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  • IStatelessSession insert object with many-to-one

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got common mapping <class name="NotSyncPrice, Portal.Core" table='Not_sync_price'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <many-to-one name="City" class="Clients.Core.Domains.City, Clients.Core" column="city_id" cascade="none"></many-to-one> <!--<property name="City"> <column name="city_id"/> </property>--> I want to use IStatelessSession for batch insert. But when i set city object to NotSyncPrice object and call IStatelessSession I've got strange exception: NHibernate.Impl.StatelessSessionImpl.get_Timestamp() When its null or int all is ok. I try use real && proxy city object. But no result. What's wrong:( Please help

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  • Need an Android Devloper with access to a Motorola Droid of Nexus One (Android 2.1)

    - by Rob Kent
    Apologies if this is the wrong place to ask this. I have an Android app on the market that has a reported problem on Droid and Nexus One (both with Android 2.1). I don't have access to the handset and cannot find anyone with one where I live. The problem I'm experiencing is partially explained at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2700983/problem-saving-file-on-motorola-droid-android-2-1. If you are an Android developer with either of those handsets, I'm happy to pay a reasonable fee if you'll debug the app for me. I'll send you the source. Please email me at [email protected]

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  • App only spawns one thread

    - by tipu
    I have what I thought was a thread-friendly app, and after doing some output I've concluded that of the 15 threads I am attempting to run, only one does. I have if __name__ == "__main__": fhf = FileHandlerFactory() tweet_manager = TweetManager("C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/My Documents/My Dropbox/workspace/trie/Tweet Search Engine/data/partitioned_raw_tweets/raw_tweets.txt.001") start = time.time() for i in range(15): Indexer(tweet_manager, fhf).start() Then in my thread-entry point, I do def run(self): print(threading.current_thread()) self.index() That results in this: <Indexer(Thread-3, started 1168)> So of 15 threads that I thought were running, I'm only running one. Any idea as to why? Edit: code

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  • Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

    - by user210119
    I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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  • rails update whole index of a model with one click

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a store model, this will handle my leaflet and my shoppingcart for my shop. now i d´like to show all items added from an user to his leaflet in the index of store. in the store an user can change the quantity of the choosen items. and now i want to save that the changes of the different quantities in the database with one click on a button "update store". so how could i implement an update over the whole index with one click? i´d like to do this with ajax and most dynamically. somebody has an idea? i render all items into a form so far, but now i have the problem, when i submit this form only the last quantity and item id are included in the params. further i pushed every quantity into an array and i want to submit this also as a param. but i could not. please give me some tips, will be very fine :) mattherick

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  • Redirects in RoR: Which one to use?

    - by scrr
    Hello, we are making a website that takes a generated incoming link and forwards the user who is clicking on it to another website while saving a record of the action in our DB. I guess it's basically what ad-services like AdSense do. However, what is the best way to redirect the user? I think html-meta-tag-redirects are out of question. So what other options are there? head :moved_permanently, :location => "http://www.domain.com/" This one is a 301-redirect. The next one is a 302: redirect_to "http://www.domain.com" Are there any others? And which is best to use for our case? The links are highly-dynamic and change all the time. We want to make sure we don't violate any existing standards and of course we don't want search-engines to tag us as spammers (which we are not, btw). Thanks!

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  • Send Keyboard Events from one Form to another Form

    - by thalm
    Hello, my question is quite simple: Our C# application has one MainForm with a menu and several keyboard shortcuts associated with the menu entries. Now we need to trigger the menu entries from some child forms too. But since the MainForm is inactive when one of the child forms is active, the shortcuts do not work. Is there a simple way to propagate all keyboard events from the child form to the 'Owner' form? Or just to another form in general? Ah, and we cannot use some low level windows stuff, because we need to run the application on Mono/Linux too.

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  • Turning off ASP.Net WebForms authentication for one sub-directory

    - by Keith
    I have a large enterprise application containing both WebForms and MVC pages. It has existing authentication and authorisation settings that I don't want to change. The WebForms authentication is configured in the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms blah... blah... blah /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Fairly standard so far. I have a REST service that is part of this big application and I want to use HTTP authentication instead for this one service. So, when a user attempts to get JSON data from the REST service it returns an HTTP 401 status and a WWW-Authenticate header. If they respond with a correctly formed HTTP Authorization response it lets them in. The problem is that WebForms overrides this at a low level - if you return 401 (Unauthorised) it overrides that with a 302 (redirection to login page). That's fine in the browser but useless for a REST service. I want to turn off the authentication setting in the web.config: <location path="rest"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None" /> <authorization><allow users="?" /></authorization> </system.web> </location> The authorisation bit works fine, but when I try to change the authentication I get an exception: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. I'm configuring this at application level though - it's in the root web.config How do I override the authentication so that all of the rest of the site uses WebForms authentication and this one directory uses none? This is similar to another question: 401 response code for json requests with ASP.NET MVC, but I'm not looking for the same solution - I don't want to just remove the WebForms authentication and add new custom code globally, there's far to much risk and work involved. I want to change just the one directory in configuration.

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  • Muliple Foreground Colors in Powershell in One Command.

    - by Mark Tomlin
    I want to output many different foreground colors with one statement. PS C:\> Write-Host "Red" -ForegroundColor Red Red This output is red. PS C:\> Write-Host "Blue" -ForegroundColor Blue Blue This output is blue. PS C:\> Write-Host "Red", "Blue" -ForegroundColor Red, Blue Red Blue This output is magenta, but I want the color to be Red for the word red, and blue for the word blue via the one command. How can I do that?

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  • (My)SQL performance: updating one field vs many unneccesary fields

    - by changokun
    i'm processing a form that has a lot of fields for a user who is editing an existing record. the user may have only changed one field, and i would typically do an update query that sets the values of all the fields, even though most of them don't change. i could do some sort of tracking to see which fields have actually changed, and only update the few that did. is there a performance difference between updating all fields in a record vs only the one that changed? are there other reasons to go with either method? the shotgun method is pretty easy...

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  • Select the first row in a join of two tables in one statement

    - by Oscar Cabrero
    hi i need to select only the first row from a query that joins tables A and B, on table B exist multiple records with same name. there are not identifiers in any of the two tables. i cannt change the scheme either because i do not own the DB TABLE A NAME TABLE B NAME DATA1 DATA2 Select Distinct A.NAME,B.DATA1,B.DATA2 From A Inner Join B on A.NAME = B.NAME this gives me NAME DATA1 DATA2 sameName 1 2 sameName 1 3 otherName 5 7 otherName 8 9 but i need to retrieve only one row per name NAME DATA1 DATA2 sameName 1 2 otherName 5 7 i was able to do this by adding the result into a temp table with a identity column and the select the Min Id per name. the problem here is that i require to do this in one single statement. this is a DB2 database thanks

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  • Mapping one to one foreign key relationships in Entity Framework 4.0?

    - by John K.
    Hello all, I'm sure I'm missing something very simple, but let's say I have two entities, Employee and EmployeeType. Employee type would contain values like 'Full time', 'Contractor', 'Intern', etc. An Employee entity would contain one, and only one EmployeeType value. So I am designing a new .edmx model using the Model-First approach and generating my actual sql server data schema from the model. I want to add an integer type foreign key id into my Employee entity, EmployeeTypeId, which will map to the primary key of the EmployeeType entity. So I've gone ahead and done that in my Employee entity. Where I'm stuck is how, though the Entity Framework designer, to enforce the 1:1 referential constraint on that EmployeeTypeId property? Or does the EF handle that automatically behind the scenes? thanks in advance, John

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  • Show only one validation error-message using replaceWith

    - by timkl
    I am currently working with the jQuery validation plugin, and I want to show only one error-message before the form itself. Right now the validation shows all the error-messages on top of each others as they stack up, as you can see in my live example: http://timkjaerlange.com/foobar/stack-stuff/validate-test.html This is my jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $("form").validate({ rules: { // bunch of rules here, left out to keep it simple }, messages: { // messages goes here }, errorElement: 'div', errorClass: 'error', errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.insertBefore('form'); // this is what I've got $('div').replaceWith(error); // trying to replace the prev error } }); }); Anybody know how to this? Is this the best way to show only one error-message? Any help is highly appreciated.

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  • CSS Make one row the width of another

    - by gav
    I'm sure this is a fairly common problem but I'm new to CSS so I'm not sure how it's done. I tried searching for the issue but sometimes it's tricky to get the right keywords. I have a table the width of which I want to be constrained by a specific row. My table css is as follows; table { border: 1px solid #ccc; width: auto; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } I have one row which contains cells for which I want the width to autofit and two rows of prose which currently force the table to take 100% width. How do I constrain the latter to have at most the autofit width of the first row? If tables aren't the way to go and this should be pure css and divs, how do you get one class to adopt the fixed but unknown width of another? Thanks, Gav

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  • Php is stripping one letter "g" from my rtrim function but not other chars

    - by Chase
    I'm trying to trim some youtube URLs that I am reading in from a playlist. The first 3 work fine and all their URLs either end in caps or numbers but this one that ends in a lower case g is getting trimmed one character shorter than the rest. for ($z=0; $z <= 3; $z++) { $ythref2 = rtrim($tubeArray["feed"]["entry"][$z]["link"][0]["href"], '&feature=youtube_gdata'); The URL is http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CuE88oVCVjg&feature=youtube_gdata .. and it should get trimmed down to .. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CuE88oVCVjg but instead it is coming out as http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CuE88oVCVj. I think it may be the ampersand symbol but I am not sure.

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  • Add entry to list and remove first one in Python

    - by wagglewax
    I have a list of about 40 entries. And I frequently want to append an item to the start of the list (with id 0) and want to delete the last entry (with id 40) of the list. how do i do this the best? like: (example with 5 entries) [0] = "herp" [1] = "derp" [2] = "blah" [3] = "what" [4] = "da..." after adding "wuggah" and deleting last it should be like: [0] = "wuggah" [1] = "herp" [2] = "derp" [3] = "blah" [4] = "what" or appending one and deleting first. And I don't want to end up manually moving them one after another all of the entries to the next id.

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  • Can't check more than one RadioButton across multiple items in a Treeview

    - by Mike Johnston
    I’m using a TreeView control to present a list of Questions. Using the Prism.DataTemplateSelector, I'm loading a View (.xaml file) that represents a single Question into each node in the TreeView. In the View for that question is a ListBox containing RadioButtons (one for each item in a Picklist object that the ListBox is bound to). The radio buttons work as expected for the question, but when I check a RadioButton on another node/question in the TreeView, the check for the button in the Question I was editing before disappears. In other words, I'm only able to check one RadioButton in the whole list of Questions/Items bound to the containing TreeView. How do I group the RadioButtons in the ListBox to the scope of the single question instead of all the questions in the TreeView.

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  • How do I add a one-to-one relationship in MYSQL?

    - by alex
    +-------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | pid | varchar(99) | YES | | NULL | | +-------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) +-------+---------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-------+---------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | pid | varchar(2000) | YES | | NULL | | | recid | varchar(2000) | YES | | NULL | | +-------+---------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) This is my table. pid is just the id of the user. "recid" is a recommended song for that user. I hope to have a list of pid's, and then recommended songs for each person. Of course, in my 2nd table, (pid, recid) would be unique key. How do I do a one-to-one query for this ?

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  • How can one put together multiple arrays into one string?

    - by Noor
    I'm having a hard time describing what I'm looking for. If we pretend that we're pulling an array (I've used the .split to get user input data) where each line represents a link. How can I then add an anchor tagg to that link that I'm pulling? I need to be able to put < a href=" + thearray + "anything< /a. The reason for this is that I'm dynamically creating a list. I think that if I create two variables, one with this part < a href=" one with the closing and then call some sort of function that puts those two and the pulled array in between them until the list is complete. Does this make any sense?

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  • Joining a one-to-many association with a many-to-many association in Rails 3

    - by Maz
    Hi all, I have a many-to-many association between a User class and a Table class. Additionally, i have a one-to-many association between the User and the Table (one User ultimately owns the table). I am trying to access all of the tables which the user may access (essintally joining both associations). Additionally, it would be nice to do this this with named_scope (now scope) Here's what I have so far: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation has_many :feedbacks has_many :tables has_many :user_table_permissions has_many :editableTables, :class_name => "Table", :through => :user_table_permissions def allTables editableTables.merge(tables) end end Thanks.

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  • How to send html form data from one form to multiple database tables

    - by user1701556
    I am able to send html form data to database using hibernate. I am using mySQL, Hibernate, Java 1.6, Spriong 3.0. But I would like to send that same data to multiple tables in the database. My issue is that I want to use only one html form not multiple html form. I have these tables: name, address, email, login, phone_num. From this one html form I want data to go to different tables depending on what the data is. I want to do it using Hibernate so that I am not manually taking form data and inserting it in the database. Please let me know if this is possible.

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