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  • I am using relational division with EAV, but I need to find results in EAV that have some of the cat

    - by NewToDB
    I have two tables: CREATE TABLE EAV ( subscriber_id INT(1) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', attribute_id CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', attribute_value CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', PRIMARY KEY (subscriber_id,attribute_id) ) INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (1,'color','red') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (1,'size','xl') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (1,'garment','shirt') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (2,'color','red') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (2,'size','xl') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (2,'garment','pants') INSERT INTO EAV (subscriber_id, attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES (3,'garment','pants') CREATE TABLE CRITERIA ( attribute_id CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', attribute_value CHAR(62) NOT NULL DEFAULT '' ) INSERT INTO CRITERIA (attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES ('color', 'red') INSERT INTO CRITERIA (attribute_id, attribute_value) VALUES ('size', 'xl') To find all subscribers in the EAV that match my criteria, I use relational division: SELECT DISTINCT(subscriber_id) FROM EAV WHERE subscriber_id IN (SELECT E.subscriber_id FROM EAV AS E JOIN CRITERIA AS CR ON E.attribute_id = CR.attribute_id AND E.attribute_value = CR.attribute_value GROUP BY E.subscriber_id HAVING COUNT() = (SELECT COUNT() FROM CRITERIA)) This gives me an unique list of subscribers who have all the criteria. So that means I get back subscriber 1 and 2 since they are looking for the color red and size xl, and that's exactly my criteria. But what if I want to extend this so that I also get subscriber 3 since this subscriber didn't specifically say what color or size they want (ie. there is no entry for attribute 'color' or 'size' in the EAV table for subscriber 3). Given my current design, is there a way I can extend my query to include subscribers that have zero or more of the attributes defined, and if they do have the attribute defined, then it must match the criteria? Or is there a better way to design the table to aid in querying?

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  • Python unicode problem

    - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS
    I'm receiving some data from a ZODB (Zope Object Database). I receive a mybrains object. Then I do: o = mybrains.getObject() and I receive a "Person" object in my project. Then, I can do b = o.name and doing print b on my class I get: José Carlos and print b.name.__class__ <type 'unicode'> I have a lot of "Person" objects. They are added to a list. names = [o.nome, o1.nome, o2.nome] Then, I trying to create a text file with this data. delimiter = ';' all = delimiter.join(names) + '\n' No problem. Now, when I do a print all I have: José Carlos;Jonas;Natália Juan;John But when I try to create a file of it: f = open("/tmp/test.txt", "w") f.write(all) I get an error like this (the positions aren't exaclty the same, since I change the names) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xe9' in position 84: ordinal not in range(128) If I can print already with the "correct" form to display it, why I can't write a file with it? Which encode/decode method should I use to write a file with this data? I'm using Python 2.4.5 (can't upgrade it)

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  • BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

    - by JoeBilly
    I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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  • Getting value of "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an webapp with Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

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  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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  • .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

    - by Casper
    Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

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  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • Load image dynamically on Silverlight

    - by FelixMM
    I have a Silverlight app that has to load an image dynamically, depending on the image name. The approach that im taking right now is passing the image name by query string to the page and passing that as a param to the Silverlight objet tag This is the query string passed Response.Redirect("Build.aspx?img=" + this.PictureUploader.PostedFile.FileName; And I try to pass it to Silverlight like this: <object id="SilverlightObject" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="Silverlight/iMapsSL.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40624.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <param name="image" value="<%# Request.QueryString["img"] %>" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40624.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe> in the last param tag with name=image value= Requerst.QueryString I catch the image inside the Silverlight app like this private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { string pictureName = ""; if (e.InitParams != null && e.InitParams.Count > 0) { pictureName = e.InitParams["image"]; this.RootVisual = new MainPage(pictureName); } else { this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } } And when MainPage starts, I set the image source of the Image control like this this.Image.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(pictureName, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute)); But Silverlight loads without an image, any help someone?

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  • mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

    - by Foo
    I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

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  • Show PDF in HTML in web

    - by Anil
    Hi, I'm using the object tag to render PDF in HTML, but I'm doing it in MVC like this: <object data="/JDLCustomer/GetPDFData?projID=<%=ViewData["ProjectID"]%>&folder=<%=ViewData["Folder"] %>" type="application/pdf" width="960" height="900"> </object> and Controller/Action is public void GetPDFData(string projID, Project_Thin.Folders folder) { Highmark.BLL.Models.Project proj = GetProject(projID); List<File> ff = proj.GetFiles(folder, false); if (ff != null && ff.Count > 0 && ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").Count() > 0) { ff = ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").ToList(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Highmark.BLL.PDF.JDLCustomerPDF pdfObj = new JDLCustomerPDF(ff, proj.SimpleDbID); byte[] bArr = pdfObj.GetPDF(Response.OutputStream); pdfObj = null; Response.ContentType = "application/" + System.IO.Path.GetExtension("TakeOffPlans").Replace(".", ""); Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=\"TakeOffPlans\""); Response.BinaryWrite(bArr); Response.Flush(); } } The problem is, as I'm downloading data first from server and then return the byte data, it is taking some time in downloading, so I want to show some kind of progress to show processing. Please help me on this.

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  • Run an ActiveX through Web

    - by balexandre
    We have a webpage that works fine on the local computer as it uses a COM Object that is only available in the local computer. the program generates HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function ResizeControl(){Y = document.body.clientHeight;if (Y < 1) {Y = 1}X = document.body.clientWidth;if (X < 1) {X = 1}ActiveX.width = X;ActiveX.height = Y} --> </script> <style type="text/css">html, body { overflow:hidden; } </style> </head> <body OnResize="ResizeControl()" OnLoad="ResizeControl()" leftmargin="0" topmargin="0" rightmargin="0" bottommargin="0"> <object id="ActiveX" classid="CLSID:8EC68701-329D-4567-BCB5-9EE4BA43D358" width="14" height="14"> <PARAM NAME="tabName" VALUE="Complaints"> </object> </body> </html> and shows fine My question is, How can we port this into a web environment? As the Delphi developer has no idea and I'm not a Delphi fellow. I want to be able to use this "webpage" on a web address http://INTRANET/mysite/thispage.html Any idea, any though, any door to open is greatly appreciate :)

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  • Templates, and C++ operator for logic: B contained by set A

    - by James Morris
    In C++, I'm looking to implement an operator for selecting items in a list (of type B) based upon B being contained entirely within A. In the book "the logical design of digital computers" by Montgomery Phister jr (published 1958), p54, it says: F11 = A + ~B has two interesting and useful associations, neither of them having much to do with computer design. The first is the logical notation of implication... The second is notation of inclusion... This may be expressed by a familiar looking relation, B < A; or by the statement "B is included in A"; or by the boolean equation F11= A + ~B = 1. My initial implementation was in C. Callbacks were given to the list to use for such operations. An example being a list of ints, and a struct containting two ints, min and max, for selection purposes. There, selection would be based upon B = A-min && B <= A-max. Using C++ and templates, how would you approach this after having implemented a generic list in C using void pointers and callbacks? Is using < as an over-ridden operator for such purposes... <ugh> evil? </ugh> (or by using a class B for the selection criteria, implementing the comparison by overloading ?)

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  • Getting an "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Basic syntax for an animation loop?

    - by Moshe
    I know that jQuery, for example, can do animation of sorts. I also know that at the very core of the animation, there must me some sort of loop doing the animation. What is an example of such a loop? A complete answer should ideally answer the following questions: What is a basic syntax for an effective animation recursion that can animate a single property of a particular object at a time? The function should be able to vary its target object and property of the object. What arguments/parameters should it take? What is a good range of reiterating the loop? In milliseconds? (Should this be a parameter/argument to the function?) REMEMBER: The answer is NOT necessarily language specific, but if you are writing in a specific language, please specify which one. Error handling is a plus. {Nothing is more irritating (for our purposes) than an animation that does something strange, like stopping halfway through.} Thanks!

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  • How to test the expectation on the eventSpy

    - by Lorraine Bernard
    I am trying to test a backbone.model when saving. Here's my piece of code. As you can see from the comment there is a problem with toHaveBeenCalledOnce method. P.S.: I am using jasmine 1.2.0 and Sinon.JS 1.3.4 describe('when saving', function () { beforeEach(function () { this.server = sinon.fakeServer.create(); this.responseBody = '{"id":3,"title":"Hello","tags":["garden","weekend"]}'; this.server.respondWith( 'POST', Routing.generate(this.apiName), [ 200, {'Content-Type': 'application/json'}, this.responseBody ] ); this.eventSpy = sinon.spy(); }); afterEach(function() { this.server.restore(); }); it('should not save when title is empty', function() { this.model.bind('error', this.eventSpy); this.model.save({'title': ''}); expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledOnce(); // TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'toHaveBeenCalledOnce' expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledWith(this.model, 'cannot have an empty title'); }); }); console.log(expect(this.eventSpy));

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  • StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

    - by leozilla
    I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

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