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  • Object oriented n-tier design. Am I abstracting too much? Or not enough?

    - by max
    Hi guys, I'm building my first enterprise grade solution (at least I'm attempting to make it enterprise grade). I'm trying to follow best practice design patterns but am starting to worry that I might be going too far with abstraction. I'm trying to build my asp.net webforms (in C#) app as an n-tier application. I've created a Data Access Layer using an XSD strongly-typed dataset that interfaces with a SQL server backend. I access the DAL through some Business Layer Objects that I've created on a 1:1 basis to the datatables in the dataset (eg, a UsersBLL class for the Users datatable in the dataset). I'm doing checks inside the BLL to make sure that data passed to DAL is following the business rules of the application. That's all well and good. Where I'm getting stuck though is the point at which I connect the BLL to the presentation layer. For example, my UsersBLL class deals mostly with whole datatables, as it's interfacing with the DAL. Should I now create a separate "User" (Singular) class that maps out the properties of a single user, rather than multiple users? This way I don't have to do any searching through datatables in the presentation layer, as I could use the properties created in the User class. Or would it be better to somehow try to handle this inside the UsersBLL? Sorry if this sounds a little complicated... Below is the code from the UsersBLL: using System; using System.Data; using PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSetTableAdapters; [System.ComponentModel.DataObject] public class UsersBLL { private UsersTableAdapter _UsersAdapter = null; protected UsersTableAdapter Adapter { get { if (_UsersAdapter == null) _UsersAdapter = new UsersTableAdapter(); return _UsersAdapter; } } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, true)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUsers() { return Adapter.GetUsers(); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, false)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUserByUserID(int userID) { return Adapter.GetUserByUserID(userID); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, false)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUsersByTeamID(int teamID) { return Adapter.GetUsersByTeamID(teamID); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Select, false)] public PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable GetUsersByEmail(string Email) { return Adapter.GetUserByEmail(Email); } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Insert, true)] public bool AddUser(int? teamID, string FirstName, string LastName, string Email, string Role, int LocationID) { // Create a new UsersRow instance PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable Users = new PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable(); PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersRow user = Users.NewUsersRow(); if (UserExists(Users, Email) == true) return false; if (teamID == null) user.SetTeamIDNull(); else user.TeamID = teamID.Value; user.FirstName = FirstName; user.LastName = LastName; user.Email = Email; user.Role = Role; user.LocationID = LocationID; // Add the new user Users.AddUsersRow(user); int rowsAffected = Adapter.Update(Users); // Return true if precisely one row was inserted, // otherwise false return rowsAffected == 1; } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Update, true)] public bool UpdateUser(int userID, int? teamID, string FirstName, string LastName, string Email, string Role, int LocationID) { PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable Users = Adapter.GetUserByUserID(userID); if (Users.Count == 0) // no matching record found, return false return false; PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersRow user = Users[0]; if (teamID == null) user.SetTeamIDNull(); else user.TeamID = teamID.Value; user.FirstName = FirstName; user.LastName = LastName; user.Email = Email; user.Role = Role; user.LocationID = LocationID; // Update the product record int rowsAffected = Adapter.Update(user); // Return true if precisely one row was updated, // otherwise false return rowsAffected == 1; } [System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodAttribute (System.ComponentModel.DataObjectMethodType.Delete, true)] public bool DeleteUser(int userID) { int rowsAffected = Adapter.Delete(userID); // Return true if precisely one row was deleted, // otherwise false return rowsAffected == 1; } private bool UserExists(PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersDataTable users, string email) { // Check if user email already exists foreach (PedChallenge.DAL.PedDataSet.UsersRow userRow in users) { if (userRow.Email == email) return true; } return false; } } Some guidance in the right direction would be greatly appreciated!! Thanks all! Max

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  • Weird - "The EntityReference object could not be serialized" when serializing from an ASP.NET Web Si

    - by Mikey Cee
    I have an Entity Framework data model. Part of the model is a Customer entity. The web service provides a method to get a customer, and to receive an updated version of this customer to be persisted. To test this, I created a new ASP.NET web Application, (Solution Add New Project ASP.NET Web Application), then added a reference to my service reference using the standard Add Service Reference dialog. I then call the service using the following code: var client = new CustomerServiceClient(); var customer = client.GetCustomerByID(18); // get it customer.LimitDown = 100; // change it client.SaveCustomer(customer); // persist it Everything works as expected. Now, I do exactly the same thing, but this time with as ASP.NET Web Site (Solution Add New Web Site ASP.NET Web Site). I add the reference in a similar fashion and copy and paste the code above into the new site. But now I get the following exception thrown on the 4th line: System.InvalidOperationException The EntityReference object could not be serialized. This type of object cannot be serialized when the RelationshipManager belongs to an entity object that does not implement IEntityWithRelationships. Source Error: Line 2474: Line 2475: public SkyWalkerCustomerService.OperationResult SaveCustomer(SkyWalkerCustomerService.Customer customer) { Line 2476: return base.Channel.SaveCustomer(customer); Line 2477: } Line 2478: } Stack Trace: System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) +9475203 System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) +345 SkyWalkerCustomerService.ICustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) +0 SkyWalkerCustomerService.CustomerServiceClient.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) in c:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30128\Temporary ASP.NET Files\testsite2\dd2bcf8d\f95604ff\App_WebReferences.fz4h7x7l.0.cs:2476 _Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Users\Mike\Documents\Repositories\UWC\SkyWalker\TestSite2\Default.aspx.cs:17 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +91 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +61 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1966 Googling for this error returns very little. Why doesn't this work?

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  • Powershell: Select-Object with additional calculated difference value

    - by David.Chu.ca
    Let me explain my question. I have a daily report about one PC's free space as in text file (sp.txt) like: DateTime FreeSpace(MB) ----- ------------- 03/01/2010 100.43 DateTime FreeSpace(MB) ----- ------------- 03/02/2010 98.31 .... Then I need to use this file as input to generate a report with difference of free space between dates: DateTime FreeSpace(MB) Change ----- ------------- ------ 03/01/2010 100.43 03/02/2010 98.31 2.12 .... Here are some codes I have to get above result without the additional "Change" calculation: Get-Content "C:\report\sp.txt" ` | where {$_.trim().length -gt 0 -and -not ($_ -like "Date*") -and -not ($_ -like "---*")} ` | Select-Object @{Name='DateTime'; expression={[DateTime]::Parse($_.SubString(0, 10).Trim())}}, ` @{Name='FreeSpace(MB)'; expression={$_.SubString(12, 12).Trim()}}, ` | Sort-Object DateTime ` | Select-Object DateTime, 'FreeSpace(MB)' |ft -AutoSize # how to add additional column Change to this Select-Object? My understanding is that Select-Object will return a collection of objects. Here I create this collection from an input text file(parse each line into parts: datetime and freespace(MB)). In order to calculate the difference between dates, I guess that I need to add additional calculated value to the result of the last Select-Object, or pipe the result to another Select-Object with the calculation as additional property or column. In order to do it, I need to get the previous row's FreeSpace value. Not sure if it is possible and how?

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  • Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

    - by Tarun
    I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Collision Attacks, Message Digests and a Possible solution

    - by Dominar
    I've been doing some preliminary research in the area of message digests. Specifically collision attacks of cryptographic hash functions such as MD5 and SHA-1, such as the Postscript example and X.509 certificate duplicate. From what I can tell in the case of the postscript attack, specific data was generated and embedded within the header of the postscript (which is ignored during rendering) which brought about the internal state of the md5 to a state such that the modified wording of the document would lead to a final MD equivalent to the original. The X.509 took a similar approach where by data was injected within the comment/whitespace of the certificate. Ok so here is my question, and I can't seem to find anyone asking this question: Why isn't the length of ONLY the data being consumed added as a final block to the MD calculation? In the case of X.509 - Why is the whitespace and comments being taken into account as part of the MD? Wouldn't a simple processes such as one of the following be enough to resolve the proposed collision attacks: MD(M + |M|) = xyz MD(M + |M| + |M| * magicseed_0 +...+ |M| * magicseed_n) = xyz where : M : is the message |M| : size of the message MD : is the message digest function (eg: md5, sha, whirlpool etc) xyz : is the acutal message digest value for the message M magicseed_{i}: Is a set random values generated with seed based on the internal-state prior to the size being added. This technqiue should work, as to date all such collision attacks rely on adding more data to the original message. In short, the level of difficulty involved in generating a collision message such that: It not only generates the same MD But is also comprehensible/parsible/compliant and is also the same size as the original message, is immensely difficult if not near impossible. Has this approach ever been discussed? Any links to papers etc would be nice.

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  • Powershell / .Net: Get a reference to an object returned by a method

    - by Dan Menes
    I am teaching myself PowerShell by writing a simple parser. I use the .Net framework class Collections.Stack. I want to modify the object at the top of the stack in place. I know I can pop() the object off, modify it, and then push() it back on, but that strikes me as inelegant. First, I tried this: $stk = new-object Collections.Stack $stk.push( (,'My first value') ) ( $stk.peek() ) += ,'| My second value' Which threw an error: Assignment failed because [System.Collections.Stack] doesn't contain a settable property 'peek()'. At C:\Development\StackOverflow\PowerShell-Stacks\test.ps1:3 char:12 + ( $stk.peek <<<< () ) += ,'| My second value' + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (peek:String) [], RuntimeException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : ParameterizedPropertyAssignmentFailed Next I tried this: $ary = $stk.peek() $ary += ,'| My second value' write-host "Array is: $ary" write-host "Stack top is: $($stk.peek())" Which prevented the error but still didn't do the right thing: Array is: My first value | My second value Stack top is: My first value Clearly, what is getting assigned to $ary is a copy of the object at the top of the stack, so when I the object in $ary, the object at the top of the stack remains unchanged. Finally, I read up on teh [ref] type, and tried this: $ary_ref = [ref]$stk.peek() $ary_ref.value += ,'| My second value' write-host "Referenced array is: $($ary_ref.value)" write-host "Stack top is still: $($stk.peek())" But still no dice: Referenced array is: My first value | My second value Stack top is still: My first value I assume the peek() method returns a reference to the actual object, not the clone. If so, then the reference appears to be being replaced by a clone by PowerShell's expression processing logic. Can somebody tell me if there is a way to do what I want to do? Or do I have to revert to pop() / modify / push()?

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  • iPhone: Get indexPath of Predicate Object

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I am using a predicate to find an object in core data. I can successfully find the object that I want, but I need to also get the indexPath of that object, so that I can push a details view in for that object. Currently I have the following code for getting my object: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Ride" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"title = %@ AND addressFull = %@", view.annotation.title, view.annotation.subtitle]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSMutableArray *sortDescriptors = [NSMutableArray array]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"title" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"addressFull" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; [fetchRequest setPropertiesToFetch:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"title", @"addressFull", nil]]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; // Sohow what record we returned NSLog(@"%@",[fetchedItems objectAtIndex:0]); So, I can correctly get my object into an array. But how do I translate that object into an indexPath?

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  • passing java mail message object from between applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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  • What is the difference between using MD5.Create and MD5CryptoServiceProvider?

    - by byte
    In the .NET framework there are a couple of ways to calculate an MD5 hash it seems, however there is something I don't understand; What is the distinction between the following? What sets them apart from eachother? They seem to product identical results: public static string GetMD5Hash(string str) { MD5CryptoServiceProvider md5 = new MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] bytes = ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(str); byte[] encoded = md5.ComputeHash(bytes); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i < encoded.Length; i++) sb.Append(encoded[i].ToString("x2")); return sb.ToString(); } public static string GetMD5Hash2(string str) { System.Security.Cryptography.MD5 md5 = System.Security.Cryptography.MD5.Create(); byte[] bytes = Encoding.Default.GetBytes(str); byte[] encoded = md5.ComputeHash(bytes); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i < encoded.Length; i++) sb.Append(encoded[i].ToString("x2")); return sb.ToString(); }

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  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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  • Writing a JavaScript zip code validation function

    - by mkoryak
    I would like to write a JavaScript function that validates a zip code, by checking if the zip code actually exists. Here is a list of all zip codes: http://www.census.gov/tiger/tms/gazetteer/zips.txt (I only care about the 2nd column) This is really a compression problem. I would like to do this for fun. OK, now that's out of the way, here is a list of optimizations over a straight hashtable that I can think of, feel free to add anything I have not thought of: Break zipcode into 2 parts, first 2 digits and last 3 digits. Make a giant if-else statement first checking the first 2 digits, then checking ranges within the last 3 digits. Or, covert the zips into hex, and see if I can do the same thing using smaller groups. Find out if within the range of all valid zip codes there are more valid zip codes vs invalid zip codes. Write the above code targeting the smaller group. Break up the hash into separate files, and load them via Ajax as user types in the zipcode. So perhaps break into 2 parts, first for first 2 digits, second for last 3. Lastly, I plan to generate the JavaScript files using another program, not by hand. Edit: performance matters here. I do want to use this, if it doesn't suck. Performance of the JavaScript code execution + download time. Edit 2: JavaScript only solutions please. I don't have access to the application server, plus, that would make this into a whole other problem =)

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  • JPA native query join returns object but dereference throws class cast exception

    - by masato-san
    I'm using JPQL Native query to join table and query result is stored in List<Object[]>. public String getJoinJpqlNativeQuery() { String final SQL_JOIN = "SELECT v1.bitbit, v1.numnum, v1.someTime, t1.username, t1.anotherNum FROM MasatosanTest t1 JOIN MasatoView v1 ON v1.username = t1.username;" System.out.println("get join jpql native query is being called ============================"); EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getDefaultManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(SQL_JOIN); out = query.getResultList(); System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); System.out.println(out.get(0)); String one = out.get(0).toString(); //LINE 77 where ClassCastException System.out.println(one); } catch(Exception e) { } finally { if(em != null) { em.close; } } } The problem is System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); outputs: return object ==========> [[true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020], [false, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, koga, 0.213]] System.out.println(out.get(0)) outputs: [true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020] So I assumed that I can assign return value of out.get(0) which should be String: String one = out.get(0).toString(); But I get weird ClassCastException. java.lang.ClassCastException: java.util.Vector cannot be cast to [Ljava.lang.Object; at local.test.jaxrs.MasatosanTestResource.getJoinJpqlNativeQuery (MasatosanTestResource.java:77) So what's really going on? Even Object[] foo = out.get(0); would throw an ClassCastException :(

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • (Rails) Creating multi-dimensional hashes/arrays from a data set...?

    - by humble_coder
    Hi All, I'm having a bit of an issue wrapping my head around something. I'm currently using a hacked version of Gruff in order to accommodate "Scatter Plots". That said, the data is entered in the form of: g.data("Person1",[12,32,34,55,23],[323,43,23,43,22]) ...where the first item is the ENTITY, the second item is X-COORDs, and the third item is Y-COORDs. I currently have a recordset of items from a table with the columns: POINT, VALUE, TIMESTAMP. Due to the "complex" calculations involved I must grab everything using a single query or risk way too much DB activity. That said, I have a list of items for which I need to dynamically collect all data from the recordset into a hash (or array of arrays) for the creation of the data items. I was thinking something like the following: @h={} e = Events.find_by_sql(my_query) e.each do |event| @h["#{event.Point}"][x] = event.timestamp @h["#{event.Point}"][y] = event.value end Obviously that's not the correct syntax, but that's where my brain is going. Could someone clean this up for me or suggest a more appropriate mechanism by which to accomplish this? Basically the main goal is to keep data for each pointname grouped (but remember the recordset has them all). Much appreciated. EDIT 1 g = Gruff::Scatter.new("600x350") g.title = self.name e = Event.find_by_sql(@sql) h ={} e.each do |event| h[event.Point.to_s] ||= {} h[event.Point.to_s].merge!({event.Timestamp.to_i,event.Value}) end h.each do |p| logger.info p[1].values.inspect g.data(p[0],p[1].keys,p[1].values) end g.write(@chart_file)

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  • Javascript function objects, this keyword points to wrong object

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I've got a problem concerning the javascript "this" keyword when used within a javascript functional object. I want to be able to create an object for handling a Modal popup (JQuery UI Dialog). The object is called CreateItemModal. Which i want to be able to instantiate and pass some config settings. One of the config settings. When the show method is called, the dialog will be shown, but the cancel button is not functioning because the this refers to the DOM object instead of the CreateItemModal object. How can I fix this, or is there a better approach to put seperate behaviour in seperate "classes" or "objects". I've tried several approaches, including passing the "this" object into the events, but this does not feel like a clean solution. See (simplified) code below: function CreateItemModal(config) { // initialize some variables including $wrapper }; CreateItemModal.prototype.show = function() { this.$wrapper.dialog({ buttons: { // this crashes because this is not the current object here Cancel: this.close } }); }; CreateItemModal.prototype.close = function() { this.config.$wrapper.dialog('close'); };

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  • Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

    - by Jake M
    I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

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  • Hashing 11 byte unique ID to 32 bits or less

    - by MoJo
    I am looking for a way to reduce a 11 byte unique ID to 32 bits or fewer. I am using an Atmel AVR microcontroller that has the ID number burned in at the factory, but because it has to be transmitted very often in a very low power system I want to reduce the length down to 4 bytes or fewer. The ID is guaranteed unique for every microcontroller. It is made up of data from the manufacturing process, basically the coordinates of the silicone on the wafer and the production line that was used. They look like this: 304A34393334-16-11001000 314832383431-0F-09000C00 Obviously the main danger is that by reducing these IDs they become non-unique. Unfortunately I don't have a large enough sample size to test how unique these numbers are. Having said that because there will only be tens of thousands of devices in use and there is secondary information that can be used to help identify them (such as their approximate location, known at the time of communication) collisions might not be too much of an issue if they are few and far between. Is something like MD5 suitable for this? My concern is that the data being hashed is very short, just 11 bytes. Do hash functions work reliably on such short data?

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  • Pass object or id

    - by Charles
    This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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  • Change object on client side or on server side

    - by Polina Feterman
    I'm not sure what is the best practice. I have some big and complex objects (NOT flat). In that object I have many related objects - for example Invoice is the main class and one of it's properties is invoiceSupervisor - a big class by it's own called User. User can also be not flat and have department property - also an object called Department. For example I want create new Invoice. First way: I can present to client several fields to fill in. Some of them will be combos that I will need to fill with available values. For example available invoiceSupervisors. Then all the chosen values I can send to server and on server I can create new Invoice and assign all chosen values to that new Invoice. Then I will need to assign new supervisor I will pull the chosen User by id that user picked up on server from combobox. I might do some verification on the User such as does the user applicable to be invoice supervisor. Then I will assign the User object to invoiceSupervisor. Then after filling all properties I will save the new invoice. Second way: In the beginning I can call to server to get a new Invoice. Then on client I can fill all chosen values , for example I can call to server to get new User object and then fill it's id from combobox and assign the User as invoiceSupervisor. After filling the Invoice object on client I can send it to server and then the server will save the new invoice. Before saving server can run some validations as well. So what is the best approach - to make the object on client and send it to server or to collect all values from client and to make a new object on server using those values ?

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  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • Is this the best way to grab common elements from a Hash of arrays?

    - by Hulihan Applications
    I'm trying to get a common element from a group of arrays in Ruby. Normally, you can use the & operator to compare two arrays, which returns elements that are present or common in both arrays. This is all good, except when you're trying to get common elements from more than two arrays. However, I want to get common elements from an unknown, dynamic number of arrays, which are stored in a hash. I had to resort to using the eval() method in ruby, which executes a string as actual code. Here's the function I wrote: def get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(hash) # get an array of common elements contained in a hash of arrays, for every array in the hash. # ["1","2","3"] & ["2","4","5"] & ["2","5","6"] # => ["2"] # eval("[\"1\",\"2\",\"3\"] & [\"2\",\"4\",\"5\"] & [\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]") # => ["2"] eval_string_array = Array.new # an array to store strings of Arrays, ie: "[\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]", which we will join with & to get all common elements hash.each do |key, array| eval_string_array << array.inspect end eval_string = eval_string_array.join(" & ") # create eval string delimited with a & so we can get common values return eval(eval_string) end example_hash = {:item_0 => ["1","2","3"], :item_1 => ["2","4","5"], :item_2 => ["2","5","6"] } puts get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(example_hash) # => 2 This works and is great, but I'm wondering...eval, really? Is this the best way to do it? Are there even any other ways to accomplish this(besides a recursive function, of course). If anyone has any suggestions, I'm all ears. Otherwise, Feel free to use this code if you need to grab a common item or element from a group or hash of arrays, this code can also easily be adapted to search an array of arrays.

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  • Is this the best way to grab Common element from a Hash of arrays?

    - by Hulihan Applications
    I'm trying to get a common element from a group of arrays in Ruby. Normally, you can use the & operator to compare two arrays, which returns elements that are present or common in both arrays. This is all good, except when you're trying to get common elements from more than two arrays. However, I want to get common elements from an unknown, dynamic number of arrays, which are stored in a hash. I had to resort to using the eval() method in ruby, which executes a string as actual code. Here's the function I wrote: def get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(hash) # get an array of common elements contained in a hash of arrays, for every array in the hash. # ["1","2","3"] & ["2","4","5"] & ["2","5","6"] # => ["2"] # eval("[\"1\",\"2\",\"3\"] & [\"2\",\"4\",\"5\"] & [\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]") # => ["2"] eval_string_array = Array.new # an array to store strings of Arrays, ie: "[\"2\",\"5\",\"6\"]", which we will join with & to get all common elements hash.each do |key, array| eval_string_array << array.inspect end eval_string = eval_string_array.join(" & ") # create eval string delimited with a & so we can get common values return eval(eval_string) end example_hash = {:item_0 => ["1","2","3"], :item_1 => ["2","4","5"], :item_2 => ["2","5","6"] } puts get_common_elements_for_hash_of_arrays(example_hash) # => 2 This works and is great, but I'm wondering...eval, really? Is this the best way to do it? Are there even any other ways to accomplish this(besides a recursive function, of course). If anyone has any suggestions, I'm all ears. Otherwise, Feel free to use this code if you need to grab a common item or element from a group or hash of arrays, this code can also easily be adapted to search an array of arrays.

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  • VMware vSphere Hypervisor 5 with Intel SPL 5000 in Raid 0 no boot from DVD?

    - by Richard
    I hope this is the correct StackExchange, since I am only using StackOverflow for Web development, but need some help with my server configuration. I would like to install VMware vSphere Hypervisor 5 on my server here at home and run a view machines on it such as Windows Server 2008 and Red Hat. I used to have either OpenSuse or Windows Server 2008 installed but I would like to get into VMWare Hypervisor. My hardware configuration: - Intel S5000PSL with bios version S5000.86B.10.60.0091 build date 10/09/2008 as of read out of bios - E5420 @ 2.5GHz Intel Xeon CPU The Intel Virtualization Technology is enabled in the BIOS - DVD DH20A4P DVD Writer - 8GB ECC Ram I have configured a RAID 0 on my 2 WD 2TB SATA drives I have burned the Hypervisor 5 on an empty DVD and it is bootable, I tested it on my client PC. The main problem here is basically, that I cannot boot the DVD on my server. I have set the Boot Option to the DVD drive. I have booted from the BIOS straight in the DVD drive and it does not work. I do not see any error messages. The only thing I see are the PXE error messages when it tries booting from the network and other devices, obviously without any result. Does anybody know why I cannot boot the DVD? What could cause the problem? I have sucessfully installed Windows Server 2008 via original DVD about 1 year ago, so the DVD drive can read and does work. The DVD drive is available in the BIOS and I have checked all cables and none of them is loose in any way. I even see the light flashing but it does not want to boot from the DVD. I am looking forward to suggestions and things that I should check. Thank you very much

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  • Apache2 server does not start cannot pen shared object file

    - by sid__
    I am working with Apache and Passenger for a Rails project. And a during a restart I got the following error Cannot load /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so into server: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory However there is no change in the apache configuration file. I have attached the snippet from the conf file 287 LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so 288 PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11 289 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby1.8 I am also unable to locate the shared object file in the location pointed to by the server though I am not really sure how the .so file is works (created/destroyed) I would also appreciate it if someone could explain to me what exactly has happened. I understand the shared object file is mission, what could be the reason it got deleted.

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