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• ASP.NET control in one content area needs to reference a control in another content area

  - by harrije

  I have a master page that divides the main content into two areas. There are two asp:ContentPlaceHolder controls in the body section of the master page with IDs cphMain and cphSideBar respectively. One of the corresponding content pages has a control in cphMain that needs to refer to a control in cphSideBar. Specifically, a SqlDataSource in cphMain references a TextBox in cphSideBar to use as a parameter in the select command. When the content page loads the following run-time error occurs: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ControlParameter.Evaluate(HttpContext context, Control control) +1753150 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Parameter.UpdateValue(HttpContext context, Control control) +47 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ParameterCollection.UpdateValues(HttpContext context, Control control) +114 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSource.LoadCompleteEventHandler(Object sender, EventArgs e) +43 System.EventHandler.Invoke(Object sender, EventArgs e) +0 System.Web.UI.Page.OnLoadComplete(EventArgs e) +8698566 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +735 I kinda know what the problem is... ASP.NET does not like the fact that the SqlDataSource and TextBox are in different asp:Content controls within the content page. As a workaround, I have another TextBox in cphMain with the SqlDataSource which has Visible=False. Then in the Page_Load() event handler the contents of the TextBox in cphSideBar is copied into the contents of the non-visible TextBox in cphMain. I get the results I want with the work around I've come up with, but it seems like such a hack. I was wondering if there is a better solution I'm missing. Please advise.

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• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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• Spring aop multiple pointcuts & advice but only the last one is working

  - by Jarle Hansen

  I have created two Spring AOP pointcuts that are completely separate and will be woven in for different parts of the system. The pointcuts are used in two different around advices, these around-advices will point to the same Java method. How the xml-file looks: <aop:config> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(......)" id="pointcutOne" /> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(.....)" id="pointcurTwo" /> <aop:aspect id="..." ref="springBean"> <aop:around pointcut-ref="pointcutOne" method="commonMethod" /> <aop:aroung pointcut-ref="pointcutTwo" method="commonMethod" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> The problem is that only the last pointcut works (if I change the order "pointcutOne" works because it is last). I have gotten it to work by creating one big pointcut, but I would like to have them separate. Any suggestions to why only one of the pointcuts works at a time?

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• SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

  - by Adam Kane

  In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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• Postgre database ignoring created index ?!

  - by drasto

  I have an Postgre database and a table called my_table. There are 4 columns in that table (id, column1, column2, column3). The id column is primary key, there are no other constrains or indexes on columns. The table has about 200000 rows. I want to print out all rows which has value of column column2 equal(case insensitive) to 'value12'. I use this: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12') here is the execution plan for this statement(result of set enable_seqscan=on; EXPLAIN SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12')): Seq Scan on my_table (cost=0.00..4676.00 rows=10000 width=55) Filter: ((column2)::text = 'value12'::text) I consider this to be to slow so I create an index on column column2 for better prerformance of searches: CREATE INDEX my_index ON my_table (lower(column2)) Now I ran the same select: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12') and I expect it to be much faster because it can use index. However it is not faster, it is as slow as before. So I check the execution plan and it is the same as before(see above). So it still uses sequential scen and it ignores the index! Where is the problem ?

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• JDBC transaction dead-lock solution required?

  - by user49767

  It's a scenario described my friend and challenged to find solution. He is using Oracle database and JDBC connection with read committed as transaction isolation level. In one of the transaction, he updates a record and executes selects statement and commits the transaction. when everything happening within single thread, things are fine. But when multiple requests are handled, dead-lock happens. Thread-A updates a record. Thread B updates another record. Thread-A issues select statement and waits for Thread-B's transaction to complete the commit operation. Thread-B issues select statement and waits for Thread-A's transaction to complete the commit operation. Now above causes dead-lock. Since they use command pattern, the base framework allows to issue commit only once (at the end of all the db operation), so they are unable to issue commit immediately after select statement. My argument was Thread-A supposed to select all the records which are committed and hence should not be issue. But he said that Thread-A will surely wait till Thread-B commits the record. is that true? What are all the ways, to avoid the above issue? is it possible to change isolation-level? (without changing underlying java framework) Little information about base framework, it is something similar to Struts action, their each and every request handled by one action, transaction begins before execution and commits after execution.

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• Problems with objectatasource,giving attributes like delete insert and update

  - by kamal

  After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

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• Recursive problem...

  - by Chronos

  Guys, I'm new to java and multithreading..... and I have a following problem: I have two classes running in two different threads. Class A and Class B. Class A has the method "onNewEvent()". Once that method is invoked, it will ask class B to do some work. As soon as B finishes the work it invokes onJobDone() method of the class A. Now... here comes the problem... what I want is to create new job within onJobDone() method and to send it again to B. here is what I do (pseudo code) ... in the sequence of execution A.onNewEvent(){ //create job //ask B to do it B.do() } B.do{ // Do some stuff A.jobDone() } A.onJobDOne(){ B.do() //doItAgain // print message "Thank you for doing it" } The problem is... that message "Thank you for doing it" never gets printed... in fact, when onJobDone() method is invoked, it invokes B.do()... because B.do() is very fast, it invokes onJobDone() immediatly... so execution flow never comes to PRINT MESSAGE part of code... I suppose this is one of the nasty multithreading problems.... any help would be appreciated.

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• Maven POM: how to insist property is not overridden

  - by Joe Thomas

  I have a parent POM that uses a gmaven script to do some stuff: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.gmaven</groupId> <artifactId>gmaven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.4</version> <configuration combine.children="override"> <providerSelection>2.0</providerSelection> <scriptPath>${basedir}/build/groovy</scriptPath> </configuration> <executions> <execution> <id>groovy-properties-script</id> <phase>validate</phase> <goals> <goal>execute</goal> </goals> <configuration> <source>computeProperties.groovy</source> </configuration> </execution> <!-- ... --> All of the children are supposed to run this script as well, but they try to resolve the scriptpath based on their OWN basedir. Usually this is exactly what you want with properties, but here it doesn't work, and I can't figure out any way around it.

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• Arduino variable going blank after the first pass

  - by user541597

  I have an Arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y) { int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6") { if (hour > 17) { hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 18) { //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12") { if (hour > 11) { hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12) { hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24") { hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } The sketch starts for example at 1:00am. timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet is equal to the system time. My loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime) { timet = convert(timet) } Whenever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I get the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert, however every time after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop. I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor. This works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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• Using WIndows PowerShell 1.0 or 2.0 to evaluate performance of executable files.

  - by Andry

  Hello! I am writing a simple script on Windows PowerShell in order to evaluate performance of executable files. The important hypothesisi is the following: I have an executable file, it can be an application written in any possible language (.net and not, Viual-Prolog, C++, C, everything that can be compiled as an .exe file). I want to profile it getting execution times. I did this: Function Time-It { Param ([string]$ProgramPath, [string]$Arguments) $Watch = New-Object System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch $NsecPerTick = (1000 * 1000 * 1000) / [System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch]::Frequency Write-Output "Stopwatch created! NSecPerTick = $NsecPerTick" $Watch.Start() # Starts the timer [System.Diagnostics.Process]::Start($ProgramPath, $Arguments) $Watch.Stop() # Stops the timer # Collectiong timings $Ticks = $Watch.ElapsedTicks $NSecs = $Watch.ElapsedTicks * $NsecPerTick Write-Output "Program executed: time is: $Nsecs ns ($Ticks ticks)" } This function uses stopwatch. Well, the functoin accepts a program path, the stopwatch is started, the program run and the stopwatch then stopped. Problem: the System.Diagnostics.Process.Start is asynchronous and the next instruction (watch stopped) is not executed when the application finishes. A new process is created... I need to stop the timer once the program ends. I thought about the Process class, thicking it held some info regarding the execution times... not lucky... How to solve this?

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• Use of RegularExpressionValidator in MS .Net Framework

  - by Lawk Salih

  Hi- I am trying to use the RegularExpressionValidator Control in Visual Studio to validate a textbox for email address expressions. Here's my code (very basic) Email:&nbsp; <input id="Text1" type="text" /><br /> <br /> <input id="Validate" type="button" value="Validate" runat="server" /><br /> <br /> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="RegularExpressionValidator1" runat="server" ErrorMessage="RegularExpressionValidator" ControlToValidate="Validate" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*"></asp:RegularExpressionValidator> Now, when I set controlToValidate to Validate, I get the following error message: Server Error in '/' Application. Control 'Validate' referenced by the ControlToValidate property of 'RegularExpressionValidator1' cannot be validated. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: Control 'Validate' referenced by the ControlToValidate property of 'RegularExpressionValidator1' cannot be validated. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [HttpException (0x80004005): Control 'Validate' referenced by the ControlToValidate property of 'RegularExpressionValidator1' cannot be validated.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.CheckControlValidationProperty(String name, String propertyName) +8734357 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.ControlPropertiesValid() +40 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.get_PropertiesValid() +21 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +80 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3607; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I have tried the same mechanism before and have worked; however, this time I am on a new machine, WinXP Pro running IIS v5.1. Any direction would be appreciated.

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• How to embed revision information using mercurial and maven (and svn)

  - by Zwei Steinen

  Our project had a nice hack (although I'm guessing there are better ways to do it) to embed revision information into the artifacts (jar etc.) when we used svn. Now we have migrated to mercurial, and we want to have a similar thing, but before I start working on a similar hack with mercurial, I wanted to know if there are better ways to do this. Thanks for your answers! <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>process-classes</phase> <id>svninfo</id> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svn</executable> <arguments> <argument>info</argument> <argument>../</argument> <argument>></argument> <argument>target/some-project/META-INF/svninfo.txt</argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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• IIS doesn't send two responses to the same client at the same time (only for ASP)

  - by dr. evil

  I've got 2 ASP pages. I do a request to the first page from Firefox (which takes 30 seconds to process on server-side), and during the execution of 30 seconds I do another request from Firefox to the second page (takes less than 1 second in server-side), but it does come after 31 second. Because it waits first requests to finish. When I request to the first page from Firefox and then request the second page from IE it's just instant. So basically ASP - IIS 6 somehow limiting every client to one request (long processing request) at a time. I need to get around this problem in my .NET client application. This is tested in 3 different systems. If you want to test you can try the ASP scripts at the end. This behaviour is same in a long SQL execution or just in a time consuming ASP operation. Note: It's not about HTTP Keep Alive It's not about persistent connection limit (we tried to increase this in firefox and in .NET with Net.ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit) It's not about User Agent This doesn't happen in ASP.NET so I assume it's something to the with ASP.dll I'm trying to solve this on the client not the server. I don't have direct control over the server it's a 3rd party solution. Is there any way to get around this? Sample ASP Code: First ASP: <% Set cnn = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Connection") cnn.Open "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=master;User Id=sa;Password=;" cnn.Execute("WAITFOR DELAY '0:0:30'") cnn.Close %> Second ASP: <% Response.Write "bla bla" %>

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• Connect to Facebook with Javascript Client Library using Adobe AIR

  - by Chuck Hriczko

  I'm having an issue connecting to Facebook through the Javascript Client Library in Adobe AIR. It works fine in the browser but in Adobe AIR it seems to not be able to find the Facebook functions. Here is some code I copied from the Facebook website: (Oh and I have the xd_receiver.htm file in the correct path too) <textarea style="width: 1000px; height: 300px;" id="_traceTextBox"> </textarea> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> // var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // require user to login api.requireLogin(function(exception){ FB.FBDebug.logLevel=1; FB.FBDebug.dump("Current user id is " + api.get_session().uid); // Get friends list //5-14-09: this code below is broken, correct code follows //api.friends_get(null, function(result){ // Debug.dump(result, 'friendsResult from non-batch execution '); // }); api.friends_get(new Array(), function(result, exception){ FB.FBDebug.dump(result, 'friendsResult from non-batch execution '); }); }); }); //]]> </script>

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• Is there a way to control how pytest-xdist runs tests in parallel?

  - by superselector

  I have the following directory layout: runner.py lib/ tests/ testsuite1/ testsuite1.py testsuite2/ testsuite2.py testsuite3/ testsuite3.py testsuite4/ testsuite4.py The format of testsuite*.py modules is as follows: import pytest class testsomething: def setup_class(self): ''' do some setup ''' # Do some setup stuff here def teardown_class(self): '''' do some teardown''' # Do some teardown stuff here def test1(self): # Do some test1 related stuff def test2(self): # Do some test2 related stuff .... .... .... def test40(self): # Do some test40 related stuff if __name__=='__main()__' pytest.main(args=[os.path.abspath(__file__)]) The problem I have is that I would like to execute the 'testsuites' in parallel i.e. I want testsuite1, testsuite2, testsuite3 and testsuite4 to start execution in parallel but individual tests within the testsuites need to be executed serially. When I use the 'xdist' plugin from py.test and kick off the tests using 'py.test -n 4', py.test is gathering all the tests and randomly load balancing the tests among 4 workers. This leads to the 'setup_class' method to be executed every time of each test within a 'testsuitex.py' module (which defeats my purpose. I want setup_class to be executed only once per class and tests executed serially there after). Essentially what I want the execution to look like is: worker1: executes all tests in testsuite1.py serially worker2: executes all tests in testsuite2.py serially worker3: executes all tests in testsuite3.py serially worker4: executes all tests in testsuite4.py serially while worker1, worker2, worker3 and worker4 are all executed in parallel. Is there a way to achieve this in 'pytest-xidst' framework? The only option that I can think of is to kick off different processes to execute each test suite individually within runner.py: def test_execute_func(testsuite_path): subprocess.process('py.test %s' % testsuite_path) if __name__=='__main__': #Gather all the testsuite names for each testsuite: multiprocessing.Process(test_execute_func,(testsuite_path,))

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• How do I fix a "Request format is unrecognized for URL..." error in a web service running in IIS?

  - by Hary

  I am get the following error while running web service in IIS: Server Error in '/Inbox Sevice' Application. Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetMailsInfo'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetMailsInfo'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Request format is unrecognized for URL unexpectedly ending in '/GetMailsInfo'.] System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandlerFactory.CoreGetHandler(Type type, HttpContext context, HttpRequest request, HttpResponse response) +490982 System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandlerFactory.GetHandler(HttpContext context, String verb, String url, String filePath) +104 System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory.GetHandler(HttpContext context, String requestType, String url, String pathTranslated) +127 System.Web.HttpApplication.MapHttpHandler(HttpContext context, String requestType, VirtualPath path, String pathTranslated, Boolean useAppConfig) +175 System.Web.MapHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +120 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +155 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.42; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.42 Does anyone know why I am seeing this error and if there is any way to fix it?

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• Maven + AspectJ - all steps to configure it

  - by Alice

  I have a problem with applying aspects to my maven project. Probably I am missing something, so I've made a list of steps. Could you please check if it is correct? Let say in projectA is an aspect class and in projectB classes, which should be changed by aspects. Create maven project ProjectA with AspectJ class add Aspectj plugin and dependency Add ProjectA as a dependency to projectB pom.xml Add to projectB pom.xml plugin " <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>aspectj-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.4</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>compile</goal> <goal>test-compile</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <source>${maven.compiler.source}</source> <target>${maven.compiler.target}</target> <aspectLibraries> <aspectLibrary> <groupId>ProjectA</groupId> <artifactId>ProjectA</artifactId> </aspectLibrary> </aspectLibraries> </configuration> </plugin> Add aspectj dependency After all these steps my problem is, that during compilation I get: [WARNING] advice defined in AspectE has not been applied [Xlint:adviceDidNotMatch] And then when I run my program: Exception in thread "FeatureExcutionThread" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: AspectE

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• How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

  - by John Canady

  I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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• Cost of logic in a query

  - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner

  I have a query that looks something like this: select xmlelement("rootNode", (case when XH.ID is not null then xmlelement("xhID", XH.ID) else xmlelement("xhID", xmlattributes('true' AS "xsi:nil"), XH.ID) end), (case when XH.SER_NUM is not null then xmlelement("serialNumber", XH.SER_NUM) else xmlelement("serialNumber", xmlattributes('true' AS "xsi:nil"), XH.SER_NUM) end), /*repeat this pattern for many more columns from the same table...*/ FROM XH WHERE XH.ID = 'SOMETHINGOROTHER' It's ugly and I don't like it, and it is also the slowest executing query (there are others of similar form, but much smaller and they aren't causing any major problems - yet). Maintenance is relatively easy as this is mostly a generated query, but my concern now is for performance. I am wondering how much of an overhead there is for all of these case expressions. To see if there was any difference, I wrote another version of this query as: select xmlelement("rootNode", xmlforest(XH.ID, XH.SER_NUM,... (I know that this query does not produce exactly the same, thing, my plan was to move the logic to PL/SQL or XSL) I tried to get execution plans for both versions, but they are the same. I'm guessing that the logic does not get factored into the execution plan. My gut tells me the second version should execute faster, but I'd like some way to prove that (other than writing a PL/SQL test function with timing statements before and after the query and running that code over and over again to get a test sample). Is it possible to get a good idea of how much the case-when will cost? Also, I could write the case-when using the decode function instead. Would that perform better (than case-statements)?

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• Arduino variable going blank after first pass.

  - by user541597

  I have an arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y){ int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6"){ if (hour > 17){ hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); }else if (hour < 18){ //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12"){ if (hour > 11){ hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12){ hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24"){ hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } sketch starts for example at 1:00am timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet == system time my loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime){ timet = convert(timet) } From this now when ever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I am getting the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert however everytime after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor, this works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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• Invoking different methods on threads

  - by Kraken

  I have a main process main. It creates 10 threads (say) and then what i want to do is the following: while(required){ Thread t= new Thread(new ClassImplementingRunnable()); t.start(); counter++; } Now i have the list of these threads, and for each thread i want to do a set of process, same for all, hence i put that implementation in the run method of ClassImplementingRunnable. Now after the threads have done their execution, i wan to wait for all of them to stop, and then evoke them again, but this time i want to do them serially not in parallel. for this I join each thread, to wait for them to finish execution but after that i am not sure how to evoke them again and run that piece of code serially. Can i do something like for(each thread){ t.reevoke(); //how can i do that. t.doThis(); // Also where does `dothis()` go, given that my ClassImplementingRunnable is an inner class. } Also, i want to use the same thread, i.e. i want the to continue from where they left off, but in a serial manner. I am not sure how to go about the last piece of pseudo code. Kindly help. Working with with java.

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• maven ant echoproperties task

  - by user373201

  I am new to maven. I have written build scripts using ant. I am trying to display all the evn properties, user defined properties, system properties etc. in maven. In ant i could do the following . I tried to do the same with maven with the maven-antrun-plugin But get the following error. Embedded error: Could not create task or type of type: echoproperties. Ant could not find the task or a class this task relies upon. How can i see all properties in maven with or without using echoproperties. This is my configuration in maven <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <version>${maven.plugin.antrun.version}</version> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> <configuration> <tasks> <echo>Displaying value of properties</echo> <echo>[org.junit.version] ${org.junit.version}</echo> <echoproperties prefix="org" /> </tasks> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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• How to configure an index.htm file in IIS?

  - by salvationishere

  I am running IIS 6.0 on an XP OS using VS 2008 and SQL Server 2008 (Full install). I developed two web apps. Both of these I can run from IIS by setting them to the default website. However, now I tried adding an index.htm file. Real simple; all it has is two hyperlinks to these web apps. But now only the first web app works. The first web app is pure VS. The second web app modifies an Adventureworks database table. But now when I click the hyperlink for the second web app, it gives me the error below. However this error doesn't make sense to me cause I have the two web apps configured as two virtual directories beneath C:\inetpub\ and the index.htm file is also beneath C:\inetpub. And the default website is set to home directory C:\inetpub\ with Document index.htm on top. Also, why does the first web app work and not the second now? Server Error in '/AddFileToSQL' Application. The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below.

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• WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

  - by d3j4vu

  I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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