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  • Sqlite3 query in objective c

    - by user271753
    -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { const char *sql = "SELECT AccessCode FROM UserAccess"; NSString *sqlns; sqlns = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:sql]; if([Password.text isEqual:sqlns]) { NSLog(@"Correct"); } else { NSLog(@"Wrong"); } NSLog(@"%@",sqlns); } Noob here , At NSLog I am able to print "SELECT AccessCode FROM UserAccess" where as let say the access code is 1234 , which I want . In the appdelegate I Have : /// - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } /// - (void)createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded { NSLog(@"Creating editable copy of database"); // First, test for existence. BOOL success; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *writableDBPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:writableDBPath]; if (success) return; // The writable database does not exist, so copy the default to the appropriate location. NSString *defaultDBPath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:writableDBPath error:&error]; if (!success) { NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } /// +(sqlite3 *) getNewDBConnection{ sqlite3 *newDBconnection; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *path = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; // Open the database. The database was prepared outside the application. if (sqlite3_open([path UTF8String], &newDBconnection) == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"Database Successfully Opened :) "); } else { NSLog(@"Error in opening database :( "); } return newDBconnection; } Please help :(

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  • Use XMPP instead of HTTP

    - by pavel
    Hey guys. My friend and I, we are working on iPhone application. This application uses XMPP protocol to provide chat functionality. Right now we are designing architecture for the application. So my friend is working on iPhone side, and I am ruby on rails guy. My friend suggested, that we wrap every call, that is usually served via HTTP into XMPP. So, user registration, users search, profile editing, photo uploading, everything goes via XMPP. No HTTP at all. My friend wants to use XMPP, because he says, that it's much easier to implement XMPP on client-side rather HTTP. As for me, this is bullshit, but we've got a product owner, who have been working with my friend for a long time and he trusts him. So what I'm trying to do is to convince my friend and product owner that using XMPP for what HTTP can work find — is totally not the best idea. I feel, that if we implement everything on XMPP, we will have a pain in an ass till the end of lives. But how do I prove it? P.S. I'm not against chat over XMPP, I am against users search, photo uploading, rankings, nearby search and various other restful requests. Please, leave response. Any help appreciated. A little update: Yesterday we had a long discussion. And it turns out, it's quiete hard to receive response from both XMPP and HTTP in Objective-C. Because every single object and its data should be stored in Core Data model, while this model can't be securely modified from various places. Say, if you use HTTP transport, you always want to use only HTTP transport to update data in your model. And if you use XMPP, you should always use XMPP. So, you can't use both. That's what my iPhone buddy told me. It sounds weird for me, can anyone explain me that?

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  • Unable to load WSDL file error in flex while making a call to a web service.

    - by Angeline Aarthi
    I am trying to call a webservice from my Flex application and this is the code: <mx:WebService id="myWebService" wsdl="http://172.16.111.103:22222/cics/services/PRESENT1?wsdl"> <mx:operation name="PRESENT1Operation" result="resultHandler(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> </mx:operation> </mx:WebService> //Function to send customer id to the wsdl request private function searchDetails():void{ myWebService.PRESENT1Operation.send(cusNo.text); cusDetails.visible=true; } The webservice is up and running. I have a separate Java application to test the webservice, And I am able to execute it properly. I am able to request the webservice and get response. But If I try to call the webservice through the Flex application, I get the following error. [RPC Fault faultString="HTTP request error" faultCode="Server.Error.Request" faultDetail="Unable to load WSDL. If currently online, please verify the URI and/or format of the WSDL (http://172.16.111.103:22222/cics/services/PRESENT1?WSDL)"] at mx.rpc.wsdl::WSDLLoader/faultHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\wsdl\WSDLLoader.as:98] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::dispatchRpcEvent()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AbstractInvoker.as:170] at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::faultHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AbstractInvoker.as:225] at mx.rpc::Responder/fault()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\Responder.as:53] at mx.rpc::AsyncRequest/fault()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AsyncRequest.as:103] at DirectHTTPMessageResponder/errorHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\messaging\channels\DirectHTTPChannel.as:362] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at flash.net::URLLoader/redirectEvent() Please some one help me with this.

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  • AppletClassLoader exception : class not found

    - by gautam
    Hi, I am getting exception when i am trying to open an applet in my jsp. My jsp and applet is in same directory. My code is like: <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" width="720" height="500"`enter code here` type="application/x-java-applet;version=1.5"> <param name="type" value="application/x-java-applet;version=1.5"> <param name="code" value="com.timer.AppletGenerator.class"> <param name="codebase" value="."> <param name="ARCHIVE" value="Applet.jar, jcommon-1.0.0.jar, jfreechart-1.0.0.jar, log4j-1.2.13.jar, itext-1.3.1.jar" embed width="720" height="500" type="application/x-java-applet;version=1.5" code="com.timer.AppletGenerator.class" codebase="." ARCHIVE='Applet.jar, jcommon-1.0.0.jar, jfreechart-1.0.0.jar, log4j-1.2.13.jar, itext-1.3.1.jar' > </embed> </object> My AppletGenerator.class is like: public class AppletGenerator extends JApplet { public void init() { //Some code } } earlier it was woking fine. But now when i sign and verify the new jar its giving exception: load: class com.timer.AppletGenerator.class not found. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.timer.AppletGenerator.class at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletPanel.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin.AppletViewer.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletPanel.runLoader(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletPanel.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.io.IOException: open HTTP connection failed. at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.access$100(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 10 more I have searched a lot but didnt get any correct answer. There are few posts regarding this in stactoverflow but that also didnt work. Thanks and Regards,

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  • set iPhone Required device capabilities

    - by chozinul
    My application is for "iPhone ONLY", But I have made a mistake in the first place by not setting the application for specific device. The current setting now is: Requirement: Compatible for iPhone, iPod touch and iPad. I would like to set it to: Requirement: Compatible for iPhone. I have go to some tutorial and forum. and nothing can solve my problem. I have also contact the apple support and this is what I got: "You are permitted to expand your device requirements only. Submitting an update to your binary to restrict your device requirements is not permitted. " is it mean that I can not set my application for iPhone only? If i can change it, what would you recommend me to do? I have change the setting of device capability inside the plist, to one of this. which one is correct, use "UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities" or "Required device capabilities"? i provide the screenshoot in here: http://img218.imageshack.us/gal.php?g=screenshot20100604atam1.png does the way I use it correct? Thanks.

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  • UiModeManager - NightMode (FroYo)

    - by Kaloer
    Hi there, I have been trying to turn off the buttons' light in my application using the UiModeManager's nightmode function. The default Desk Clock application (Nexus One) turns off the buttons' light when it is dimmed, and I want to do this as well. I've tried using the following code: UiModeManager mgr = (UiModeManager) getSystemService(UI_MODE_SERVICE); mgr.setNightMode(UiModeManager.MODE_NIGHT_YES); The UiModeManager.setNightMode(int mode) documentation says this: Sets the night mode. Changes to the night mode are only effective when the car or desk mode is enabled on a device. Does that mean that the device has to be physically in a desk dock? I can set the device to car mode using the UiModeManager.enableCarMode(int flags) method. This works fine, but it doesn't turn off the lights, it only dims the screen's backlight. Is there a way to set the device into desk mode without using a physical desk dock? As the FroYo source code is not yet released, I cannot look at the build-in Desk Clock application. Thanks in advantage.

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  • log4net affecting other projects which don't even use it

    - by Graeme
    I'm seeing something really strange happening with some projects I'm working on. I used log4net in an MVC web site and this was working great. I then was working on a totally unrelated Console application which uses the SharePoint API and as soon as I include the following line (other lines don't cause the problem) SPLimitedWebPartManager spWebPartManager = web.GetLimitedWebPartManager("http://blah/blah.aspx?PageView=Shared", System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts.PersonalizationScope.Shared); I get the following message in the console app log4net:ERROR XmlConfigurator: Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the <log4net> and < configSections> elements. The configuration section should look like: <section n ame="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net" / > log4net:ERROR XmlConfigurator: Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the <log4net> and < configSections> elements. The configuration section should look like: <section n ame="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net" / > I get this twice after a small delay. The delay is probably the request to get the web part manager from the page but I'm not sure why this log4net error is showing up in this project. I've gone through the code and bin folders etc. and found no trace of any log4net mentions. Any ideas why this might be happening?

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  • Facebooker Causing Problems with Rails Integration Testing

    - by Eric Lubow
    I am (finally) attempting to write some integration tests for my application (because every deploy is getting scarier). Since testing is a horribly documented feature of Rails, this was the best I could get going with shoulda. class DeleteBusinessTest < ActionController::IntegrationTest context "log skydiver in and" do setup do @skydiver = Factory( :skydiver ) @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.create(@skydiver) @biz = Factory( :business, :ownership = Factory(:ownership, :skydiver = @skydiver )) end context "delete business" do setup do @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.find post '/businesses/destroy', :id = @biz.id end should_redirect_to('businesses_path()'){businesses_path()} end end end In theory, this test seems like it should pass. My factories seem like they are pushing the right data in: Factory.define :skydiver do |s| s.sequence(:login) { |n| "test#{n}" } s.sequence(:email) { |n| "test#{n}@example.com" } s.crypted_password '1805986f044ced38691118acfb26a6d6d49be0d0' s.password 'secret' s.password_confirmation { |u| u.password } s.salt 'aowgeUne1R4-F6FFC1ad' s.firstname 'Test' s.lastname 'Salt' s.nickname 'Mr. Password Testy' s.facebook_user_id '507743444' end The problem I am getting seems to be from Facebooker only seems to happen on login attempts. When the test runs, I am getting the error: The error occurred while evaluating nil.set_facebook_session. I believe that error is to be expected in a certain sense since I am not using Facebook here for this session. Can anyone provide any insight as to how to either get around this or at least help me out with what is going wrong?

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  • Entity Framework & Binding syncronisation

    - by Jefim
    * EDIT * Sorry, I should make it clearer. Imagine I have an entity: public class MyObject { public string Name { get; set; } } And I have a ListBox: <ListBox x:Name="lbParts"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I bind it to a collection in code-behind: ObjectQuery<MyObject> componentQuery = context.MyObjectSet; Binding b = new Binding(); b.Source = componentQuery; lbParts.SetBinding(ListBox.ItemsSourceProperty, b); And the on a button click I add an entity to the MyObjectSet: var myObject = new MyObject { Name = "Test" }; context.AddToMyObjectSet(myObject); Here is the problem - this object needs to update in the UI to. But it is not added there :( Help!

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  • onPause/onResume activity issues

    - by Josh
    I have a small test application I am working on which has a timer that updates a textview to countdown from 100 to 0. That works fine, but now I am trying to pause the application if the user presses the back button on the phone and then restart the timer from where they left off when they reopen the app. Here is the code I am using: @Override public void onPause() { if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { this.timer.cancel(); } super.onPause(); Log.v("Pausing", String.format("Pausing with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); } @Override public void onResume() { super.onResume(); Log.v("Resuming", String.format("Resuming with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { setContentView(R.layout.in_game); start_timer(this._timer_time_remaining); } } The start_timer() method creates a CountDownTimer which updates the textview in the onTick method and updates the this._timer_time_remaining int variable. CountDownTimer and _timer_time_remaining are both declared at the class level like this: private CountDownTimer timer; private int _timer_time_remaining; From the Log.v() prints I see that the _timer_time_remaining variable has the correct number of seconds stored when onPause is called, but it is set back to 0 when onResume starts. Why does the variable get reset? I thought that the application would continue to run in the background with the same values. Am I missing something? This is all declared in a class that extends Activity. Thanks in advance!

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  • Working with a large data object between ruby processes

    - by Gdeglin
    I have a Ruby hash that reaches approximately 10 megabytes if written to a file using Marshal.dump. After gzip compression it is approximately 500 kilobytes. Iterating through and altering this hash is very fast in ruby (fractions of a millisecond). Even copying it is extremely fast. The problem is that I need to share the data in this hash between Ruby on Rails processes. In order to do this using the Rails cache (file_store or memcached) I need to Marshal.dump the file first, however this incurs a 1000 millisecond delay when serializing the file and a 400 millisecond delay when serializing it. Ideally I would want to be able to save and load this hash from each process in under 100 milliseconds. One idea is to spawn a new Ruby process to hold this hash that provides an API to the other processes to modify or process the data within it, but I want to avoid doing this unless I'm certain that there are no other ways to share this object quickly. Is there a way I can more directly share this hash between processes without needing to serialize or deserialize it? Here is the code I'm using to generate a hash similar to the one I'm working with: @a = [] 0.upto(500) do |r| @a[r] = [] 0.upto(10_000) do |c| if rand(10) == 0 @a[r][c] = 1 # 10% chance of being 1 else @a[r][c] = 0 end end end @c = Marshal.dump(@a) # 1000 milliseconds Marshal.load(@c) # 400 milliseconds Update: Since my original question did not receive many responses, I'm assuming there's no solution as easy as I would have hoped. Presently I'm considering two options: Create a Sinatra application to store this hash with an API to modify/access it. Create a C application to do the same as #1, but a lot faster. The scope of my problem has increased such that the hash may be larger than my original example. So #2 may be necessary. But I have no idea where to start in terms of writing a C application that exposes an appropriate API. A good walkthrough through how best to implement #1 or #2 may receive best answer credit.

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  • MDA BindingFailure detected

    - by Vnuk
    WebForms web site upon first launch from VS2008 throws this exception on my dev machine, after clicking continue everything works. Also, everything works on server when deployed. What is this VJSharpCodeProvider, why is it being loaded in vb.net project and why did it start happening all of a sudden? The assembly with display name 'VJSharpCodeProvider' failed to load in the 'LoadFrom' binding context of the AppDomain with ID 2. The cause of the failure was: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = quad7\devuser LOG: DisplayName = VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/dev/ins/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\dev\ins\bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\dev\ins\web.config LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/fakturaTest/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE.

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  • Android custom categories

    - by marian
    Hello, I have a view as a main screen of the application which contains the available application's actions as icon+text pairs ( desktop like). I want to find out programatically what are the activities defined ONLY in my AndroidManifest.xml Suppose I have : < activity android:name="example.mainActivity" android:label="mainActivity" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" / < category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" / < /intent-filter < /activity < activity android:name="example.activity1" android:label="Activity1" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" / < category android:name="example.custom.ACTIVITY" / < /intent-filter < /activity < activity android:name="example.activity2" android:label="Activity2" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" / < category android:name="example.custom.ACTIVITY" / < /intent-filter < /activity I want that in the mainActivity to dinamically read Activity1 and Activity2 because when i add Activity3 for example it will be automatically read. I thought that this could be done by defining a custom category, example.custom.ACTIVITY, and in the mainActivity use the packageManager.queryIntentActivities(Intent intent, int flags) but it doesn't seem to be working. I really would like to code it to dinamically discover the installed activities in my application. Do you have any ideas on how to do this? Thank you

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  • Force x86 CLR on 'Any CPU' .NET assembly

    - by jeffora
    In .NET, the 'Platform Target: Any CPU' compiler option allows a .NET assembly to run as 64bit on a x64 machine, and 32bit on an x86 machine. It is also possible to force an assembly to run as x86 on an x64 machine using the 'Platform Target: x86' compiler option. Is it possible to run an assembly with the 'Any CPU' flag, but determine whether it should be run in the x86 or x64 CLR? Normally this decision is made by the CLR/OS Loader (as is my understanding) based on the bitness of the underlying system. I am trying to write a C# .NET application that can interact with (read: inject code into) other running processes. x64 processes can only inject into other x64 processes, and the same with x86. Ideally, I would like to take advantage of JIT compilation and the Any CPU option to allow a single application to be used to inject into either x64 or x86 processes (on an x64 machine). The idea is that the application would be compiled as Any CPU. On an x64 machine it would run as x64. If the target process is x86, it should relaunch itself, forcing the CLR to run it as x86. Is this possible?

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  • Validating DataAnnotations with Validator class

    - by Pablote
    I'm trying to validate a class decorated with dataannotation with the Validator class. It works fine when the attributes are applied to the same class. But when I try to use a metadata class it doesn't work. Is there anything I should do with the Validator so it uses the metadata class? Here's some code.. this works: public class Persona { [Required(AllowEmptyStrings = false, ErrorMessage = "El nombre es obligatorio")] public string Nombre { get; set; } [Range(0, int.MaxValue, ErrorMessage="La edad no puede ser negativa")] public int Edad { get; set; } } this doesnt work: [MetadataType(typeof(Persona_Validation))] public class Persona { public string Nombre { get; set; } public int Edad { get; set; } } public class Persona_Validation { [Required(AllowEmptyStrings = false, ErrorMessage = "El nombre es obligatorio")] public string Nombre { get; set; } [Range(0, int.MaxValue, ErrorMessage = "La edad no puede ser negativa")] public int Edad { get; set; } } this is how I validate the instances: ValidationContext context = new ValidationContext(p, null, null); List<ValidationResult> results = new List<ValidationResult>(); bool valid = Validator.TryValidateObject(p, context, results, true); thanks.

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  • Creating a Custom Design-Time Environment

    - by Charlie
    Hello all, My question is related to the design-time support of WPF. From MSDN I read, The WPF Designer provides a framework and a public API which you can use to implement custom adorners, tools, property editors, and designers. But the vast majority of the examples I have found are trivial, and do not illustrate much concerning the creation of a customized designer in an existing WPF application. We have migrated our application from Windows Forms to WPF over the past year, and the next step will be to take an existing WinForms Panel designer, and rewrite it in WPF. Suffice it to say that this will be a huge project. But I don't even know where to begin. I am wondering if any of you have had similar experiences writing a customized designer for a WPF application, and what it was like. Even better, if you could compare and contrast the functionality between the WinForms designer and the WPF designer, or explain the transition from the former to the latter, that would be helpful. If you know of any simple examples that demonstrate a customized design environment (with custom controls, etc.) that would be extremely beneficial. All in all, I am just wondering if many people have undertaken this yet, and what their results have been. EDIT: To clarify, yes, I am talking about hosting a WPF designer. It appears that this may not even be possible, which is a huge setback. Here is a screenshot of our current WinForms designer. As you can see, it is used to create customized user interfaces. You can drag custom controls onto it and design them, then put the panel into a "run mode" in which all of the controls become functional. Short of spending months writing our designer, would this be possible in WPF? What about .NET 4.0 and VS2010? Will those add any designer functionality?

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  • GMap.NET shows no map

    - by Mariusz
    I'm trying to use the GMap.NET.WindowsForms control in my Windows forms application but I cannot make it show me any map. Here is what I did: I added the control to my Visual Studio's 2010 toolbox by clicking 'Choose Items...' from the toolbox's context menu and browsing for the GMap.NET.WindowsForms.dll included in the downloaded zip archive. I also added references to GMap.NET.Core.dll and System.Data.SQLite.dll in my solution. Then I put the GMapControl that appeared in the toolbox on the main form of my application and set the map type to GoogleMap. When I run my application, however, the control shows either a blue screen with a piece of text saying "We are sorry, but we don't have imagery at this zoom level for this region" or a bright screen with completely no data (when I change zoom level). Here is my code: GMapMain.MapType = MapType.GoogleMap; GMapMain.MaxZoom = 100; GMapMain.MinZoom = 0; GMapMain.Zoom = 50; GMapMain.CurrentPosition = new PointLatLng(54.6961334816182, 25.2985095977783); GMapMain.ReloadMap(); Please help. I have no idea what to do and I cannot find any information in the Internet that could help me solve the problem. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • How to check whether a user belongs to an AD group and nested groups?

    - by elsharpo
    hi guys, I have an ASP.NET 3.5 application using Windows Authentication and implementing our own RoleProvider. Problem is we want to restrict access to a set of pages to a few thousand users and rathern than inputing all of those one by one we found out they belong to an AD group. The answer is simple if the common group we are checking membership against the particular user is a direct member of it but the problem I'm having is that if the group is a member of another group and then subsequently member of another group then my code always returns false. For example: Say we want to check whether User is a member of group E, but User is not a direct member of *E", she is a member of "A" which a member of "B" which indeed is a member of E, therefore User is a member of *E" One of the solutions we have is very slow, although it gives the correct answer using (var context = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain)) { using (var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, "DL-COOL-USERS")) { var users = group.GetMembers(true); // recursively enumerate return users.Any(a => a.Name == "userName"); } } The original solution and what I was trying to get to work, using .NET 3.5 System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement and it does work when users are direct members of the group in question is as follows: public bool IsUserInGroup(string userName, string groupName) { var cxt = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, "DOMAIN"); var user = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, IdentityType.SamAccountName, userName); if (user == null) { return false; } var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, groupName); if (group == null) { return false; } return user.IsMemberOf(group); } The bottom line is, we need to check for membership even though the groups are nested in many levels down. Thanks a lot!

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  • Using Entity Framework with an SQL Compact Private Installation

    - by David Veeneman
    I am using Entity Framework 4 in a desktop application with SQL Compact. I want to use a private installation of SQL Compact with my application, so that my installer can install SQL Compact without giving the user a second installation to do. It also avoids versioning hassles down the road. My development machine has SQL Compact 3.5 SP1 installed as a public installation, so my app runs fine there, as one would expect. But it's not running on my test machine, which does not have SQL Compact installed. I get this error: The specified store provider cannot be found in the configuration, or is not valid. I know some people have had difficulty with SQL Compact private installations, but I have used them for a while, and I really like them. Unfortunately, my regular private installation approach isn't working. I have checked the version numbers on my SQL CE files, and they are all 3.8.8078.0, which is the SP2 RC version. Here are the files I have included in my private installation: sqlcecompact35.dll sqlceer35EN.dll sqlceme35.dll sqlceqp35.dll sqlcese35.dll System.Data.SqlServerCe.dll System.Data.SqlServerCe.Entity.dll I have added a reference to System.Data.SqlServerCe to my project, and I have verified that all of the files listed above are being copied to the application folder on the installation machine. Here is the code I use to configure an EntityConnectionStringBuilder when I open a SQL Compact file: var sqlCompactConnectionString = string.Format("Data Source={0}", filePath); // Set Builder properties builder.Metadata = string.Format("res://*/{0}.csdl|res://*/{0}.ssdl|res://*/{0}.msl", edmName); builder.Provider = "System.Data.SqlServerCe.3.5"; builder.ProviderConnectionString = sqlCompactConnectionString; var edmConnectionString = builder.ToString(); Am I missing a file? Am I missing a configuration stepp needed to tell Entity Framework where to find my SQL Compact DLLs? Any other suggestions why EF isn't finding my SQL Compact DLLs on the installation machine? Thanks for your help.

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  • Get variables in c# from ajax call

    - by fzshah76
    I've got an Ajax call for log in here is the code: //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { //get the form to submit and return a message //how to call the function var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd2 = $('#pwd2').val(); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx", data: "{ 'name':'" + $('#name').val() + "', 'pwd':'" + $('#pwd2').val() + "' }", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); the problem is I can't seem to catch name and pwd variables in Login page's preinit event or page load event here is the code in c#: protected void Page_PreInit(object sender, EventArgs e) { //taking javascript argument in preinit event //from here I'll have to build the page for specific lookbook var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; SignIn(name); } I can't seem to get username name and password in c# side, help is appreciated. Here is my final javascript code c# code remains the same: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd = $('#pwd').val(); $.ajax({ url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx?name="+ name +"&pwd="+pwd, context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks Zachary

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  • Lazy-loading with Spring HibernateDaoSupport ?

    - by umanga
    Greetings I am developing a non-webapplication using Spring+Hibernate. My question is how the HibernateDaoSupport handles lazy-loading , because after a call do DAO , the Session is closed. Take a look at following psuedo-code: DAO is like: CommonDao extends HibernateDaoSupport{ Family getFamilyById(String id); SubFamily getSubFamily(String familyid,String subfamilyid); } Domain model is like: Family{ private List<SubFamily> subfamiles; public List<SubFamily> getSubFamiles(); } SubFamily{ private Family family; public Family getFamily(); } In the application I get DAO from app-context and want to following operations.Is this possible to do with lazy-loading because AFAIK after every method (getFamilyById() , getSubFamily() ) the session is closed. CommonDAO dao=//get bean from application context; Family famA=dao.getFamilyById(familyid); // //Do some stuff List<SubFamily> childrenA=fam.getSubFamiles(); SubFamily asubfamily=dao.getSubFamily(id,subfamilyid); // //Do some other stuff Family famB=asubfamily.getFamily();

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  • why does Integrated Windows Authentication fail when clients access off the network

    - by Bryan
    My background is not with web applications so this problem is hard for me to explain easily. First I'll try to describe the setup. Client setup:-Only browser that is effected is IE 6-8 (Firefox, chrome, opera, and safari all work fine) -A user will try to access our web application from a company laptop that is not connected to our network. -This machine will be a member of our workgroup and have the company DNS listed as a trusted intranet site. (to which the application in question would be a member) -The security logon mode is set to Automatic Logon only in intranet zone only, and IWA authentication is enabled on the clients browser.Server setup:-Windows server 2003 fp2-The application will first redirect to an Authorization asp page which has anonymous access disabled and IWA enabled in IIS.what should happen is that, since the client is not currently on the network, when this page is called it should prompt the user for network credentials. But with IE, instead of prompting, the user gets a page cannot be displayed error because the IIS manager is denying access to the asp page. If the company DNS is removed from the trusted intranet site list then it prompts correctly but disables single sign on the next time that computer is connected to the network or vpn. My assumption is that since IE uses IWA and the site is listed as an internal site, when no network is found IE just sends nulls to the server attempting to authenticate which is swiftly punted back. Other browsers do not have security zones so when network credentials are not present the server prompts for them. Is there a way to get around this so that our clients can keep the company DNS in the intranet zone but still have the server prompt for credentials when not on the network? Any attempt to allow for anonymous access on the asp page, as far as I know, will cause AUTH_USER to return null and again break SSO. I realize this is slightly rambling so I will do my best to clarify and questions you guys might have. Thanks in advance.

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  • Update a single field from a single entity with ria-services

    - by TimothyP
    There are situations where I only want to update a specific field of a single entity in the database. I loaded the entities of that type into my silverlight application, and I know they are constantly changing on the server... but there is one field which has to be set by the silverlight client... the server will only read it. How can I just send the new data for that field to the server? Example an Entity called "TextField". I have a list of TextFields loaded in the silverlight application and every now and then the user will update the Preload (string) property of an entity and that has to go back to the server without changing anything else on the server. I tried adding a simple SetPreloadText(...) method to the DomainService but that just makes Silverlight crash with some odd error code. Is there a way to this? Am I working against the idea of Silverlight here? I really don't want to send the entire object back because know that at any given time the version on the client will most likely be out of date. (which is ok for this specific application)

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  • Flex textarea control not updating properly.

    - by ielashi
    I am writing a flex application that involves modifying a textarea very frequently. I have encountered issues with the textarea sometimes not displaying my modifications. The following actionscript code illustrates my problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <mx:TextArea x="82" y="36" width="354" height="291" id="textArea" creationComplete="initApp()"/> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private var testSentence:String = "The big brown fox jumps over the lazy dog."; private var testCounter:int = 0; private function initApp():void { var timer:Timer = new Timer(10); timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, playSentence); timer.start(); } private function playSentence(event:TimerEvent):void { textArea.editable = false; if (testCounter == testSentence.length) { testCounter = 0; textArea.text += "\n"; } else { textArea.text += testSentence.charAt(testCounter++); } textArea.editable = true; } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> When you run the above code in a flex project, it should repeatedly print, character by character, the sentence "The big brown fox jumps over the lazy dog.". But, if you are typing into the textarea at the same time, you will notice the text the timer prints is distorted. I am really curious as to why this happens. The single-threaded nature of flex and disabling user input for the textarea when I make modifications should prevent this from happening, but for some reason this doesn't seem to be working. I must note too that, when running the timer at larger intervals (around 100ms) it seems to work perfectly, so I am tempted to think it's some kind of synchronization issue in the internals of the flex framework. Any ideas on what could be causing the problem?

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  • Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

    - by Silviu
    I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

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