Search Results

Search found 50847 results on 2034 pages for 'order accutane no without pres'.

Page 94/2034 | < Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >

  • CSS: a:link vs just a (without the :link part)

    - by Rob
    So we're required to use the following order for CSS anchor pseudo-classes a:link { color: red } a:visited { color: blue } a:hover { color: yellow } a:active { color: lime } But my question is why bother with the a:link part? Rather, is there any advantage to the above (other than perhaps clarity) over: a { color:red; } /* notice no :link part */ a:visited { color: blue; } etc.,etc.

    Read the article

  • Password Recovery without sending password via email

    - by Brian
    So, I've been playing with asp:PasswordRecovery and discovered I really don't like it, for several reasons: 1) Alice's password can be reset even without having access to Alice's email. A security question for password resets mitigates this, but does not really satisfy me. 2) Alice's new password is sent back to her in cleartext. I would rather send her a special link to my page (e.g. a page like example.com/recovery.aspx?P=lfaj0831uefjc), which would let her change her password. I imagine I could do this myself by creating some sort of table of expiring password recovery pages and sending those pages to users who asked for a reset. Somehow those pages could also change user passwords behind the scenes (e.g. by resetting them manually and then using the text of the new password to change the password, since a password cannot be changed without knowing the old one). I'm sure others have had this problem before and that kind of solution strikes me as a little hacky. Is there a better way to do this? An ideal solution does not violate encapsulation by accessing the database directly but instead uses the existing stored procedures within the database...though that may not be possible.

    Read the article

  • Using PHP substr() and strip_tags() while retaining formatting and without breaking HTML

    - by Peter
    I have various HTML strings to cut to 100 characters (of the stripped content, not the original) without stripping tags and without breaking HTML. Original HTML string (288 characters): $content = "<div>With a <span class='spanClass'>span over here</span> and a <div class='divClass'>nested div over <div class='nestedDivClass'>there</div> </div> and a lot of other nested <strong><em>texts</em> and tags in the air <span>everywhere</span>, it's a HTML taggy kind of day.</strong></div>"; When trimming to 100 characters HTML breaks and stripped content comes to about 40 characters: $content = substr($content, 0, 100)."..."; /* output: <div>With a <span class='spanClass'>span over here</span> and a <div class='divClass'>nested div ove... */ Stripping HTML gives the correct character count but obviously looses formatting: $content = substr(strip_tags($content)), 0, 100)."..."; /* output: With a span over here and a nested div over there and a lot of other nested texts and tags in the ai... */ Challenge: To output the character count of strip_tags while retaining HTML formatting and on closing the string finish any started tags: /* <div>With a <span class='spanClass'>span over here</span> and a <div class='divClass'>nested div over <div class='nestedDivClass'>there</div> </div> and a lot of other nested <strong><em>texts</em> and tags in the ai</strong></div>..."; Similar question (less strict on solution provided so far)

    Read the article

  • Recommendations on developing a WPF application without using MVVM or similar

    - by Metro Smurf
    We were building out the next version of an in-house thick-client application using WPF/Prism (Composite Application Library). As we were nearly done with the client our team was put under new management and shortly thereafter: We were then directed to drop the Prism framework to keep things simple. This includes not using any type of Inversion of Control. We were directed to build out the WPF application without using MVVM or similar; and more along the lines of a traditional WinForm application. The idea is that if a developer sees a control in Visual Studio’s designer view, then (s)he should be able to click on the control and see exactly what it's doing without having to traverse through a view-model (or similar). We have now been tasked with building out the WPF application using one primary Window, use a Frame Control to contain the content, and use a Ribbon outside of the frame for the menu items. Reason we were provided to use Frame Control: a. We will show a view in the Frame with a Page (not a user control) and then load the page in the Frame. b. When a new view is to be shown in the Frame, the current view (Page) will be closed/disposed and the new view (Page) will take its place in the Frame. c. When a developer looks at the Page in design view, (s)he will be able to click on any control and see exactly what is being done. Given the restrictions of 1 and 2 above, we’d like to present another method of building out the application that: Can be presented as an alternative to using the “Frame Methodology” (item 3 above) but still provides the same type of functionality. Does not use MVVM (see #1 and #2 above). Provided the direction we’ve been given, any suggestions as to an alternative we can present? I’d request that the responses be kept on the professional level and thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Android Camera without Preview

    - by eyurdakul
    I am writing an android 1.5 application which starts just after boot-up. This is a service and should take a picture without preview. This app will log the light density in some areas whatever. I was able to take a picture but the picture was black. After googling like crazy, i came across a bug thread about it. If you don't generate a preview, the image will be black since android camera needs preview to setup exposure and focus. I've created a surfaceview and listener but the onSurfaceCreated event never gets fired. I guess the reason is, the surface is not being created visually. I've also seen some examples of calling the camera statically with MediaStore.CAPTURE_OR_SOMETHING which takes a picture and saves in the desired folder with two lines of code but it doesn't take a picture too. Do i need to use ipc and bindservice to call this function or do you have any suggestion to achieve my goal (taking a picture without preview) and if so, would you give me a small piece of code as example?

    Read the article

  • Mark duplicates in MySql with php (without deleting)

    - by Adam
    So, I'm having some problems with a MySQL query (see other question), and decided to try a different approach. I have a database table with some duplicate rows, which I actually might need for future reference, so I don't want to remove. What I'm looking for is a way to display the data without those duplicates, but without removing them. I can't use a simple select query (as described in the other question). So what I need to do is write a code that does the following: 1. Go through my db Table. 2. Spot duplicates in the "ip" column. 3. Mark the first instance of each duplicate with "0" (in a column named "duplicate") and the rest with "1". This way I can later SELECT only the rows WHERE duplicate=0. NOTE: If your solution is related to the SELECT query, please read this other question first - there's a reason I'm not just using GROUP BY / DISTINCT. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Getting EXC_BAD_ACCESS without any helpful msg from NSZombieEnabled

    - by nefsu
    Hello guys. I'm a newbie to iphone development and I've been struggling with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS error I got a couple of days ago. I'm basically taking the Stanford iphone class independently and I am trying to pass an array of NSManagedObjects to a TableViewController that's supposed to display them. The application launches in the simulator and displays the data in the tableView but it immediately errors out with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I followed instructions here and other places on how to use NSZombieEnabled to identify prematurely released objects but this one comes without any helpful msgs even with NSZombieEnabled. My guess is it must be caused by something trying to access unassigned memory that wasn't released through release/autorelease. Or else it would have been picked up as zombie object like the other errors I have been able to fix. I'm not a c expert but does that mean something like that could happen if I were to declare an object and send it a message without ever instantiating it? I looked through my code to see if I had anything like that and I came up empty. I have the stack trace in the debugger for this but I'm not sure how to make use of it. I'm a little frustrated because I can't use breakpoints in the code to narrow down the problem any further since it seems to happen after the app has finished loading. I thought the app would just stay idle if there was no possible user interaction. Is it failing at the tail end of the load where I can't easy see it or is jut doing stuff in the background after it's done loading. And I would much appreciate any tips on how to read the stacktrace for this. Thanks for the help guys.

    Read the article

  • How to perform kCATransitionPush animation without any transparency / fade effects

    - by Anthony
    I'm trying to duplicate the "slide up from the bottom" animation that [UIViewController presentModalViewController:animated:] performs but without calling it because I don't want a modal view. The below core animation code comes very close but appears to be changing transparency values of the views during it. At the start of the animation you can partially see through the view sliding up. By the middle/end of the animation the view we are sliding over is fully transparent so we can see behind it. I'd like both to remain fully opaque during this animation. Any ideas on how to stop transparency changes in this code or to otherwise get the "slide up animation" I am looking for without requiring a modal view? UIViewController *nextViewController = [[UIViewController alloc] autorelease]; nextViewController.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; CATransition *animation = [CATransition animation]; animation.duration = 3.5; animation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; animation.type = kCATransitionPush; animation.subtype = kCATransitionFromTop; [self.navigationController pushViewController:nextViewController animated:NO]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:animation forKey:nil];

    Read the article

  • Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

    Read the article

  • Find max integer size that a floating point type can handle without loss of precision

    - by Checkers
    Double has range more than a 64-bit integer, but its precision is less dues to its representation (since double is 64-bit as well, it can't fit more actual values). So, when representing larger integers, you start to lose precision in the integer part. #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> #include <limits> template<typename T, typename TFloat> void maxint_to_double() { T i = std::numeric_limits<T>::max(); TFloat d = i; std::cout << std::fixed << i << std::endl << d << std::endl; } int main() { maxint_to_double<int, double>(); maxint_to_double<boost::intmax_t, double>(); maxint_to_double<int, float>(); return 0; } This prints: 2147483647 2147483647.000000 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775800.000000 2147483647 2147483648.000000 Note how max int can fit into a double without loss of precision and boost::intmax_t (64-bit in this case) cannot. float can't even hold an int. Now, the question: is there a way in C++ to check if the entire range of a given integer type can fit into a loating point type without loss of precision? Preferably, it would be a compile-time check that can be used in a static assertion, and would not involve enumerating the constants the compiler should know or can compute.

    Read the article

  • reading dbase file without standard .dbf extension.

    - by Nathan W
    I am trying to read a file which is just a dbase file but without the standard extension the file is something like: Test.Dat I am using this block of code to try and read the file: string ConnectionString = @"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=C:\Temp;Extended Properties=dBase III"; OleDbConnection dBaseConnection = new OleDbConnection(ConnectionString); dBaseConnection.Open(); OleDbDataAdapter oDataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Test", ConnectionString); DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); oDataAdapter.Fill(oDataSet);//I get the error right here... DataTable oDataTable = oDataSet.Tables[0]; foreach (DataRow dr in oDataTable.Rows) { Console.WriteLine(dr["Name"]); } Of course this crashes because it can't find the dbase file called test, but if I rename the file to Test.dbf it works fine. I can't really rename the file all the time because a third party application uses it as its file format. Does anyone know a way to read a dbase file without a standard extension in C#. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • cannot override a concrete member without a third member that's overridden by both

    - by huynhjl
    What does the following error message mean? cannot override a concrete member without a third member that's overridden by both (this rule is designed to prevent ``accidental overrides''); I was trying to do stackable trait modifications. It's a little bit after the fact since I already have a hierarchy in place and I'm trying to modify the behavior without having to rewrite a lot of code. I have a base class called AbstractProcessor that defines an abstract method sort of like this: class AbstractProcessor { def onPush(i:Info): Unit } I have a couple existing traits, to implement different onPush behaviors. trait Pass1 { def onPush(i:Info): Unit = { ... } } trait Pass2 { def onPush(i:Info): Unit = { ... } } So that allows me to use new AbstractProcessor with Pass1 or new AbstractProcessor with Pass2. Now I would like to do some processing before and after the onPush call in Pass1 and Pass2 while minimizing code changes to AbstractProcessor and Pass1 and Pass2. I thought of creating a trait that does something like this: trait Custom extends AbstractProcessor { abstract override def onPush(i:Info): Unit = { // do stuff before super.onPush(i) // do stuff after } And using it with new AbstractProcessor with Pass1 with Custom and I got that error message.

    Read the article

  • Simple ASP.NET MVC views without writing a controller

    - by Jake Stevenson
    We're building a site that will have very minimal code, it's mostly just going to be a bunch of static pages served up. I know over time that will change and we'll want to swap in more dynamic information, so I've decided to go ahead and build a web application using ASP.NET MVC2 and the Spark view engine. There will be a couple of controllers that will have to do actual work (like in the /products area), but most of it will be static. I want my designer to be able to build and modify the site without having to ask me to write a new controller or route every time they decide to add or move a page. So if he wants to add a "http://mysite.com/News" page he can just create a "News" folder under Views and put an index.spark page within it. Then later if he decides he wants a /News/Community page, he can drop a community.spark file within that folder and have it work. I'm able to have a view without a specific action by making my controllers override HandleUnknownAction, but I still have to create a controller for each of these folders. It seems silly to have to add an empty controller and recompile every time they decide to add an area to the site. Is there any way to make this easier, so I only have to write a controller and recompile if there's actual logic to be done? Some sort of "master" controller that will handle any requests where there was no specific controller defined?

    Read the article

  • Routing problem with calling a new method without an ID

    - by alkaloids
    I'm trying to put together a form_tag that edits several Shift objects. I have the form built properly, and it's passing on the correct parameters. I have verified that the parameters work with updating the objects correctly in the console. However, when I click the submit button, I get the error: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in ShiftsController#update_individual Couldn't find Shift without an ID My route for the controller it is calling looks like this looks like this: map.resources :shifts, :collection => { :update_individual => :put } The method in ShiftsController is this: def update_individual Shift.update(params[:shifts].keys, params[:shifts].values) flash[:notice] = "Schedule saved" end The relevant form parts are these: <% form_tag( update_individual_shifts_path ) do %> ... (fields for...) <%= submit_tag "Save" %> <% end %> Why is this not working? If I browse to the url: "http://localhost:3000/shifts/update_individual/5" (or any number that corresponds to an existing shift), I get the proper error about having no parameters set, but when I pass parameters without an ID of some sort, it errors out. How do I make it stop looking for an ID at the end of the URL?

    Read the article

  • SQL select row into a string variable without knowing columns

    - by Brandi
    Hello, I am new to writing SQL and would greatly appreciate help on this problem. :) I am trying to select an entire row into a string, preferably separated by a space or a comma. I would like to accomplish this in a generic way, without having to know specifics about the columns in the tables. What I would love to do is this: DECLARE @MyStringVar NVARCHAR(MAX) = '' @MyStringVar = SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE ID = @ID AS STRING But what I ended up doing was this: DECLARE @MyStringVar = '' DECLARE @SecificField1 INT DECLARE @SpecificField2 NVARCHAR(255) DECLARE @SpecificField3 NVARCHAR(1000) ... SELECT @SpecificField1 = Field1, @SpecificField2 = Field2, @SpecificField3 = Field3 FROM MyTable WHERE ID = @ID SELECT @StringBuilder = @StringBuilder + CONVERT(nvarchar(10), @Field1) + ' ' + @Field2 + ' ' + @Field3 Yuck. :( I have seen some people post stuff about the COALESCE function, but again, I haven't seen anyone use it without specific column names. Also, I was thinking, perhaps there is a way to use the column names dynamically getting them by: SELECT [COLUMN_NAME] FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'MyTable' It really doesn't seem like this should be so complicated. :( What I did works for now, but thanks ahead of time to anyone who can point me to a better solution. :) EDIT: Got it fixed, thanks to everyone who answered. :)

    Read the article

  • Downloading javascript Without Blocking

    - by doug
    The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

    Read the article

  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

    Read the article

  • Build a Visual Studio Project without access to referenced dlls

    - by David Reis
    I have a project which has a set of binary dependencies (assembly dlls for which I do no have the source code). At runtime those dependencies are required pre-installed on the machine and at compile time they are required in the source tree, e,g in a lib folder. As I'm also making source code available for this program I would like to enable a simple download and build experience for it. Unfortunately I cannot redistribute the dlls, and that complicates things, since VS wont link the project without access to the referenced dlls. Is there anyway to enable this project to be built and linked in absence of the real referenced dlls? Maybe theres a way to tell VS to link against an auto generated stub of the dll, so that it can rebuild without the original? Maybe there's a third party tool that will do this? Any clues or best practices at all in this area? I realize the person must have access to the dlls to run the code, so it makes sense that he could add them to the build process, but I'm just trying to save them the pain of collecting all the dlls and placing them in the lib folder manually.

    Read the article

  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Select statement with multiple 'where' fields using same value without duplicating text

    - by kdbdallas
    I will start by saying that I don't think what I want can be done, but that said, I am hoping I am wrong and someone knows more than me. So here is your chance... Prove you are smarter than me :) I want to do a search against a SQLite table looking for any records that "are similar" without having to write out the query in long hand. To clarify this is how I know I can write the query: select * from Articles where title like '%Bla%' or category like '%Bla%' or post like '%Bla%' This works and is not a huge deal if you are only checking against a couple of columns, but if you need to check against a bunch then your query can get really long and nasty looking really fast, not to mention the chance for typos. (ie: 'Bla%' instead of '%Bla%') What I am wondering is if there is a short hand way to do this? *This next code does not work the way I want, but just shows kind of what I am looking for select * from Articles where title or category or post like '%Bla%' Anyone know if there is a way to specify that multiple 'where' columns should use the same search value without listing that same search value for every column? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Re-add missing project without having to re-add it to all projects referencing it

    - by coffeeaddict
    Lets say you open a .NET solution (mine being VS 2010) after you just moved your entire folder to some new location locally. Now one of the projects that was being referenced in that solution is not there and so when you launch VS, it naturally tells you that the project is missing and therefore as always you see the project greyed out in Solution Explorer. Ok, well I can't go re-add that project (specify a different path for where that project lives) unless I remove the missing project reference and then try to re-add it back to the solution. But how can I reassociate a project without losing all references in other projects that were referencing that missing project? Is this possible? Otherwise every time I re-add that missing project, I end up having to go through about 8 projects of mine that are referencing it and re-reference it for each one of those projects which is tedious. I guess it makes sense since each project was referencing that missing project at that old path so it would break it there as well but is there an easier way to re-associate a project and references to that missing project without having to take 10 minutes every time to re-associate it all over the place if simply the path has changed?

    Read the article

  • download file, without saving in server

    - by lolalola
    Hi, Or possible for users to download the file without saving it on the server? I am getting data from the database, and I want to save them .doc (MS Word) file. if(isset($_POST['save'])) { $file = "new_file2.doc"; $stringData = "Text text text text...."; //This data put in new Word file $fh = fopen($file, 'w'); fwrite($fh, $stringData); fclose($fh); header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-type: application/msword'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.$file.'"'); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0'); header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($file)); ob_clean(); flush(); readfile($file); unlink($file); exit; } How should the code look like without this: " $fh = fopen($file, 'w'); fwrite($fh, $stringData); fclose($fh);" and this "unlink($file);" I hope to understand what I need enter code here

    Read the article

  • How to update attributes without valitation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >