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  • Getting value of "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • Run an ActiveX through Web

    - by balexandre
    We have a webpage that works fine on the local computer as it uses a COM Object that is only available in the local computer. the program generates HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function ResizeControl(){Y = document.body.clientHeight;if (Y < 1) {Y = 1}X = document.body.clientWidth;if (X < 1) {X = 1}ActiveX.width = X;ActiveX.height = Y} --> </script> <style type="text/css">html, body { overflow:hidden; } </style> </head> <body OnResize="ResizeControl()" OnLoad="ResizeControl()" leftmargin="0" topmargin="0" rightmargin="0" bottommargin="0"> <object id="ActiveX" classid="CLSID:8EC68701-329D-4567-BCB5-9EE4BA43D358" width="14" height="14"> <PARAM NAME="tabName" VALUE="Complaints"> </object> </body> </html> and shows fine My question is, How can we port this into a web environment? As the Delphi developer has no idea and I'm not a Delphi fellow. I want to be able to use this "webpage" on a web address http://INTRANET/mysite/thispage.html Any idea, any though, any door to open is greatly appreciate :)

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  • Google map API v3 event click raise when clickingMarkerClusterer?

    - by lucian.jp
    I have a Google Map API v3 map object on a page that uses MarkerClusterer. I have a function that need to run when we click on the map to it is registered as: google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function (event) { CallMe(event.latLng); }); So my problem is as follows: When I click on a cluster of MarkerClusterer instead of behaving like a marker and not raise the click event on the map but only the one from the marker it calls the click from the map. To test this I have generated an alert from the markerclusterer click: google.maps.event.addListener(markerClusterer, "clusterclick", function (cluster) { alert('MarkerClusterer click event'); }); So the clusterclick rises after the click event of map object. I then can't remove the listener of map object as a solution. Is there any way to test if there was a clusterer click in the click event of the map? Or a way to replicate the marker behaviour and do not raise the click event of map when clustererclick is called? Google and documentation didn’t help me. Thx

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an webapp with Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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  • Problem with flash in a webbrowser in a winform

    - by fgnt
    I have the oddest problem (but aren't all programming problems odd?). I have a winform that contains a webbrowser object that opens a website that has flash on it. This winform is running on a touchscreen computer (I can't find the brand or model number). Here is what I know: flash objects embeded in a website that is accessed via the webbrowser object in my winform do not function properly said flash objects only react to the first 'click' on them. So the website opens and if I hit a button, that button works but nothing afterward works within the flash object works. If my first 'click' misses a button, nothing works there after. trying to 'click' an flash button gives the same response as just hovering over the button This isn't a problem with the touch part of the touch screen as using a mouse also gives the same not working right response this isn't a problem with the web page as I can open up explorer on the same computer and navigate the webpage just fine from there The program also works 100% right on my personal computer so it shouldn't be the program's fault if it's not the touch screen fault and not the program's fault, I can't blame anything right now. the EXACT same program worked 100% on our old touch screen (which was having other problems so we had to get rid of it). Oh, also, surfing just a 'normal' webpage in a webbrowser in the winform works just fine.

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  • Python unicode problem

    - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS
    I'm receiving some data from a ZODB (Zope Object Database). I receive a mybrains object. Then I do: o = mybrains.getObject() and I receive a "Person" object in my project. Then, I can do b = o.name and doing print b on my class I get: José Carlos and print b.name.__class__ <type 'unicode'> I have a lot of "Person" objects. They are added to a list. names = [o.nome, o1.nome, o2.nome] Then, I trying to create a text file with this data. delimiter = ';' all = delimiter.join(names) + '\n' No problem. Now, when I do a print all I have: José Carlos;Jonas;Natália Juan;John But when I try to create a file of it: f = open("/tmp/test.txt", "w") f.write(all) I get an error like this (the positions aren't exaclty the same, since I change the names) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xe9' in position 84: ordinal not in range(128) If I can print already with the "correct" form to display it, why I can't write a file with it? Which encode/decode method should I use to write a file with this data? I'm using Python 2.4.5 (can't upgrade it)

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  • faster way to change xml to array(grails to flex)

    - by Anthony Umpad
    I have a large xml passed from grails to flex. When flex receives the xml, it converts the xml into an associative array object. Given the large xml file, it takes too long to complete the loop, is there any way in flex to make conversion faster? Below is my sample code. <xml> <car> <model>Vios</model> <type>Sedan</type> <color>Blue</color> </car> <car> <model>Camry</model> <type>Luxury</type> <color>Black</color> </car> </xml> *converted to the flex associative array below.* [Vios].type = Sedan .color = Blue [Camry].type = Luxury .color = Black *Below is a code I used in flex to convert the xml to the associative array object* var tempXML=xml.children() var tempArray:Array= new Array() for(var i:int=0;i<tempXML.length();i++) { tempArray[tempXML[i].@model]= new Object(); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].color = tempXML[i][email protected](); tempArray[tempXML[i].@model].type = tempXML[i][email protected](); }

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • Should I go vor Arrays or Objects in PHP in a CouchDB/Ajax app?

    - by karlthorwald
    I find myself converting between array and object all the time in PHP application that uses couchDB and Ajax. Of course I am also converting objects to JSON and back (for sometimes couchdb but mostly Ajax), but this is not so much disturbing my workflow. At the present I have php objects that are returned by the CouchDB modules I use and on the other hand I have the old habbit to return arrays like array("error"="not found","data"=$dataObj) from my functions. This leads to a mixed occurence of real php objects and nested arrays and I cast with (object) or (array) if necessary. The worst thing is that I know more or less by heart what a function returns, but not what type (array or object), so I often run into type errors. My plan is now to always cast arrays to objects before returning from a function. Of course this implies a lot of refactoring. Is this the right way to go? What about the conversion overhead? Other ideas or tips? Edit: Kenaniah's answer suggests I should go the other way, this would mean I'd cast everything to arrays. And for all the Ajax / JSON stuff and also for CouchDB I would use $myarray = json_decode($json_data,$assoc = false) Even more work to change all the CouchDB and Ajax functions but in the end I have better code.

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

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  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

    - by Foo
    I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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  • Getting an "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Show PDF in HTML in web

    - by Anil
    Hi, I'm using the object tag to render PDF in HTML, but I'm doing it in MVC like this: <object data="/JDLCustomer/GetPDFData?projID=<%=ViewData["ProjectID"]%>&folder=<%=ViewData["Folder"] %>" type="application/pdf" width="960" height="900"> </object> and Controller/Action is public void GetPDFData(string projID, Project_Thin.Folders folder) { Highmark.BLL.Models.Project proj = GetProject(projID); List<File> ff = proj.GetFiles(folder, false); if (ff != null && ff.Count > 0 && ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").Count() > 0) { ff = ff.Where(p => p.FileExtension == "pdf").ToList(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Highmark.BLL.PDF.JDLCustomerPDF pdfObj = new JDLCustomerPDF(ff, proj.SimpleDbID); byte[] bArr = pdfObj.GetPDF(Response.OutputStream); pdfObj = null; Response.ContentType = "application/" + System.IO.Path.GetExtension("TakeOffPlans").Replace(".", ""); Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=\"TakeOffPlans\""); Response.BinaryWrite(bArr); Response.Flush(); } } The problem is, as I'm downloading data first from server and then return the byte data, it is taking some time in downloading, so I want to show some kind of progress to show processing. Please help me on this.

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  • MPMoviePlayerController problem at start

    - by Infinity
    Hello guys! I have a problem with MPMoviePlayerController, because when I start it in fullscreen it exists, but the song is still playing. I added the MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification notification and it says that when the video starts playin it exists the full screen. Here's my code: _multimediaPlayer = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; _multimediaPlayer.controlStyle = MPMovieControlStyleDefault; _multimediaPlayer.initialPlaybackTime = 0; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayBackDidFinish:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerDidExitFullscreen:) name:MPMoviePlayerDidExitFullscreenNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(videoPlayerPlaybackStateChanged:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackStateDidChangeNotification object:nil]; NSString *path = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/mag_%d/%@", [FMUtils documentsFolderPathWithFile:nil], _magID, _pageObject.fileName]; if ([FMUtils fileExistsAtPath:path]) { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; } else { _multimediaPlayer.contentURL = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", self.dataURL, _pageObject.fileName]]; } CGSize objectViewSize = self.frame.size; _multimediaPlayer.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, objectViewSize.width, objectViewSize.height); [self addSubview:_multimediaPlayer.view]; if (_pageObject.blink) { [_multimediaPlayer setFullscreen:YES animated:YES]; } [_multimediaPlayer play]; Most of the time it happens when the video is not downloaded and it needs to stream it. Do you have any idea why is this happen?

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

    - by Connor Murphy
    The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

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  • Templates, and C++ operator for logic: B contained by set A

    - by James Morris
    In C++, I'm looking to implement an operator for selecting items in a list (of type B) based upon B being contained entirely within A. In the book "the logical design of digital computers" by Montgomery Phister jr (published 1958), p54, it says: F11 = A + ~B has two interesting and useful associations, neither of them having much to do with computer design. The first is the logical notation of implication... The second is notation of inclusion... This may be expressed by a familiar looking relation, B < A; or by the statement "B is included in A"; or by the boolean equation F11= A + ~B = 1. My initial implementation was in C. Callbacks were given to the list to use for such operations. An example being a list of ints, and a struct containting two ints, min and max, for selection purposes. There, selection would be based upon B = A-min && B <= A-max. Using C++ and templates, how would you approach this after having implemented a generic list in C using void pointers and callbacks? Is using < as an over-ridden operator for such purposes... <ugh> evil? </ugh> (or by using a class B for the selection criteria, implementing the comparison by overloading ?)

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  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

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  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

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  • .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

    - by Casper
    Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an app if I have Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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