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  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

    - by davidhong
    I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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  • developing maven plugin, how to exclude bitkeeper files

    - by Denali
    Hi There, I am trying to write my first maven plugin. I'd like to exclude all the java files related to the source repository I'm using, which is BitKeeper. These files live in directories called SCCS. I can't for the life of me figure out how to do this. When I add the maven-compile-plugin with excludes data, it works (the bk files are excluded) if I specify mvn compiler:compile. But this is not binding to the compile phase. So that when I run mvn compile, it blows up trying to compile a source control specific java file. Any help or pointers appreciated. Another thing to note: Everything works perfectly if I change the packaging from "maven-plugin" to "jar", which of course, I can't do permanently since this is a maven plugin I am trying to write. I'm sorry if this is answered elsewhere. I've looked around for several hours here and through the maven docs, but everything on this topic seems to be related to writing code which will be packaged in jars, not maven plugins. Here's my pom.xml: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>com.mycomp.mygroup</groupId> <artifactId>special-persistence-plugin</artifactId> <packaging>maven-plugin</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> <name>Special Persistence Plugin</name> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.maven</groupId> <artifactId>maven-plugin-api</artifactId> <version>2.0</version> </dependency> </dependencies> <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> <encoding>UTF-8</encoding> <excludes> <exclude>**/SCCS/**/*.java</exclude> </excludes> <phase>compile</phase> <goals> <goal>compiler:compile</goal> </goals> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> Thank you to anyone with ideas about this, -Denali

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  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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  • paypal ipn working but stopping at 'thank you' page.

    - by Tarique Imam
    I am using the code for controller(CODEIGNITER): function paypal_tran(){ if (empty($_GET['action'])){ $_GET['action'] = 'process';} if($this-uri-segment ( 3 )){ $action=$this-uri-segment ( 3 ); } else{ $action='process'; } $ammount=39.99; $this-lenders_model-paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount); $this-load-view('view_paypal_tran'); } function ipn(){ if ($this->paypal_class->validate_ipn()) { $data = array( 'fname'=> 'fname', /* insert the user id */ 'lname'=>'lname' ); //$this->db->insert('ajax_test',$data); // For this example, we'll just email ourselves ALL the data. $subject = 'Instant Payment Notification - Recieved Payment'; $to = '[email protected]'; // your email $body = "An instant payment notification was successfully recieved\n"; $body .= "from ".$p->ipn_data['payer_email']." on ".date('m/d/Y'); $body .= " at ".date('g:i A')."\n\nDetails:\n"; foreach ($this->paypal_class->ipn_data as $key => $value) { $body .= "\n$key: $value"; } mail($to, $subject, $body); } } function success() { $this->load->view('paypal_succ_view'); } AND this is my model: function paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount){ switch ($action) { case 'process': // Process and order... // There should be no output at this point. To process the POST data, // the submit_paypal_post() function will output all the HTML tags which // contains a FORM which is submited instantaneously using the BODY onload // attribute. In other words, don't echo or printf anything when you're // going to be calling the submit_paypal_post() function. // This is where you would have your form validation and all that jazz. // You would take your POST vars and load them into the class like below, // only using the POST values instead of constant string expressions. // For example, after ensureing all the POST variables from your custom // order form are valid, you might have: // // $p->add_field('first_name', $_POST['first_name']); // $p->add_field('last_name', $_POST['last_name']); $this->paypal_class->add_field('business', '[email protected]'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('return', $this_script.'/success'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('cancel_return', $this_script.'/cancel'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('notify_url', $this_script.'/ipn'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('item_name', 'Lenders Account for one month'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('amount', $ammount); $this->paypal_class->submit_paypal_post(); // submit the fields to paypal $this->paypal_class->dump_fields(); // for debugging, output a table of all the fields break; PROBLEM IS IPN IS NOT WORKING. THE HIDDEN FIELD HAS VALUE FOR REDIRECT TO IPN, BUT NOT WORKING!!PLS HELP

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  • Can't make my WCF extension work

    - by Sergio Romero
    I have a WCF solution that consists of the following class libraries: Exercise.Services: Contains the implementation classes for the services. Exercise.ServiceProxy: Contains the classes that are instantiated in the client. Exercise.HttpHost: Contains the services (*.svc files). I'm calling the service from a console application and the "first version" works really well so I took the next step which is to create a custom ServiceHostFactory, ServiceHost, and InstanceProvider so I can use constructor injection in my services as it is explained in this article. These classes are implemented in yet another class library: 4. Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension Now even though I've modified my service this: <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory" Service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" %> I always get the following exception: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException Security negotiation failed because the remote party did not send back a reply in a timely manner. This may be because the underlying transport connection was aborted. It fails in this line of code: public class PurchaseOrderProxy : ClientBase<IPurchaseOrderService>, IPurchaseOrderService { public PurchaseOrderResponse CreatePurchaseOrder(PurchaseOrderRequest purchaseOrderRequest) { return base.Channel.CreatePurchaseOrder(purchaseOrderRequest); //Fails here } } But that is not all, I added a trace to the web.config file and this is the error that appears in the log file: System.InvalidOperationException The service type provided could not be loaded as a service because it does not have a default (parameter-less) constructor. To fix the problem, add a default constructor to the type, or pass an instance of the type to the host. So this means that my ServiceHostFactory is never being hit, I even set a breakpoint in both its constructor and its method and they never get hit. I've added a reference of the StructureMapWcfExtension library to all the other ones (even the console client), one by one to no avail. I also tried to use the option in the host's web.config file to configure the factory like so: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceActivations> <add service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" relativeAddress="PurchaseOrderService.svc" factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory"/> </serviceActivations> </serviceHostingEnvironment> That didn't work either. Please I need help in getting this to work so I can incorporate it to our project. Thank you. UPDATE: Here's the service host factory's code: namespace Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension { public class StructureMapServiceHostFactory : ServiceHostFactory { private readonly Container Container; public StructureMapServiceHostFactory() { Container = new Container(); new ContainerConfigurer().Configure(Container); } protected override ServiceHost CreateServiceHost(Type serviceType, Uri[] baseAddresses) { return new StructureMapServiceHost(Container, serviceType, baseAddresses); } } public class ContainerConfigurer { public void Configure(Container container) { container.Configure(r => r.For<IPurchaseOrderFacade>().Use<PurchaseOrderFacade>()); } } }

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  • How can I make these images download on a seperate thread?

    - by Andy Barlow
    Hello!! I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really apreciated. Thank-you kindly. Andy Barlow private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

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  • jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

    - by boomturn
    I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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  • paypal IPN sends two different twice

    - by Patrick
    I've come across something a bit strange I was hoping someone with more experience with Paypal can explain, Specifically the IPN feature. It seems I'm getting two very different hits to my IPN listener. The first one always fails, The second one passes. Now I know Paypal tends to send duplicates, But what I've noticed is two very different $_POST arrays being recieved. Here's the respones : [2014-06-08 23:51:19] RAW POST DATA : Array ( [transaction] => Array ( [0] => ILS 20.00 ) [payment_request_date] => Sun Jun 08 13:52:12 PDT 2014 [return_url] => MY_URL [fees_payer] => EACHRECEIVER [ipn_notification_url] => MY_URL [sender_email] => [email protected] //fake email [verify_sign] => ANp5TpLat3.2ylx.cECtVZ..5HejAsVcs05tdVC7RldmeYNJ91SKaqFJ [test_ipn] => 1 [cancel_url] => MY_URL [pay_key] => AP-04B74091M7083584A [action_type] => PAY [transaction_type] => Adaptive Payment PAY [tracking_id] => 13 // This is a number I passed, But it doesn't exist in the 2nd POST [status] => COMPLETED [log_default_shipping_address_in_transaction] => false [charset] => windows-1252 [notify_version] => UNVERSIONED [reverse_all_parallel_payments_on_error] => false ) [2014-06-08 23:51:19] RAW POST DATA : Array ( [transaction_subject] => [payment_date] => 13:52:28 Jun 08, 2014 PDT [txn_type] => web_accept [last_name] => test [residence_country] => US [item_name] => .... (this continues for quite a bit more) .... [payment_fee] => [mc_fee] => 1.78 [mc_gross] => 20.00 [custom] => [charset] => windows-1252 [notify_version] => 3.8 [ipn_track_id] => f93ce8bdd4382 ) My problem The first IPN with the juicy tracking_id fails, the 2nd IPN is verified, But once the IPN is verified I no longer have access to the tracking_id. My questions Why does paypal send two different IPN's Why are they different? Why isn't any of this documented on Paypal? :(

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  • Design pattern question: encapsulation or inheritance

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I have a question I have been toiling over for quite a while. I am building a templating engine with two main classes Template.php and Tag.php, with a bunch of extension classes like Img.php and String.php. The program works like this: A Template object creates a Tag objects. Each tag object determines which extension class (img, string, etc.) to implement. The point of the Tag class is to provide helper functions for each extension class such as wrap('div'), addClass('slideshow'), etc. Each Img or String class is used to render code specific to what is required, so $Img->render() would give something like <img src='blah.jpg' /> My Question is: Should I encapsulate all extension functionality within the Tag object like so: Tag.php function __construct($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call $this->extension = new $namespace($this); // Pass in Tag object so it can be used within extension return $this; // Tag object } function render() { return $this->extension->render(); } Img.php function __construct(Tag $T) { $args = $T->getArgs(); $T->addClass('img'); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } Usage: $T = new Tag("img", array(...); $T->render(); .... or should I create more of an inheritance structure because "Img is a Tag" Tag.php public static create($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call return new $namespace($args); } Img.php class Img extends Tag { function __construct($args) { // Determine namespace then call create tag $T = parent::__construct($namespace, $args); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } } Usage: $Img = Tag::create('img', array(...)); $Img->render(); One thing I do need is a common interface for creating custom tags, ie I can instantiate Img(...) then instantiate String(...), I do need to instantiate each extension using Tag. I know this is somewhat vague of a question, I'm hoping some of you have dealt with this in the past and can foresee certain issues with choosing each design pattern. If you have any other suggestions I would love to hear them. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • Android: dynamically setting links to text in strings.xml

    - by Martyn
    I'm trying to make an app with localisation built in, but I want a way that I can create a web link within the text, the URL being defined elsewhere (for ease of maintenance). So, I have my links in res/values/strings.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="link1">http://some.link.com</string> <string name="link2">http://some.link2.com</string> </resources> and my localised text in res/values-en-rGB/strings.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and link1\nMore text and link2.</string> </resources> I've not tested this bit, but from the localization section of developer.android.com it says that this approach to reducing content duplication should work, although I'm not sure what folder I should put Italian, for example. Would it be in 'res/values-it-rIT/strings.xml'? Lets assume that I have various other languages too. I'm looking for a way of taking the base localised 'sampleText' and inserting my html links in, and getting them to work when clicked on. I've tried two approaches so far: 1, Putting some formatting in the 'sampleText' (%s): <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and <a href="%s">link1</a>\nMore text and <a href="%s">link2</a>.</string> and then processing the text like this: TextView tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textHolder); tv.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.sampleText, getResources().getString(R.string.link1), getResources().getString(R.string.link2))); But this didn't work when I click on the link, even though the link text is being put in to the correct places. 2, I tried to use Linkify but the regular expression route may be difficult as I'm looking at supporting non-Latin based languages. I tried to put a custom xml tag around the link text and then do something like this: Pattern wordMatcher = Pattern.compile("<span1>.*</span1>"); String viewURL = "content://" + getResources().getString(R.string.someLink); Linkify.addLinks(tv, wordMatcher , viewURL ); But this didn't work either. So, I'd like to know if there's a way of dynamically adding multiple URLs to different sections of the same text which will link to web content? Thank you, Martyn

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  • NSKeyedUnarchiver chokes when trying to unarchive more than one object

    - by ajduff574
    We've got a custom matrix class, and we're attempting to archive and unarchive an NSArray containing four of them. The first seems to get unarchived fine (we can see that initWithCoder is called once), but then the program simply hangs, using 100% CPU. It doesn't continue or output any errors. These are the relevant methods from the matrix class (rows, columns, and matrix are our only instance variables): -(void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*) coder { float temp[rows * columns]; for(int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { for(int j = 0; j < columns; j++) { temp[columns * i + j] = matrix[i][j]; } } [coder encodeBytes:(const void *)temp length:rows*columns*sizeof(float) forKey:@"matrix"]; [coder encodeInteger:rows forKey:@"rows"]; [coder encodeInteger:columns forKey:@"columns"]; } -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *) coder { if (self = [super init]) { rows = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"rows"]; columns = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"columns"]; NSUInteger * len; *len = (unsigned int)(rows * columns * sizeof(float)); float * temp = (float * )[coder decodeBytesForKey:@"matrix" returnedLength:len]; matrix = (float ** )calloc(rows, sizeof(float*)); for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { matrix[i] = (float*)calloc(columns, sizeof(float)); } for(int i = 0; i < rows *columns; i++) { matrix[i / columns][i % columns] = temp[i]; } } return self; } And this is really all we're trying to do: NSArray * weightMatrices = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:w1,w2,w3,w4,nil]; [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:weightMatrices toFile:@"weights.archive"]; NSArray * newWeights = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"weights.archive"]; What's driving us crazy is that we can archive and unarchive a single matrix just fine. We've done so (successfully) with a matrix many times larger than these four combined.

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  • How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Jiho Han
    I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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  • DatagridView loses current edit on Background update

    - by yoni.s
    Here's my problem : I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList of custom objects. A background thread is constantly updating a value of these objects. The udpates are showing correctly, and everything is fine except for one thing - If you try to edit a different field while the background-updated field is being updated, it loses the entered value. Here is a code sample that demonstrates this behavior: (for new form, drop a new DataGridView on:) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private BindingList<foo> flist; private Thread thrd; private BindingSource b; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); flist = new BindingList<foo> { new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1} }; b = new BindingSource(); b.DataSource = flist; dataGridView1.DataSource = b; thrd = new Thread(new ThreadStart(updPRoc)); thrd.Start(); } private void upd() { flist.ToList().ForEach(f=>f.c++); } private void updPRoc() { while (true) { this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(upd)); Thread.Sleep(1000); } } } public class foo:INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _c; public int a { get; set; } public int b { get; set; } public int c { get {return _c;} set { _c = value; if (PropertyChanged!= null) PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("c")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } } So, you edit column a or b, you will see that the column c update causes you to lose your entry. Any thoughts appreciated.

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  • What are the benefits of using ORM over XML Serialization/Deserialization?

    - by Tequila Jinx
    I've been reading about NHibernate and Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform Object Relational Mapping against my data access layer. I'm interested in the benefits of having an established framework to perform ORM, but I'm curious as to the performance costs of using it against standard XML Serialization and Deserialization. Right now, I develop stored procedures in Oracle and SQL Server that use XML Types for either input or output parameters and return or shred XML depending on need. I use a custom database command object that uses generics to deserialize the XML results into a specified serializable class. By using a combination of generics, xml (de)serialization and Microsoft's DAAB, I've got a process that's fairly simple to develop against regardless of the data source. Moreover, since I exclusively use Stored Procedures to perform database operations, I'm mostly protected from changes in the data structure. Here's an over-simplified example of what I've been doing. static void main() { testXmlClass test = new test(1); test.Name = "Foo"; test.Save(); } // Example Serializable Class ------------------------------------------------ [XmlRootAttribute("test")] class testXmlClass() { [XmlElement(Name="id")] public int ID {set; get;} [XmlElement(Name="name")] public string Name {set; get;} //create an instance of the class loaded with data. public testXmlClass(int id) { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); this = db.ExecuteSerializable("myGetByIDProcedure"); } //save the class to the database... public Save() { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); db.AddInParameter("myInputParameter", DbType.XML, this); db.ExecuteSerializableNonQuery("mySaveProcedure"); } } // Database Handler ---------------------------------------------------------- class GenericDBProvider { public T ExecuteSerializable<T>(string commandText) where T : class { XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); // connection and command code is assumed for the purposes of this example. // the final results basically just come down to... return xml.Deserialize(commandResults) as T; } public void ExecuteSerializableNonQuery(string commandText) { // once again, connection and command code is assumed... // basically, just execute the command along with the specified // parameters which have been serialized. } public void AddInParameter(string name, DbType type, object value) { StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(value.GetType()); //handle serialization for serializable classes. if (type == DbType.Xml && (value.GetType() != typeof(System.String))) { x.Serialize(w, value); w.Close(); // store serialized object in a DbParameterCollection accessible // to my other methods. } else { //handle all other parameter types } } } I'm starting a new project which will rely heavily on database operations. I'm very curious to know whether my current practices will be sustainable in a high-traffic situation and whether or not I should consider switching to NHibernate or Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform what essentially seems to boil down to the same thing I'm currently doing. I appreciate any advice you may have.

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  • Cluster failover and strange gratuitous arp behavior

    - by lazerpld
    I am experiencing a strange Windows 2008R2 cluster related issue that is bothering me. I feel that I have come close as to what the issue is, but still don't fully understand what is happening. I have a two node exchange 2007 cluster running on two 2008R2 servers. The exchange cluster application works fine when running on the "primary" cluster node. The problem occurs when failing over the cluster ressource to the secondary node. When failing over the cluster to the "secondary" node, which for instance is on the same subnet as the "primary", the failover initially works ok and the cluster ressource continues to work for a couple of minutes on the new node. Which means that the recieving node does send out a gratuitous arp reply packet that updated the arp tables on the network. But after x amount of time (typically within 5 minutes time) something updates the arp-tables again because all of a sudden the cluster service does not answer to pings. So basically I start a ping to the exchange cluster address when its running on the "primary node". It works just great. I failover the cluster ressource group to the "secondary node" and I only have loss of one ping which is acceptable. The cluster ressource still answers for some time after being failed over and all of a sudden the ping starts timing out. This is telling me that the arp table initially is updated by the secondary node, but then something (which I haven't found out yet) wrongfully updates it again, probably with the primary node's MAC. Why does this happen - has anyone experienced the same problem? The cluster is NOT running NLB and the problem stops immidiately after failing over back to the primary node where there are no problems. Each node is using NIC teaming (intel) with ALB. Each node is on the same subnet and has gateway and so on entered correctly as far as I am concerned. Edit: I was wondering if it could be related to network binding order maybe? Because I have noticed that the only difference I can see from node to node is when showing the local arp table. On the "primary" node the arp table is generated on the cluster address as the source. While on the "secondary" its generated from the nodes own network card. Any input on this? Edit: Ok here is the connection layout. Cluster address: A.B.6.208/25 Exchange application address: A.B.6.212/25 Node A: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.210/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.138/24 Node B: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.211/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.139/24 Each node sits in a seperate datacenter connected together. End switches being cisco in DC1 and NEXUS 5000/2000 in DC2. Edit: I have been testing a little more. I have now created an empty application on the same cluster, and given it another ip address on the same subnet as the exchange application. After failing this empty application over, I see the exact same problem occuring. After one or two minutes clients on other subnets cannot ping the virtual ip of the application. But while clients on other subnets cannot, another server from another cluster on the same subnet has no trouble pinging. But if i then make another failover to the original state, then the situation is the opposite. So now clients on same subnet cannot, and on other they can. We have another cluster set up the same way and on the same subnet, with the same intel network cards, the same drivers and same teaming settings. Here we are not seeing this. So its somewhat confusing. Edit: OK done some more research. Removed the NIC teaming of the secondary node, since it didnt work anyway. After some standard problems following that, I finally managed to get it up and running again with the old NIC teaming settings on one single physical network card. Now I am not able to reproduce the problem described above. So it is somehow related to the teaming - maybe some kind of bug? Edit: Did some more failing over without being able to make it fail. So removing the NIC team looks like it was a workaround. Now I tried to reestablish the intel NIC teaming with ALB (as it was before) and i still cannot make it fail. This is annoying due to the fact that now i actually cannot pinpoint the root of the problem. Now it just seems to be some kind of MS/intel hick-up - which is hard to accept because what if the problem reoccurs in 14 days? There is a strange thing that happened though. After recreating the NIC team I was not able to rename the team to "PUBLIC" which the old team was called. So something has not been cleaned up in windows - although the server HAS been restarted! Edit: OK after restablishing the ALB teaming the error came back. So I am now going to do some thorough testing and i will get back with my observations. One thing is for sure. It is related to Intel 82575EB NICS, ALB and Gratuitous Arp.

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  • zoom a JPanel and all of its components

    - by user253530
    I have a big JPanel which holds many TileMapping objects (TileMapping extends JPanel). I want to zoom the big JPanel and all of its components to be scaled aswell. A TileMapping has an image which of course has to be zoomed as well. here is my TileMapping class public class TileMapping extends JPanel { private double zoom = 1.0; private Mapping mapping; private int height; private int width; private int xCoord; private int yCoord; TileMapping(Mapping m, int w, int h, int x, int y) { super(); mapping = m; height = h; width = w; this.xCoord = x; this.yCoord = y; this.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(w, h)); } public int getXcoord() { return xCoord; } public int getYcoord() { return yCoord; } public Mapping getMapping() { return mapping; } public void setMapping(Mapping m) { mapping = m; } public void originalSize() { zoom = 1; } public void zoomIn() { zoom += 0.2; } public void zoomOut() { zoom -= 0.2; } @Override public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D) g; if (mapping.getImage() != null) { BufferedImage bg = mapping.getImage(); g2d.scale(zoom, zoom); g2d.drawImage(bg, 0, 0, width, height, this); } else { g2d.scale(zoom, zoom); this.setBackground(Color.white); } } } I need to know how i should continue this on the main JPanel which is populated using this code: This is part of a MapWindow class. if you carefully read the code you will understand what i'm talking about. Basically this is a Tile MapEditor and I am simulating a Tile as a JPanel which holds the mapping object (mapping is a binding between an ASCII character and an image) you place. private void populateMapPanel(Map map) { GridBagConstraints c = new GridBagConstraints(); mapPanel.setLayout(new GridBagLayout()); for (int i = 0; i < map.getMapGrid().getRows(); i++) { for (int j = 0; j < map.getMapGrid().getColumns(); j++) { tile = new TileMapping(map.getMapItem(i, j), cellSize, cellSize, i, j); tile.setBorder(new LineBorder(Color.black)); tile.addMouseListener(this); tile.addMouseMotionListener(this); c.gridx = i; c.gridy = j; mapPanel.add(tile, c); } } mapPanel.validate(); mapPanel.repaint(); } I need to know how to do the following: 1. When the user presses Zoom In the mapPanel should zoom in and also all the images in the smaller panels. 2. when the user click and drag over the TileMappings an image should be painted on them and this image should get scaled of course if the mapPanel is zoomed. Pseudo code, ideas, hints, java code ...anything would be helpful. Thank you

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  • xforms: how to prevent xxforms:default value from over-writing user input

    - by Purni
    I have a dropdown to display status, which can be Enabled(true) or Disabled(false). Here is my xml instance. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <page> <file-name></file-name> <status></status> </page> By default, status should be true. So I have set it in binding as follows. <xforms:bind nodeset="./status" xxforms:default="true()" /> When user chooses Disabled in the dropdown, the status should get saved as false. Here is the xml that gets saved when I save the form. <page> <file-name>StatusDisabled.xml</file-name> <status>false</false> </page> When I open the form in edit mode, this is the xml I get in the XML inspector widget. <page> <file-name>StatusDisabled.xml</file-name> <status>true></status> </page> Status gets set to true because of xxforms:default, even though the xml is saved with a false value for status. How can I fix this? Here is the xhtml: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:xforms="http://www.w3.org/2002/xforms" xmlns:xxforms="http://orbeon.org/oxf/xml/xforms"> <head> <title>XForms Default</title> <xforms:model> <xforms:instance id="instance"> <page> <name xmlns=""/> <status xmlns=""/> </page> </xforms:instance> <xforms:instance id="status-instance"> <items> <item label="Enabled" value="true" xmlns=""/> <item label="Disabled" value="false" xmlns=""/> </items> </xforms:instance> <xforms:bind nodeset="instance('instance')"> <xforms:bind nodeset="./status" xxforms:default="true()" /> </xforms:bind> </xforms:model> </head> <body> <p> <xforms:input ref="instance('instance')/name" incremental="true"> <xforms:label>Please enter your name:</xforms:label> </xforms:input> </p> <p> <xforms:select1 ref="instance('instance')/status" appearance="minimal" incremental="true"> <xforms:label>Please select status:</xforms:label> <xforms:itemset nodeset="instance('status-instance')/item"> <xforms:label ref="./@label"/> <xforms:value ref="./@value"/> </xforms:itemset> </xforms:select1> </p> </body> </html>

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  • WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

    - by Volomike
    I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

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  • JSTL c:forEach causes @ViewScoped bean to invoke @PostConstruct on every request

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, Again i see that the @PostConstruct is firing every time even though no binding attribute is used. See this code :- <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets" xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core"> <h:head> <title>Facelet Title</title> </h:head> <h:body> <h:form> <c:forEach var="item" items="#{TestBean.listItems}"> <h:outputText value="#{item}"/> </c:forEach> <h:commandButton value="Click" actionListener="#{TestBean.actionListener}"/> </h:form> </h:body> </html> And this is the simplest possible bean in JSF :- package managedBeans; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import javax.annotation.PostConstruct; import javax.faces.bean.ManagedBean; import javax.faces.bean.ViewScoped; @ManagedBean(name="TestBean") @ViewScoped public class TestBean implements Serializable { private List<String> listItems; public List<String> getListItems() { return listItems; } public void setListItems(List<String> listItems) { this.listItems = listItems; } public TestBean() { } @PostConstruct public void init(){ System.out.println("Post Construct fired!"); listItems = new ArrayList<String>(); listItems.add("Mango"); listItems.add("Apple"); listItems.add("Banana"); } public void actionListener(){ System.out.println("Action Listener fired!"); } } Do you see any behaviour that should cause postconstruct callback to fire each time? I think JSF 2.0 is highly unstable. If it has to fire PostConstruct each and every time what purpose does @ViewScoped serve. Why not to use @RequestScoped only? I thought i have made some mistake in my application. But when i created this simplest possible in JSF, i still get this error. Am i not understanding the scopes of JSF? or are they not testing it properly? Further, if you remove c:forEach and replace it with ui:repeat, then it works fine. Waiting for replies to confirm whether it is bug or it is intentional to stop the programmers from using jstl?

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  • Can we identify individual sectors of a circle component uniquely in flex?

    - by Angeline Aarthi
    I have a custom circle component in my application, which is divided into 3 sectors as of now.Can we uniquely identify each segments of this circle? I want to drag and drop text or images from another container to this circle component. But I want to place different images in the different sectors. Is it possible to distinguish the individual sectors of the circle component? Here is my code: <mx:TabNavigator width="624" height="100%"> <mx:VBox id="currQuote" label="Currents Quote" width="100%"> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="150"/> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="120"/> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="25"/> <comp:MyLine x1="160" y1="122"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Quote Comparison" width="100%"/> <mx:VBox label="Reports" width="100%"/> </mx:TabNavigator> Circle component: package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MyCircle extends UIComponent { public var x1:int; public var y1:int; public var radius:int; override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { graphics.lineStyle(1, 0x000000); graphics.drawCircle(x1, y1, radius); } } } Line component: package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MyLine extends UIComponent { public var x1:int; public var y1:int; override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { graphics.lineStyle(1, 0x000000); graphics.moveTo(100,0); graphics.lineTo(x1, y1); graphics.moveTo(250,0); graphics.lineTo(185,120); } } } Actually I want the circle to be divided into 6 sectors, but for now just divided it into 3 sectors. But is it possible to uniqulely identify the individual sectors of the circle so that I can drag different images or texts into those particular sectors?

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  • Socket in C: recv overwrite a char[]

    - by Possa
    Hi all, I'm trying to make a little client-server script like many others that I've done in the past. But in this one I have a problem. It is better if I post the code and the output it give me. Code: #include <mysql.h> //not important now #include <stdlib.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/socket.h> #include <netinet/in.h> #include <arpa/inet.h> #include <netdb.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <signal.h> #include <string.h> //constant definition #define SERVER_PORT 2121 #define LINESIZE 21 //global var definition char victim_ip[LINESIZE], file_write[LINESIZE], hacker_ip[LINESIZE]; //function void leggi (int); //not use now for debugging purpose //void scriviDB (); //not important now main () { int sock, client_len, fd; struct sockaddr_in server, client; // transport end point if((sock = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0)) == -1) { perror("system call socket fail"); exit(1); } server.sin_family = AF_INET; server.sin_addr.s_addr = inet_addr("10.10.10.1"); server.sin_port = htons(SERVER_PORT); // binding address at transport end point if (bind(sock, (struct sockaddr *)&server, sizeof server) == -1) { perror("system call bind fail"); exit(1); } //fprintf(stderr, "Server open: listening.\n"); listen(sock, 5); /* managae client connection */ while (1) { client_len = sizeof(client); if ((fd = accept(sock, (struct sockaddr *)&client, &client_len)) < 0) { perror("accepting connection"); exit(1); } strcpy(hacker_ip, inet_ntoa(client.sin_addr)); printf("1 %s\n", hacker_ip); //debugging purpose //leggi(fd); ////////////////////////// //receive client recv(fd, victim_ip, LINESIZE, 0); victim_ip[sizeof(victim_ip)] = '\0'; printf("2 %s\n", hacker_ip); //debugging purpose recv(fd, file_write, LINESIZE, 0); file_write[sizeof(file_write)] = '\0'; printf("3 %s\n", hacker_ip); //debugging purpose printf("%s@%s for %s\n", file_write, victim_ip, hacker_ip); //send to client send(fd, hacker_ip, 40, 0); //now is hacker_ip for debug ///////////////////////// close(fd); }//end while exit(0); } //end main Client send string: ./send -i 10.10.10.4 -f filename.ext so the script send -i (IP) and -f (FILE) at the server. Here's my output server side: 1 10.10.10.6 2 10.10.10.6 3 [email protected] for As you can see the printf(3) and the printf(ip,file,ip) fail. I don't know how and where but someone overwrite my hacker_ip string. Thanks for your help! :)

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  • random, Graphics point ,searching- algorithm, via dual for loop set

    - by LoneXcoder
    hello and thanks for joining me in my journey to the custom made algorithm for "guess where the pixel is" this for Loop set (over Point.X, Point.Y), is formed in consecutive/linear form: //Original\initial Location Point initPoint = new Point(150, 100); // No' of pixels to search left off X , and above Y int preXsrchDepth, preYsrchDepth; // No' of pixels to search to the right of X, And Above Y int postXsrchDepth, postYsrchDepth; preXsrchDepth = 10; // will start search at 10 pixels to the left from original X preYsrchDepth = 10; // will start search at 10 pixels above the original Y postXsrchDepth = 10; // will stop search at 10 pixels to the right from X postYsrchDepth = 10; // will stop search at 10 pixels below Y int StopXsearch = initPoint.X + postXsrchDepth; //stops X Loop itarations at initial pointX + depth requested to serch right of it int StopYsearch = initPoint.Y + postYsrchDepth; //stops Y Loop itarations at initial pointY + depth requested below original location int CountDownX, CountDownY; // Optional not requierd for loop but will reports the count down how many iterations left (unless break; triggerd ..uppon success) Point SearchFromPoint = Point.Empty; //the point will be used for (int StartX = initPoint.X - preXsrchDepth; StartX < StopXsearch; StartX++) { SearchFromPoint.X = StartX; for (int StartY = initPoint.Y - preYsrchDepth; StartY < StpY; StartY++) { CountDownX = (initPoint.X - StartX); CountDownY=(initPoint.Y - StartY); SearchFromPoint.Y = StartY; if (SearchSuccess) { same = true; AAdToAppLog("Search Report For: " + imgName + "Search Completed Successfully On Try " + CountDownX + ":" + CountDownY); break; } } } <-10 ---- -5--- -1 X +1--- +5---- +10 what i would like to do is try a way of instead is have a little more clever approach <+8---+5-- -8 -5 -- +2 +10 X -2 - -10 -8-- -6 ---1- -3 | +8 | -10 Y +1 -6 | | +9 .... I do know there's a wheel already invented in this field (even a full-trailer truck amount of wheels (: ) but as a new programmer, I really wanted to start of with a simple way and also related to my field of interest in my project. can anybody show an idea of his, he learnt along the way to Professionalism in algorithm /programming having tests to do on few approaches (kind'a random cleverness...) will absolutely make the day and perhaps help some others viewing this page in the future to come it will be much easier for me to understand if you could use as much as possible similar naming to variables i used or implenet your code example ...it will be Greatly appreciated if used with my code sample, unless my metod is a realy flavorless. p.s i think that(atleast as human being) the tricky part is when throwing inconsecutive numbers you loose track of what you didn't yet use, how do u take care of this too . thanks allot in advance looking forward to your participation !

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