Search Results

Search found 24043 results on 962 pages for 'private methods'.

Page 757/962 | < Previous Page | 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764  | Next Page >

  • IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

    - by PFranchise
    Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

    Read the article

  • Patterns and Libraries for working with raw UI values.

    - by ProfK
    By raw values, I mean the application level values provided by UI controls, such as the Text property on a TextBox. Too often I find myself writing code to check and parse such values before they get used as a business level value, e.g. PaymentTermsNumDays. I've mitigated a lot of the spade work with rough and ready extension methods like String.ToNullableInt, but we all know that just isn't right. We can't put the whole world on String's shoulders. Do I look at tasking my UI to provide business values, using a ruleset pushed out from the server app, or open my business objects up a bit to do the required sanitising etc. as they required? Neither of these approaches sits quite right with me; the first seems closer to ideal, but quite a bit of work, while the latter doesn't show much respect to the business objects' single responsibility. The responsibilities of the UI are a closer match. Between these extremes, I could also just implement another DTO layer, an IoC container with sanitising and parsing services, derive enhanced UI controls, or stick to copy and paste inline drudgery.

    Read the article

  • How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

    - by tronjohnson
    In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • plot 4 different plots inside 1 pdf

    - by ifreak
    I have 2 data frames which i want to generate 3 plots from them and place them inside 1 pdf file as a single column. i want all the plots to have the same x-axis limits(basically the same x-axis) even thought they differ in the name and how they were obtained. the dataframes looks something like that: d1 X Y Z 0.04939317 -0.4622222 13651 0.03202451 -0.4261000 13401 0.09950793 -0.3233025 13151 0.11548556 -0.4637981 12486 0.09817597 -0.4751886 12236 0.15770701 -0.5819355 11986 and d2 V0 V1 V2 V3 sign 1 1 0.379 0.612 pos 2 1 0.378 0.620 pos 3 1 0.578 0.571 neg 4 1 0.978 0.561 pos 5 1 0.758 0.261 neg 6 1 0.378 0.126 neg P.S : both data frames are bigger than this, this is only a part of them V0, V1 and Z range from 1 to 20000 the plots that i created are : From d2 d2plot=ggplot(d1, aes(V0,V1, fill=sign)) + geom_tile()+ scale_fill_manual(values = c("neg" = "yellow", "pos"="red")) +geom_vline(xintercept =10000 ) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=0, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) From d1 d1plot = ggplot(d2) + geom_errorbarh(aes(x=z,xmin=z-50,xmax=z+50, y=Y, height = 0.02),color="red")+ opts(legend.position = "none") +geom_vline(xintercept = 10000) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=-0.3, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) i've tried grid.arrange(d1plot,d2plot,ncol=1) but the x-axis is different for each plot, i tried changing the aspect ratio, but this will change the y-axis ..i've also tried to use facet_wrap but the problem that my x-axis values have different values, i just want the limits and breaks to be the same and the plots all be aligned in 1 column based on 1 x-axis to comapre the value of the statistical methods in an easy way.

    Read the article

  • OS-independent Inter-program communication between Python and C

    - by Gyppo
    I have very little idea what I'm doing here, I've never done anything like this before, but a friend and I are writing competing chess programs and they need to be able to communicate to each other. He'll be writing mainly in C, the bulk of mine will be in Python, and I can see a few options: Alternately write to a temp file, or successive temp files. As the communication won't be in any way bulky this could work, but seems like an ugly work-around to me, the programs will have to keep checking for change/new files, it just seems ugly. Find some way of manipulating pipes i.e. mine.py| ./his . This seems like a bit of a dead end. Use sockets. But I don't know what I'd be doing, so could someone give me a pointer to some reading material? I'm not sure if there are OS-independent, language independent methods. Would there have to be some kind of supervisor server program to administrate? Use some kind of HTML protocol, which seems like overkill. I don't mind the programs having to run on the same machine. What do people recommend, and where can I start reading?

    Read the article

  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

    Read the article

  • Processing data from an AJAX request

    - by Josh K
    I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

    Read the article

  • Best way to design a class in python

    - by Fraz
    So, this is more like a philosophical question for someone who is trying to understand classes. Most of time, how i use class is actually a very bad way to use it. I think of a lot of functions and after a time just indent the code and makes it a class and replacing few stuff with self.variable if a variable is repeated a lot. (I know its bad practise) But anyways... What i am asking is: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo,bar): self._foo = foo self._bar = bar self.ans = self.__execute() def __execute(self): return something(self._foo, self._bar) Now there are many ways to do this: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo): self._foo = foo def execute(self,bar): return something(self._foo, bar) Can you suggest which one is bad and which one is worse? or any other way to do this. This is just a toy example (offcourse). I mean, there is no need to have a class here if there is one function.. but lets say in __execute something() calls a whole set of other methods.. ?? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

    - by doctordoder
    I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

    Read the article

  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

    - by Anatoliy Gusarov
    class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

    Read the article

  • Python: Behavior of object in set operations

    - by Josh Arenberg
    I'm trying to create a custom object that behaves properly in set operations. I've generally got it working, but I want to make sure I fully understand the implications. In particular, I'm interested in the behavior when there is additional data in the object that is not included in the equal / hash methods. It seems that in the 'intersection' operation, it returns the set of objects that are being compared to, where the 'union' operations returns the set of objects that are being compared. To illustrate: class MyObject: def __init__(self,value,meta): self.value = value self.meta = meta def __eq__(self,other): if self.value == other.value: return True else: return False def __hash__(self): return hash(self.value) a = MyObject('1','left') b = MyObject('1','right') c = MyObject('2','left') d = MyObject('2','right') e = MyObject('3','left') print a == b # True print a == c # False for i in set([a,c,e]).intersection(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 right #2 right for i in set([a,c,e]).union(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 left #3 left #2 left Is this behavior documented somewhere and deterministic? If so, what is the governing principle?

    Read the article

  • How to implement the API/SPI Pattern in Java?

    - by Adam Tannon
    I am creating a framework that exposes an API for developers to use: public interface MyAPI { public void doSomeStuff(); public int getWidgets(boolean hasRun); } All the developers should have to do is code their projects against these API methods. I also want them to be able to place different "drivers"/"API bindings" on the runtime classpath (the same way JDBC or SLF4J work) and have the API method calls (doSomeStuff(), etc.) operate on different 3rd party resources (files, servers, whatever). Thus the same code and API calls will map to operations on different resources depending on what driver/binding the runtime classpath sees (i.e. myapi-ftp, myapi-ssh, myapi-teleportation). How do I write (and package) an SPI that allows for such runtime binding, and then maps MyAPI calls to the correct (concrete) implementation? In other words, if myapi-ftp allows you to getWidgets(boolean) from an FTP server, how would I could this up (to make use of both the API and SPI)? Bonus points for concrete, working Java code example! Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

    - by ebruchez
    I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

    Read the article

  • How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

    - by arareko
    Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

    Read the article

  • why my form is doing postback when i am calling asynchronously?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using simple asp.net webpage with few fields on it and when the user click on submit button i am calling asynchronously and posting the data. BUT, my whole page is posting back and i dont even see the message that i am trying to display if my data got posted succfully. here is my page. Requester Page Name: <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label4' >Host Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHost" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label2' >Start Date:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtStartDate" runat='server' ></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label6' >End Date:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEndDate" runat='server' ></asp:TextBox> <ul> <li> <button id="btnCancel" name="btnCancel" type="button"> Cancel</button></li> <li> <button id="btnReset" name="btnReset" type="reset"> Reset</button></li> <li> <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button></li> </ul> </p> </form> </div> //Store new Contract Request Methods function processCompletedContactStore(response) { if (!response) { showErrorMsg('No Contacts Returned'); return; } else { if (response.Message == 'update') { $("#status").fadeTo(500, 1, function() { $(this).html("Updated successfully!").fadeTo(500, 150); }) } } }

    Read the article

  • Javascript append to onClick event

    - by John Hartsock
    Guys I have the following Code which I know doesnt work correctly. Yes I know how to do this in JQuery but In this case I cannot use jquery. Please no jquery answers. <form> <input type="text" name="input1" onclick="alert('hello')"> <input type="text" name="input2"> <input type="text" name="input3"> </form> <script type="text\javascript"> window.onload = function () { var currentOnClick; for (var i = 0; i < document.forms[0].elements.length; i++) { currentOnClick = document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick; document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick = function () { if (currentOnClick) { currentOnClick(); } alert("hello2"); } } } </script> What Im trying to do is iterate through the form's elements and add to the onclick function. But due to the fact that in my last iteration currentOnClick is null this does not run as expected. I want to preserve each of the elements onclick methods and play them back in the new fuction Im creating. What I want: When input1 is clicked, alert "hello" then alert "hello2" When Input2 is clicked, alert "hello2" When Input3 is clicked, alert "hello2"

    Read the article

  • C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

    Read the article

  • Best way and problems when using ajax tabs with an MVC PHP project

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I'm building an IMDB.com like website using PHP/jQuery and a MVC approach (no OOP). I have an index.php base controller to 'rule them all' :), a controllers folder with all the controllers, a models folder and a view folder. In some pages of the website I have tabbed navigation, when the visitor clicks on one of those tabs to get more information, jQuery gets that data using the $.post or $.get method and shows it on the tab container, obviously without refreshing the page. The problem is that those pages loaded by ajax are also generated using controllers, models, and views, and the things are getting a bit complicated for someone like me ( = 'no experience'). To dynamically get the data I some times need to include a model twice, include an include in an include in an include, send information multiple times, connect with the database again, and all sort of things like that and I'm sure there is a better and prettier way to do this. I'm searching for the best approach and common methods for this. I have no experience working with a big project like this. This is a personal project so I have full control and every answer is welcome. Thanks!!!

    Read the article

  • A question of long-running and disruptive branches

    - by Matt Enright
    We are about to begin prototyping a new application that will share some existing infrastructure assemblies with an existing application, and also involve a significant subset of the existing domain model. Parts of the domain model will likely undergo some serious changes for this new application, and the endgame for all of this, once the new application has been fully specified and is launch-ready is that we would like to re-unify the models of the two applications (as well as share a database, link functionality, etc.), but for the duration of development, prototyping, etc, we will be using a separate database so that we can change things without worrying about impact to development or use of the existing application. Since it is a prototype, there will be a pretty long window during which serious changes or rearchitecturing can occur as product management experiments with different workflows, different customer bases are surveyed, and we try and keep up. We have already made a Subversion branch, so as to not impact concurrent development on the mature application, and are toying with 2 potential ways of moving forward with this: Use the svn branch as the sole mechanism of separation. Make our changes to the existing domain models, and evaluate their impact on the existing application (and make requisite changes to ProjectA) when we have established that our long-running side branch is stable enough for re-entry to trunk. "Fork" the shared code (temporarily): Copy ProjectA.Entities to NewProject.Entities, and treat all of the NewProject code as self-contained. When all of the perturbations around the model have died down and we feel satisfied, manually re-integrate the changes (as granular or sweeping as warranted) back into ProjectA.Entities, updating ProjectA to use the improved models at each step (this can take place either before or after the subversion merge has occurred). The subversion merge will then not handle recombination of any of the heavy changes here. Note: the "fork" method only applies to the code we see significant changes in store for, and whose modification will break ProjectA - shared infrastructure stuff for example, we would just modify in place (on our branch) and let the merge sort out. Development is hard, go shopping. Naturally, after not coming to an agreement, we're turning it over to the oracle of power that is SO. Any experience with any of these methods, pain points to watch out for, something new entirely?

    Read the article

  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

    Read the article

  • Implementing inotifycollectionchanged interface

    - by George
    Hello, I need to implement a collection with special capabilities. In addition, I want to bind this collection to a ListView, Therefore I ended up with the next code (I omitted some methods to make it shorter here in the forum): public class myCollection<T> : INotifyCollectionChanged { private Collection<T> collection = new Collection<T>(); public event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; public void Add(T item) { collection.Insert(collection.Count, item); OnCollectionChange(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Add, item)); } protected virtual void OnCollectionChange(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (CollectionChanged != null) CollectionChanged(this, e); } } I wanted to test it with a simple data class: public class Person { public string GivenName { get; set; } public string SurName { get; set; } } So I created an instance of myCollection class as follows: myCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new myCollection<Person>(); public myCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } The problem is that the ListView does not update when the collection updates although I implemented the INotifyCollectionChanged interface. I know that my binding is fine (in XAML) because when I use the ObservableCollecion class instead of myCollecion class like this: ObservableCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new ObservableCollection<Person>(); public ObservableCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } the ListView updates What is the problem?

    Read the article

  • Can't use method from class in other file

    - by user1833848
    I am not able to use one of my methods that i implemented in my tableviewcell file in my tableview controller implementation. I tried searching the web and xcode help with no luck. My codes looks like this: TableViewController.h: #import TableViewCell.h @interface TableViewController : UITableViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *A1Buy; @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender; TableViewController.m: @implementation A1ViewController @synthesize A1Buy = _A1Buy; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender { [TableViewCell Enable]; //this is where it gives an error } TableViewCell.h: @interface TableViewCell : UITableViewCell { BOOL Enable; BOOL Disable; } @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; TableViewCell.m: @implementation TableViewCell; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (BOOL) Enable { return userInteractionEnabled = YES; } - (BOOL) Disable { return userInteractionEnabled = NO; } As you can see i am trying to enable user interaction with a button, but Xcode only gives me errors like "class does not have this method" and stuff like that. All files are importet correctly so thats not why. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • search for the maximum

    - by peril brain
    I need to know a code that will automatically:- search a specific word in excel notes it row or column number (depends on data arrangement) searches numerical type values in the respective row or column with that numeric value(suppose a[7][0]or a[0][7]) it compares all other values of respective row or column(ie. a[i][0] or a[0][i]) sets that value to the highest value only if IT HAS GOT NO FORMULA FOR DERIVATION i know most of coding but at a few places i got myself stuck... i'm writing a part of my program upto which i know: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; using Microsoft.Office.Interop; using Excel = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; Excel.Application oExcelApp; namespace a{ class b{ static void main(){ try { oExcelApp = (Excel.Application)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.GetActiveObject("Excel.Application"); ; if(oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook != null) {Excel.Workbook xlwkbook = (Excel.Workbook)oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook; Excel.Worksheet ws = (Excel.Worksheet)xlwkbook.ActiveSheet; Excel.Range rn; rn = ws.Cells.Find("maximum", Type.Missing, Excel.XlFindLookIn.xlValues, Excel.XlLookAt.xlPart,Excel.XlSearchOrder.xlByRows, Excel.XlSearchDirection.xlNext, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); }}} now ahead of this i only know tat i have to use cell.value2 ,cell.hasformula methods..... & no more idea can any one help me with this..

    Read the article

  • Receiving "expected expression before" Error When Using A Struct

    - by Zach Dziura
    I'm in the process of creating a simple 2D game engine in C with a group of friends at school. I'd like to write this engine in an Object-Oriented way, using structs as classes, function pointers as methods, etc. To emulate standard OOP syntax, I created a create() function which allocates space in memory for the object. I'm in the process of testing it out, and I'm receiving an error. Here is my code for two files that I'm using to test: test.c: #include <stdio.h> int main() { typedef struct { int i; } Class; Class *test = (Class*) create(Class); test->i = 1; printf("The value of \"test\" is: %i\n", test->i); return 0; } utils.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include "utils.h" void* create(const void* class) { void *obj = (void*) malloc(sizeof(class)); if (obj == 0) { printf("Error allocating memory.\n"); return (int*) -1; } else { return obj; } } void destroy(void* object) { free(object); } The utils.h file simply holds prototypes for the create() and destroy() functions. When I execute gcc test.c utils.c -o test, I'm receiving this error message: test.c: In function 'main': test.c:10:32: error: expected expression before 'Class' I know it has something to do with my typedef at the beginning, and how I'm probably not using proper syntax. But I have no idea what that proper syntax is. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764  | Next Page >