Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 9/278 | < Previous Page | 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >

• Android - Calling getJSONArray throwing JSONException with no stack trace

  - by Agathron

  Hi all, I'm currently working on an android app that pulls a list of forums from a JSON feed. I'm trying to parse the feed and immediately upon calling getJSONArray a JSON exception is being thrown with no stack trace. The JSON being returned is stored in an JSONObject jobj with the format as follows: { "Forum": [ {"ForumName":"CEC Employee Communications Forum","ForumId":"105"}, {"ForumName":"CEC External Stakeholder Relations Forum","ForumId":"109"}, {"ForumName":"See All...","ForumId":"0"} ] } However when running the following code, I get an immediate exception without a stack trace: JSONArray jarray = new JSONArray(); jarray = jobj.getJSONArray("Forum"); Running jobj.GetJSONArray("Forum").toString(); returns what looks to be a correct array of the format: [ {"ForumName":"CEC Employee Communications Forum","ForumId":"105"}, {"ForumName":"CEC External Stakeholder Relations Forum","ForumId":"109"}, {"ForumName":"See All...","ForumId":"0"} ] I also tried JSONArray jarray = new JSONArray(jobj.GetJSONArray("Forum").toString()); and had the exception thrown immediately. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• MVC - Calling Controller Methods

  - by JT703

  Hello, My application is following the MVC design pattern. The problem I keep running into is needing to call methods inside a Controller class from outside that Controller class (ex. A View class wants to call a Controller method, or a Manager class wants to call a Controller method). Is calling Controller methods in this way allowed in MVC? If it's allowed, what's the proper way to do it? According to the version of MVC that I am following (there seems to be so many different versions out there), the View knows of the Model, and the Controller knows of the View. Doing it this way, I can't access the controller. Here's the best site I've found and the one describing the version of MVC I'm following: http://leepoint.net/notes-java/GUI/structure/40mvc.html. The Main Program code block really shows how this works. Thanks for any answers.

  Read the article

• Calling one DAO from another DAO?

  - by es11

  Can this ever make sense? Say I need to fetch an object from the DB which has a relation to another object (represented by a foreign key in the DB, and by a composition in my domain object). If in my first DAO I fetch the data for object 1, then call the dao for object 2, and finally (from within the first DAO, call the setter in object 1 and give it the previously fetched object 2). I know I could do a join instead, but it just seems more logical to me to decouple the functionality (which is why I am skeptical about calling one dao from another). Or should I move some of the logic to the service layer? Thanks Update: I think I solved the problem with help from the answers: all I needed to do was add the following to my mapping of Object 1: <one-to-one name="Object2" fetch="join" class="com...Object2"></one-to-one> I didn't have to change anything else. Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• Calling WebService From Same Project

  - by Yehia A.Salam

  Hi, I'm trying to call an asp.net webservice from the same project it's in: [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.Synchronized)] public static void OnFileCreated(object source, FileSystemEventArgs e) { trackdata_analyse rWebAnalyse = new trackdata_analyse(); rWebAnalyse.Analyse(@"pending\" + e.Name, "YOUNIVATE"); } However i always get the following "HttpContext is not available. This class can only be used in the context of an ASP.NET request." when calling Server.MapPath from the webservice: [WebMethod] public int Analyse(string fileName, string PARSING_MODULE){ int nRecords; TrackSession rTrackSession = new TrackSession() ; string filePath = Server.MapPath(@"..\data\") + fileName; do i have to add the WebReference instead, though the webservice is in the same project? Thanks In Advance

  Read the article

• [Rails] Calling a method from a view using link_to_function

  - by Jeff

  Hello! I'm trying to have an image that when clicked associates the selected guideline to a project. I'm using link_to_function which somewhat behaves but I can not get the method I am calling in the link_to_function to redirect to another page. Is there a better way to do this? Below is a bit of my code. I can paste in additional parts if necessary: <% @guidelines.each do |guideline| %> <tr> <td align='center'><%= link_to_function image_tag("../../../images/icons/action_add.png"), add_guideline(guideline) %></td> <td><%=h guideline.title %></td> My GuidelinesController.helper method looks like this: def add_guideline(guideline) @project = Project.find(params[:project_id]) @project.guidelines << guideline @project.save redirect_to dashboard_path #doesn't work :( end

  Read the article

• Calling a method from within a django model save() override

  - by Jonathan

  I'm overriding a django model save() method. Within the override I'm calling another method of the same class and instance which calculates one of the instance's fields based on other fields of the same instance. class MyClass(models.Model): field1 = models.FloatField() field2 = models.FloatField() field3 = models.FloatField() def calculateField1(self) self.field1 = self.field2 + self.field3 def save(self, *args, **kwargs): self.calculateField1() super(MyClass, self).save(*args, **kwargs) The override method is called when I change the model in admin. Alas I've discovered that within calculateField1() field2 and field3 have the values of the instance from before I edited them in admin. If I enter the instance again in admin and save again, only then field1 receives the correct value as field2 and field3 are already updated. Is this the correct behavior on django's side? If yes, then how can I use the new values within calculateField1? I cannot implement the calculation within the save() as calculateField1() actually quite long and I need it to be called from elsewhere.

  Read the article

• Hold i ajax call in every minute calling section

  - by gowri

  i am calling ajax every second in page.. Here the server page returns randomly generated number,using this number(converted into seconds) i am triggering another function in ajax success .it works My problem suppose random number = 5 means trigger() function called after 5 seconds using setTimeout,but rember ajax call is triggering every 1 second so trigger function also called many time. i want to make ajax call wait untill trigger function execution.Which means i wanna pause that ajax call untill 5 seconds after that resume How can i do this ? My coding //this ajax is called every minute $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'serverpage', data: ({pid:1}), success: function(msg) { var array = msg.split('/'); if(array[0]==1){ setTimeout(function() { trigger(msg); },array[1]+'000'); } } }); //and my trigger function function trigger(value) { alert("i am triggered !"); } server response maybe 1/2 or 1/5 or 1/ 10 or 1/1 here 1/3(this is converted into seconds)

  Read the article

• set environment variables calling script file

  - by sandeep

  I have a requirement where I have to set environment variables calling a script file eg:set_env.sh. set_env.sh contains all the environment variables. export SCRIPT_DIR=/e/scripts/ ... when I call the set_env.sh from my code the variables are available in that file itself. They are not available in file where I have called the script. What should be done so that environment variables can be retained and can be used in file which calls set_env.sh. Thanks, Sandeep M.

  Read the article

• Is calling Process.Refresh() required for Process.HasFinished

  - by Rekreativc

  Hello I am interested if calling Process.Refresh() is mandatory when waiting for the process to terminate by checking Process.HasFinished property? I have a piece of code that works fine without the Process.Refresh() call, however I am curious weather this is a coincidence? I can see that a msdn example has the Process.Refresh() call... If its not necessary, and Process.HasExited is the only property I need, are there any advantages to making the call to Process.Refresh() ? If not, is there a reason it is in the msdn example? Thank you for your answers.

  Read the article

• Getting an empty response when calling CouchDB over ajax

  - by swilliams

  I'm new to CouchDB, so please bear with me. I have an instance of CouchDB running on a VM. I can access it just fine through the browser via futon or directly at: http://192.168.62.128:5984/articles/hot_dog Calling that URL in a browser returns the proper JSON. But, when I try to call that exact same URL via ajax, I get nothing: var ajaxUrl = 'http://192.168.62.128:5984/articles/hot_dog'; $.getJSON(ajaxUrl, null, function(data) { alert(data); }); Looking at the response header with Firebug shows me that the HTTP response was 200 and the content-length is the right size. Even the Etag matches with what is in CouchDB. But the response itself is empty! The URL is absolutely right; I've triple checked, and copy/pasted it directly (and besides it wouldn't give a 200 response if it weren't). I'm using jQuery 1.4.2, and CouchDB 0.8 What's going on?

  Read the article

• Calling Facebook API without authenticating user/"connecting"

  - by Andy

  Hi, I am working with facebook's API and I want to call the links.prevew method. http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Links.preview Is it possible to call this method without having my user authenticate or "connect"? For example, not all of my users have hooked up their facebook accounts to my website, but I still want to use this API method. I am getting the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught Exception: 453: A session key is required for calling this method thrown in /public_html/libs/facebook.php on line 413 But on the wiki it says that the method does not require a session key? If it is not possible to make API calls without such a key, is there anyway I can make calls on behalf of my account or my applications account (rather then a users account)? Any help is appreciated, thanks!

  Read the article

• C# ArrayList calling on a constructor class

  - by EvanRyan

  I'm aware that an ArrayList is probably not the way to go with this particular situation, but humor me and help me lose this headache. I have a constructor class like follows: class Peoples { public string LastName; public string FirstName; public Peoples(string lastName, string firstName) { LastName = lastName; FirstName = firstName; } } And I'm trying to build an ArrayList to build a collection by calling on this constructor. However, I can't seem to find a way to build the ArrayList properly when I use this constructor. I have figured it out with an Array, but not an ArrayList. I have been messing with this to try to build my ArrayList: ArrayList people = new ArrayList(); people[0] = new Peoples("Bar", "Foo"); people[1] = new Peoples("Quirk", "Baz"); people[2] = new Peopls("Get", "Gad"); My indexing is apparently out of range according to the exception I get.

  Read the article

• Calling methods within same Javwscript class [Prototype]

  - by eldeejay

  I've created a class in Javscript using the prototype Class.Create complete with the initialize function and a few other functions. However, in one of my functions I want to reference another function in the same class, but cannot seem to get the syntax correct. e.g. var sampleClass = Class.create({ initialize: function(){ //do the init work here }, functionA: function(){ //do some more stuff here } functionB: function(){ //Do some stuff functionA() } } I've tried calling functionA() , this.functionA() but nothing works I just get errors. I know how to call the functions externally when the class has been instantiated, but not reference a function from within the class itself. Thanks

  Read the article

• Stop VBA Evaluate from calling target function twice

  - by Abiel

  I am having trouble getting VBA's Evaluate() function to only execute once; it seems to always run twice. For instance, consider the trivial example below. If we run the RunEval() subroutine, it will call the EvalTest() function twice. This can be seen by the two different random numbers that get printed in the immediate window. The behavior would be the same if we were calling another subroutine with Evaluate instead of a function. Can someone explain how I can get Evaluate to execute the target function once instead of twice? Thank you. Sub RunEval() Evaluate "EvalTest()" End Sub Public Function EvalTest() Debug.Print Rnd() End Function

  Read the article

• Does MOSS 2007 workflows support calling external mehods ?

  - by Mina Samy

  Hi all I have a custom sharepoint workflow that I need to call an external method defined in a local service it always throws an exception System.InvalidOperationException: Could not find service of type 'ListItemCheckService.IListItemCheck' through the currently configured services. Consider adding the service to ExternalDataExchangeService. at System.Workflow.Activities.CallExternalMethodActivity.Execute(ActivityExecutionContext executionContext) at System.Workflow.ComponentModel.ActivityExecutor`1.Execute(T activity, ActivityExecutionContext executionContext) at System.Workflow.ComponentModel.ActivityExecutor`1.Execute(Activity activity, ActivityExecutionContext executionContext) at System.Workflow.ComponentModel.ActivityExecutorOperation.Run(IWorkflowCoreRuntime workflowCoreRuntime) at System.Workflow.Runtime.Scheduler.Run() the question is does the sharepoint workflow system support calling external methods from a local service ? thanks

  Read the article

• Calling methods within same JavaScript class [Prototype]

  - by eldeejay

  I've created a class in Javscript using the prototype Class.Create complete with the initialize function and a few other functions. However, in one of my functions I want to reference another function in the same class, but cannot seem to get the syntax correct. e.g. var sampleClass = Class.create({ initialize: function(){ //do the init work here }, functionA: function(){ //do some more stuff here } functionB: function(){ //Do some stuff functionA() } } I've tried calling functionA() , this.functionA() but nothing works I just get errors. I know how to call the functions externally when the class has been instantiated, but not reference a function from within the class itself. Thanks

  Read the article

• FORTRAN function returning an array causes a segfault (calling from C++)

  - by Dane Larsen

  Basically, here's my problem. I'm calling someone else's FORTRAN functions from my C++ code, and it's giving me headaches. Some code: function c_error_message() character(len = 255) :: c_error_message errmsg(1:9) = 'ERROR MSG' return end That's the FORTRAN function. My first question is: Is there anything in there that would cause a segfault? If not, then second: What does that return? A pointer? I'm trying to call it with the following C statement: char *e = c_error_message_(); That causes a segfault. c_error_message(); That too causes a segfault. I declared c_error_message_() earlier on with the following code: extern"C" { char* c_error_message_(); } Would declaring a function with a different return type than the actual return type cause a segfault? I'm at a loss. Thanks for any replies.

  Read the article

• Determine calling executable in Python

  - by Brian Rosner

  I am trying to find the best way of re-invoking a Python script within itself. Currently it is working like http://github.com/benoitc/gunicorn/blob/master/gunicorn/arbiter.py#L285. The START_CTX is created at http://github.com/benoitc/gunicorn/blob/master/gunicorn/arbiter.py#L82-86. The code is relying on sys.argv[0] as the "caller". However, this fails in cases where it is invoked with: python script.py ... This case does work: python ./script.py ... because the code uses os.chdir before running os.execlp. I did notice os.environ["_"], but I am not sure how reliable that would be. Another possible case is to check if sys.argv[0] is not on PATH and is not executable and use sys.executable when calling os.execlp. Any thoughts on a better approach solving this issue?

  Read the article

• Problem calling stored procedure with a fixed length binary parameter using Entity Framework

  - by Dave

  I have a problem calling stored procedures with a fixed length binary parameter using Entity Framework. The stored procedure ends up being called with 8000 bytes of data no matter what size byte array I use to call the function import. To give some example, this is the code I am using. byte[] cookie = new byte[32]; byte[] data = new byte[2]; entities.Insert("param1", "param2", cookie, data); The parameters are nvarchar(50), nvarchar(50), binary(32), varbinary(2000) When I run the code through SQL profiler, I get this result. exec [dbo].[Insert] @param1=N'param1',@param2=N'param2',@cookie=0x00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 [SNIP because of 16000 zeros] ,@data=0x0000 All parameters went through ok other than the binary(32) cookie. The varbinary(2000) seemed to work fine and the correct length was maintained. Is there a way to prevent the extra data being sent to SQL server? This seems like a big waste of network resource.

  Read the article

• Override .Net Resource file in Calling Application

  - by Blatfrig

  I have an asp.net 2.0 web application that is calling class library. A fairly common scenario to be sure. The class library is making use of a number of resource files and a ResourceManager object to set localised strings. This works absolutely fine in most circumstances based on the user's browser settings. However there are some circumstances under which I wish to overrride the resource string in the class library from within the web application. Is this possible? if so how?

  Read the article

• Find strong name signature without calling LoadAssembly

  - by Todd Kobus

  When reading a Windows PE file directly, I can't seem to find the strong name of a delay signed assembly. I can get to the CLR Header and read all the CLR header entries including the flags and the StrongNameSignature field. Unfortunately in a delay signed assembly the StrongNameSignature is zeroed out. Is the information in the MetaData directory specified within the CLR header? If so does anyone have an example of how to read this table? I am not interested in calling SN.exe or loading the assembly.

  Read the article

• C Programming: calling free() on error?

  - by kouei

  Hi all, This a follow up on my previous question. link here. My question is: Let's say I have the following code.. char* buf = (char*) malloc(1024); ... for(; i<20; i++) { if(read(fd, buf, 1024) == -1) { // read off a file and store in buffer perror("read failed"); return 1; } ... } free(buf); what i'm trying to get at is that - what if an error occurs at read()? does that mean my allocated memory never gets freed? If that's the case, how do I handle this? Should I be calling free() as part of error handling? Once again, I apologize for the bad English. ^^; Many thanks, K.

  Read the article

• Calling Stored Procedure from VB.net timeout error

  - by Jim

  When calling a stored procedure from vb.net is there a default SQL timeout time if no timeout is specified in the connection string? I am unsure if there is a CommandTimeout specified in the connection string but am going through all the possibilites. Example if no results after 30 seconds (or more) throw: `System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding.` SQL Profiler says that the script runs and ends in 30 seconds when the program timesout.. Tthe script runs without error in about 1 minute 45 seconds by itself in SQL server.

  Read the article

• Calling javascript function with arguments using JSNI

  - by jav_000

  I'm trying to integrate Mixpanel with GWT, but I have problems calling an event with a property and one value. My function to track an simple event (without values): public native void trackEvent(String eventName)/*-{ $wnd.mixpanel.track(eventName); }-*/; It works. But when I want to add some properties and values, it doesn't work properly: public native void trackComplexEvent(String eventName, String property, String value)/*-{ $wnd.mixpanel.track(eventName, {property:value}); }-*/; I have 2 problems with this: 1) Mixpanel says the property name is: "property"(yes, the name of the variable that I'm passing, not the value). 2) Mixpanel says the value is:undefined An example from mixpanel web is: mixpanel.track("Video Play", {"age": 13, "gender": "male"}); So, I guess the problem is I'm doing a wrong call or with wrong type of arguments.

  Read the article

• speed up calling lot of entities, and getting unique values, google app engine python

  - by user291071

  OK this is a 2 part question, I've seen and searched for several methods to get a list of unique values for a class and haven't been practically happy with any method so far. So anyone have a simple example code of getting unique values for instance for this code. Here is my super slow example. class LinkRating2(db.Model): user = db.StringProperty() link = db.StringProperty() rating2 = db.FloatProperty() def uniqueLinkGet(tabl): start = time.time() dic = {} query = tabl.all() for obj in query: dic[obj.link]=1 end = time.time() print end-start return dic My second question is calling for instance an iterator instead of fetch slower? Is there a faster method to do this code below? Especially if the number of elements called be larger than 1000? query = LinkRating2.all() link1 = 'some random string' a = query.filter('link = ', link1) adic ={} for itema in a: adic[itema.user]=itema.rating2

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >