[2479:207] --------- What are the markup characters _$!< and >!$_ surrounding most, save for iPhone, of the default labels for? Can you point me to where in the "Address Book Programming Guide for iPhone OS" I can find the information? Thank you for your help.

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• Using NHibernate to map a nChar column to an enumerated type

  - by Morrislgn

  Hello Folks, I am trying to map a table frp, a SQL Server 2005 DB to a class which contains an enum: public class MyClass{ private YesNoOptional addressSetting; public YesNoOptional AddressSetting{ {get; set;} } } public enum YesNoOptional { Yes, No, Optional } This will dictate that one of three values is inserted into the corresponding column - 'Y', 'N', 'O'. This column is of type nchar(1). My mapping file is like so (addressSetting is the property which is causing the problem): <class name="IncidentDefinition" table="IR_INCIDENT_DEF" lazy="false" > <id name="Guid" column="INT_GUID" > <generator class="guid"></generator> </id> <property name="Reference" column="INT_REF" ></property> <property name="Description" column="INT_DESCRIPTION" ></property> <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" ></property> <property name="Active" column="INT_ACTIVE" type="YesNo"></property> <property name="PinDocId" column="INT_PIN_DOC_ID"></property> </class> Using the config above I get the following error: NHibernate.ADOException: could not initialize a collection: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format.. If I try to map the enum using a custom type like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="ML.Types.YesNoOptional, ML.Types" ></property> Error: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format. Next, if I try using a specific type like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="String" ></property> This error is generated: NHibernate.PropertyAccessException: The type System.String can not be assigned to a property of type System.ArgumentException: Object of type 'System.String' cannot be converted to type 'ML.Types.YesNoOptional'.. As a last resort I tried to specify the type as a char like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="Char" ></property> This works a bit better, as it in it doesnt throw an error, however instead of returning the character from the table and mapping it to the enumerated type the ASCII value of the character is returned instead - so Y is represented by 89! I am hoping someone can explain what I am doing wrong and\or how why this is happening please? Thanks Morris

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• get current selected button cell placed inside tableview using cocoa

  - by Swati

  hi i have a NSTableView i have two columns A and B B contains some data A contains custom button the button is added to column A using this: Below code is placed inside awakeFromNib method NSButtonCell *buttonCell = [[[NSButtonCell alloc] init] autorelease]; [buttonCell setBordered:NO]; [buttonCell setImagePosition:NSImageOnly]; [buttonCell setButtonType:NSMomentaryChangeButton]; [buttonCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [buttonCell setSelectable:TRUE]; [buttonCell setTag:100]; [buttonCell setTarget:self]; [buttonCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; [[myTable tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] setDataCell:buttonCell]; Some code in display cell of nstableview: -(void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(id)cell forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"DataIdentifier"]) { } else if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *zCell = (NSButtonCell *)cell; [zCell setTag:rowIndex]; [zCell setTitle:@"abc"]; [zCell setTarget:self]; [zCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; } } } now i want that when i click on the button the image of button cell gets changed as well as i want to do some coding. When button gets clicked then by default the tableView's reference gets passed. How can i get the button cell reference i looked here for similar problem: Cocoa: how to nest a button inside a Table View cell? but i am unable to add button inside column of NSTableView. How i change the image: - (void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView setObjectValue:(id)object forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)row; { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *aCell = (NSButtonCell *)[[tableView tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] dataCellForRow:row]; NSInteger index = [[aCell title]intValue]; if([self.selectedIndexesArray count]>0) { if(![self.selectedIndexesArray containsObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]) { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray removeObjectAtIndex:[selectedIndexesArray indexOfObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]]; } } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } } } } I have debugged the code and found that proper tag and titles are passed but image applies on more than one button cell, this is too very irregular. cant understand how its working!!! Any suggestions what am i doing wrong??

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• Defining where on the page the flowdocument I am printing will 'start' and 'end'

  - by Sagi1981

  Dear community. I am almost done with implementing a printing functionality, but I am having trouble getting the last hurdle done with. My problem is, that I am printing some reports, consisting of a header (with information about the person the report is about), a footer (with a page number) and the content in the middle, which is a FlowDocument. Since the flowdocuments can be fairly long, It is very possible that they will span multiple pages. My approach is to make a custom FlowDocumentPaginator which derives from DocumentPaginator. In there i define my header and my footer. However, when I print my page, the flowdocument and my header and footer are on top of eachother. So my question is plain and simple - how do I define from where and to where the flowdocument part on the pages will be placed? here is the code from my custommade Paginator: public class HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator : DocumentPaginator { private DocumentPaginator flowDocumentpaginator; public HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(FlowDocument document) { flowDocumentpaginator = ((IDocumentPaginatorSource) document).DocumentPaginator; } public override bool IsPageCountValid { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.IsPageCountValid; } } public override int PageCount { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageCount; } } public override Size PageSize { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize; } set { flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize = value; } } public override IDocumentPaginatorSource Source { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.Source; } } public override DocumentPage GetPage(int pageNumber) { DocumentPage page = flowDocumentpaginator.GetPage(pageNumber); ContainerVisual newVisual = new ContainerVisual(); newVisual.Children.Add(page.Visual); DrawingVisual header = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = header.RenderOpen()) { //Header data } newVisual.Children.Add(header); DrawingVisual footer = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = footer.RenderOpen()) { Typeface typeface = new Typeface("Trebuchet MS"); FormattedText text = new FormattedText("Page " + (pageNumber + 1).ToString(), CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, FlowDirection.LeftToRight, typeface, 14, Brushes.Black); dc.DrawText(text, new Point(page.Size.Width - 100, page.Size.Height-30)); } newVisual.Children.Add(footer); DocumentPage newPage = new DocumentPage(newVisual); return newPage; } } And here is the printdialogue call: private void btnPrint_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { PrintDialog printDialog = new PrintDialog(); if (printDialog.ShowDialog() == true) { FlowDocument fd = new FlowDocument(); MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(<My string of text - RTF formatted>)); TextRange tr = new TextRange(fd.ContentStart, fd.ContentEnd); tr.Load(stream, DataFormats.Rtf); stream.Close(); fd.ColumnWidth = printDialog.PrintableAreaWidth; HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator paginator = new HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(fd); printDialog.PrintDocument(paginator, "myReport"); } } catch (Exception ex) { //Handle } }

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• developing maven plugin, how to exclude bitkeeper files

  - by Denali

  Hi There, I am trying to write my first maven plugin. I'd like to exclude all the java files related to the source repository I'm using, which is BitKeeper. These files live in directories called SCCS. I can't for the life of me figure out how to do this. When I add the maven-compile-plugin with excludes data, it works (the bk files are excluded) if I specify mvn compiler:compile. But this is not binding to the compile phase. So that when I run mvn compile, it blows up trying to compile a source control specific java file. Any help or pointers appreciated. Another thing to note: Everything works perfectly if I change the packaging from "maven-plugin" to "jar", which of course, I can't do permanently since this is a maven plugin I am trying to write. I'm sorry if this is answered elsewhere. I've looked around for several hours here and through the maven docs, but everything on this topic seems to be related to writing code which will be packaged in jars, not maven plugins. Here's my pom.xml: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>com.mycomp.mygroup</groupId> <artifactId>special-persistence-plugin</artifactId> <packaging>maven-plugin</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> <name>Special Persistence Plugin</name> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.maven</groupId> <artifactId>maven-plugin-api</artifactId> <version>2.0</version> </dependency> </dependencies> <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> <encoding>UTF-8</encoding> <excludes> <exclude>**/SCCS/**/*.java</exclude> </excludes> <phase>compile</phase> <goals> <goal>compiler:compile</goal> </goals> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> Thank you to anyone with ideas about this, -Denali

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• How to modularize a JSF/Facelets/Spring application with OSGi?

  - by lexicore

  I'm working with very large JSF/Facelets applications which use Spring for DI/bean management. My applications have modular structure and I'm currently looking for approaches to standardize the modularization. My goal is to compose a web application from a number of modules (possibly depending on each other). Each module may contain the following: Classes; Static resources (images, CSS, scripts); Facelet templates; Managed beans - Spring application contexts, with request, session and application-scoped beans (alternative is JSF managed beans); Servlet API stuff - servlets, filters, listeners (this is optional). What I'd like to avoid (almost at all costs) is the need to copy or extract module resources (like Facelets templates) to the WAR or to extend the web.xml for module's servlets, filters, etc. It must be enough to add the module (JAR, bundle, artifact, ...) to the web application (WEB-INF/lib, bundles, plugins, ...) to extend the web application with this module. Currently I solve this task with a custom modularization solution which is heavily based on using classpath resources: Special resources servlet serves static resources from classpath resources (JARs). Special Facelets resource resolver allows loading Facelet templates from classpath resources. Spring loads application contexts via the pattern classpath*:com/acme/foo/module/applicationContext.xml - this loads application contexts defined in module JARs. Finally, a pair of delegating servlets and filters delegate request processing to the servlets and filters configured in Spring application contexts from modules. Last days I read a lot about OSGi and I was considering, how (and if) I could use OSGi as a standardized modularization approach. I was thinking about how individual tasks could be solved with OSGi: Static resources - OSGi bundles which want to export static resources register a ResourceLoader instances with the bundle context. A central ResourceServlet uses these resource loaders to load resources from bundles. Facelet templates - similar to above, a central ResourceResolver uses services registered by bundles. Managed beans - I have no idea how to use an expression like #{myBean.property} if myBean is defined in one of the bundles. Servlet API stuff - use something like WebExtender/Pax Web to register servlets, filters and so on. My questions are: Am I inventing a bicycle here? Are there standard solutions for that? I've found a mentioning of Spring Slices but could not find much documentation about it. Do you think OSGi is the right technology for the described task? Is my sketch of OSGI application more or less correct? How should managed beans (especially request/session scope) be handled? I'd be generally graefult for your comments.

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• IIS doing unexpected redirect

  - by user2967489

  I have website abc.com and abc.co.in.I have two webservers also. The following issue happens only in abc.co.in with same application deployed on same. We have written a custom IHttpModule and do a rewrite to abc.co.in?some=data. Expected behavior: When user enters some.abc.co.in the expected behavior is browser still display some.abc.co.in but internally call abc.co.in?some=data Actual behavior: The page is rendered properly but in browser the URL changes to some.abc.co.in?some=data I checked what is happening 1.First the server receives the request and does a 301 redirect. 2.The redirect location is some.abc.co.in?some=data I am stuck in this for a day and critical to fix to make our site up and running. How to debug this issue further ?.Any one can think of possible cause? ETW Trace shows <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <OldUrl>/</OldUrl> <NewUrl>/fp?&id=hazzel&params=</NewUrl> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <ModuleName>DefaultDocumentModule</ModuleName> <Notification>128</Notification> <HttpStatus>301</HttpStatus> <HttpReason>Moved Permanently</HttpReason> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <Headers>Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Location: http://some.abc.co.in/fp/?id=data Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET </Headers> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData>

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• Routed Command Question

  - by Andrew

  I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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• How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by Jiho Han

  I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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• Cluster failover and strange gratuitous arp behavior

  - by lazerpld

  I am experiencing a strange Windows 2008R2 cluster related issue that is bothering me. I feel that I have come close as to what the issue is, but still don't fully understand what is happening. I have a two node exchange 2007 cluster running on two 2008R2 servers. The exchange cluster application works fine when running on the "primary" cluster node. The problem occurs when failing over the cluster ressource to the secondary node. When failing over the cluster to the "secondary" node, which for instance is on the same subnet as the "primary", the failover initially works ok and the cluster ressource continues to work for a couple of minutes on the new node. Which means that the recieving node does send out a gratuitous arp reply packet that updated the arp tables on the network. But after x amount of time (typically within 5 minutes time) something updates the arp-tables again because all of a sudden the cluster service does not answer to pings. So basically I start a ping to the exchange cluster address when its running on the "primary node". It works just great. I failover the cluster ressource group to the "secondary node" and I only have loss of one ping which is acceptable. The cluster ressource still answers for some time after being failed over and all of a sudden the ping starts timing out. This is telling me that the arp table initially is updated by the secondary node, but then something (which I haven't found out yet) wrongfully updates it again, probably with the primary node's MAC. Why does this happen - has anyone experienced the same problem? The cluster is NOT running NLB and the problem stops immidiately after failing over back to the primary node where there are no problems. Each node is using NIC teaming (intel) with ALB. Each node is on the same subnet and has gateway and so on entered correctly as far as I am concerned. Edit: I was wondering if it could be related to network binding order maybe? Because I have noticed that the only difference I can see from node to node is when showing the local arp table. On the "primary" node the arp table is generated on the cluster address as the source. While on the "secondary" its generated from the nodes own network card. Any input on this? Edit: Ok here is the connection layout. Cluster address: A.B.6.208/25 Exchange application address: A.B.6.212/25 Node A: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.210/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.138/24 Node B: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.211/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.139/24 Each node sits in a seperate datacenter connected together. End switches being cisco in DC1 and NEXUS 5000/2000 in DC2. Edit: I have been testing a little more. I have now created an empty application on the same cluster, and given it another ip address on the same subnet as the exchange application. After failing this empty application over, I see the exact same problem occuring. After one or two minutes clients on other subnets cannot ping the virtual ip of the application. But while clients on other subnets cannot, another server from another cluster on the same subnet has no trouble pinging. But if i then make another failover to the original state, then the situation is the opposite. So now clients on same subnet cannot, and on other they can. We have another cluster set up the same way and on the same subnet, with the same intel network cards, the same drivers and same teaming settings. Here we are not seeing this. So its somewhat confusing. Edit: OK done some more research. Removed the NIC teaming of the secondary node, since it didnt work anyway. After some standard problems following that, I finally managed to get it up and running again with the old NIC teaming settings on one single physical network card. Now I am not able to reproduce the problem described above. So it is somehow related to the teaming - maybe some kind of bug? Edit: Did some more failing over without being able to make it fail. So removing the NIC team looks like it was a workaround. Now I tried to reestablish the intel NIC teaming with ALB (as it was before) and i still cannot make it fail. This is annoying due to the fact that now i actually cannot pinpoint the root of the problem. Now it just seems to be some kind of MS/intel hick-up - which is hard to accept because what if the problem reoccurs in 14 days? There is a strange thing that happened though. After recreating the NIC team I was not able to rename the team to "PUBLIC" which the old team was called. So something has not been cleaned up in windows - although the server HAS been restarted! Edit: OK after restablishing the ALB teaming the error came back. So I am now going to do some thorough testing and i will get back with my observations. One thing is for sure. It is related to Intel 82575EB NICS, ALB and Gratuitous Arp.

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• Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

  - by davidhong

  I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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