Search Results

Search found 33453 results on 1339 pages for 'alias method'.

Page 98/1339 | < Previous Page | 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105  | Next Page >

  • How do i change this method to get strings instead of ints

    - by David
    here is the original code: public static int getInt () { Scanner in = new Scanner (System.in) ; if (in.hasNextInt()) { int a = in.nextInt() ; return a ; } else { System.out.println ("try again:") ; return getInt () ; } } This checks and sees if the input it receives is an int. If it is then it returns the int, if not it tells you to try again and re-runs. This is what i tried to do to change it: public static String getIns () { Scanner in = new Scanner (System.in) ; if (in.hasNextString()) { String a = in.nextString() ; return a ; } else { System.out.println ("try again:") ; return getIns () ; } } This doesn't work though. I looked through the documentation for the scanner class and i think the problem is that there is no such method as in.hasNextString or in.nextString What methods from the scanner class can i use to do what i intend these to do?

    Read the article

  • Rails: Overriding ActiveRecord association method

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there a way to override one of the methods provided by an ActiveRecord association? Say for example I have the following typical polymorphic has_many :through association: class Story < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :taggings, :as => :taggable has_many :tags, :through => :taggings, :order => :name end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :taggings, :dependent => :destroy has_many :stories, :through => :taggings, :source => :taggable, :source_type => "Story" end As you probably know this adds a whole slew of associated methods to the Story model like tags, tags<<, tags=, tags.empty?, etc. How do I go about overriding one of these methods? Specifically the tags<< method. It's pretty easy to override a normal class methods but I can't seem to find any information on how to override association methods. Doing something like def tags<< *new_tags #do stuff end produces a syntax error when it's called so it's obviously not that simple.

    Read the article

  • Choosing a method for a webservice

    - by Wrikken
    I'm asked to set up a new webservice which should be easily usable in whatever language (php, .NET, Java, etc.) possible. Of course rolling my own can be done, accepting different content-types (xml / x-www-form-urlencoded (normal post) / json / etc.), but an existing method or mechanism would of course be prefered, cutting down time spent on development for the consumers of the service. The webservice does accept modifications / sets (it is not only simply data retrieval), but those will most likely be quite a lot less then gets (we estimate about 2.5% sets, 97.5 gets). The term webservice here indicates the protocol should go over HTTP, not being able to implement it totally client sided (javascript in the end-users browser etc.), as it needs specific user authentication. Both gets and sets are pretty light on the parameter count (usually 1 to 4). Methods like REST (which I'd prefer for only gets), XML-RPC & SOAP (might be a bit overkill, but has the advantage of explicitly defined methods and returns) are the usual suspects. What in your opinion / experience is the most widely 'spoken' and most easily implementable protocol in different languages (seen from the consumers' viewpoint) which could fullfill this need?

    Read the article

  • How to build a sequence in the method calls of a fluent interface

    - by silverfighter
    Hi I would like to build a fluent interface for creating am object some sort of factory or builder. I understand that I have to "return this" in order to make the methods chainable. public class CarBuilder { public CarBuilder() { car = new Car(); } private Car car; public CarBuilder AddEngine(IEngineBuilder engine) { car.Engine = engine.Engine(); return this; } public CarBuilder AddWheels(IWheelsBuilder wheels) { car.Wheels = wheels.Wheels(); return this; } public CarBuilder AddFrame(IFrameBuilder frame) { car.Frame = frame.Frame(); return this; } public Car BuildCar() { return car; } } with this I could build a car like that: Car c = builder.AddFrame(fBuilder).AddWheels(wBuilder).AddEngine(eBuilder).BuildCar(); But what I need is a special sequence or workflow: I can only build the wheels on top of the frame and when the wheels exist then I'll be able to build up the engine. So instead of offering every method of the car builder I want to be able to add only the frame to the builder and then only the wheels to the frame and then the engine on top of that... And how would it be or what would be a good implementation if the EngineBuilder itself has a fluent api like eBuilder.Cylinders(12).WithPistons().... Would it be possible to have something like this Car c = builder.AddFrame(fBuilder).AddWheels(wBuilder).AddEngine(x=>x.WithCylinders(12).WithPistons()).BuildCar(); So in sum how to structure the flow of the fluent interface and how to nest fluent Interfaces?

    Read the article

  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

    Read the article

  • Dataset bind to Gridview within WCF REST retrieval method and Linq to Sql

    - by user643794
    I used a WCF REST template to build a WCF service library to create PUT and GET calls. PUT method works fine sending my blob to a database. On the GET, I want to be able to access the web service directly and display the results from a stored procedure as a dataset and bind this to a gridview. The stored procedure is a simple select statement, returning three of the four columns from the table. I have the following: [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/?name={name}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] public List<Object> GetCollection(string name) { try { db.OpenDbConnection(); // Call to SQL stored procedure return db.GetCustFromName(name); } catch (Exception e) { Log.Error("Stored Proc execution failed. ", e); } finally { db.CloseDbConnection(); } return null; } I also added Linq to SQL class to include my database table and stored procedures access. I also created the Default.aspx file in addition to the other required files. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ServiceDataContext objectContext = new ServiceDataContext(); var source = objectContext.GetCustFromName("Tiger"); Menu1.DataSource = source; Menu1.DataBind(); } But this gives me The entity type '' does not belong to any registered model. Where should the data binding be done? What should be the return type for GetCollection()? I am stuck with this. Please provide help on how to do this.

    Read the article

  • Call method immediately after object construction in LINQ query

    - by Steffen
    I've got some objects which implement this interface: public interface IRow { void Fill(DataRow dr); } Usually when I select something out of db, I go: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRows { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); foreach (DataRow dr in table.Rows) { IRow row = new MySQLRow(); // Disregard the MySQLRow type, it's not important row.Fill(dr); yield return row; } } Now with .Net 4, I'd like to use AsParallel, and thus LINQ. I've done some testing on it, and it speeds up things alot (IRow.Fill uses Reflection, so it's hard on the CPU) Anyway my problem is, how do I go about creating a LINQ query, which calls Fills as part of the query, so it's properly parallelized? For testing performance I created a constructor which took the DataRow as argument, however I'd really love to avoid this if somehow possible. With the constructor in place, it's obviously simple enough: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRowsParallel { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); return from DataRow dr in table.Rows.AsParallel() select new MySQLRow(dr); } However like I said, I'd really love to be able to just stuff my Fill method into the LINQ query, and thus not need the constructor overload.

    Read the article

  • Clearly defined Rails routing problem - undefined method for Nil:NilClass

    - by sscirrus
    Guys and girls, I have been working on this problem for a while but still no joy. This is my second question within this general area, because the last question was getting too long and this is now more well-defined. Summary of the Problem: I am loading a page for my customers and I get error: undefined method 'name' for Nil:NilClass My Code #Link on views/users/show.html.erb: <%= link_to "Customer Account", :action => "home", :controller => "customers", :id => @user.user_type_id %> #Regular Route: map.connect 'customers/home/:id', :controller => 'customers', :action => 'home' #Rake Routes, first entry: /customers/home/:id :controller=>:"customers", :action=>"home" #Customers Controller: def home render :layout => 'home' @customer = Customer.find(params[:id]) @user = @current_user_session.user flash[:error] = "Customer not found" and return unless @customer @jobs = @customer.jobs end #views/customers/home.html.erb: <%= @customer.name %> I have absolutely no idea why this seemingly clear sequence of events is resulting in a NilClass. Search the console for Customer.find(2) returns the correct customer. What is this noob missing? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • curios about CCSpriteBatchNode's addchild method

    - by lzyy
    when diving into "learn cocos2d game development with ios5", in ch08 in EnemyCache.m -(id) init { if ((self = [super init])) { // get any image from the Texture Atlas we're using CCSpriteFrame* frame = [[CCSpriteFrameCache sharedSpriteFrameCache] spriteFrameByName:@"monster-a.png"]; batch = [CCSpriteBatchNode batchNodeWithTexture:frame.texture]; [self addChild:batch]; [self initEnemies]; [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } so batch is with texture "monster-a.png" in EnemyEntity.m's initWithType method switch (type) { case EnemyTypeUFO: enemyFrameName = @"monster-a.png"; bulletFrameName = @"shot-a.png"; break; case EnemyTypeCruiser: enemyFrameName = @"monster-b.png"; bulletFrameName = @"shot-b.png"; shootFrequency = 1.0f; initialHitPoints = 3; break; case EnemyTypeBoss: enemyFrameName = @"monster-c.png"; bulletFrameName = @"shot-c.png"; shootFrequency = 2.0f; initialHitPoints = 15; break; default: [NSException exceptionWithName:@"EnemyEntity Exception" reason:@"unhandled enemy type" userInfo:nil]; } if ((self = [super initWithSpriteFrameName:enemyFrameName])) { //... } so the returned object may be in 3 different frame. since Only the CCSprites that are contained in that texture can be added to the CCSpriteBatchNode, obviously, 'monster-b.png' is not contained in 'monster-a.png', why the different enemy can still be added to the batch?

    Read the article

  • Is this a safe/valid hash method implementation?

    - by Sean
    I have a set of classes to represent some objects loaded from a database. There are a couple variations of these objects, so I have a common base class and two subclasses to represent the differences. One of the key fields they have in common is an id field. Unfortunately, the id of an object is not unique across all variations, but within a single variation. What I mean is, a single object of type A could have an id between, say, 0 and 1,000,000. An object of type B could have an id between, 25,000 and 1,025,000. This means there's some overlap of id numbers. The objects are just variations of the same kind of thing, though, so I want to think of them as such in my code. (They were assigned ids from different sets for legacy reasons.) So I have classes like this: @class BaseClass @class TypeAClass : BaseClass @class TypeBClass : BaseClass BaseClass has a method (NSNumber *)objectId. However instances of TypeA and TypeB could have overlapping ids as discussed above, so when it comes to equality and putting these into sets, I cannot just use the id alone to check it. The unique key of these instances is, essentially, (class + objectId). So I figured that I could do this by making the following hash function on the BaseClass: -(NSUInteger)hash { return (NSUInteger)[self class] ^ [self.objectId hash]; } I also implemented isEqual like so: - (BOOL)isEqual:(id)object { return (self == object) || ([object class] == [self class] && [self.objectId isEqual:[object objectId]]); } This seems to be working, but I guess I'm just asking here to make sure I'm not overlooking something - especially with the generation of the hash by using the class pointer in that way. Is this safe or is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

    Read the article

  • SS3: the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList'

    - by Fraser
    In Silverstripe 3, I'm trying to run some custom SQL and return the result for handling in my template: function getListings(){ $sqlQuery = new SQLQuery(); $sqlQuery->setFrom('ListingCategory_Listings'); $sqlQuery->selectField('*'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('Listing', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingID" = "Listing"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('SiteTree_Live', '"Listing"."ID" = "SiteTree_Live"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('ListingCategory', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingCategoryID" = "ListingCategory"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('File', '"ListingCategory"."IconID" = "File"."ID"'); $result = $sqlQuery->execute(); //return $result; //$dataObject = new DataList(); $dataObject = new ArrayList(); foreach($result as $row) { $dataObject->push(new ArrayData($row)); } return $dataObject; } However, this is giving me the error: Uncaught Exception: Object-__call(): the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList' What am I doing wrong here and how can I get the result of this query into my template?

    Read the article

  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

    Read the article

  • how to access anti aliasing method of a font with CSS

    - by Daniel Ramirez-Escudero
    I've had this problem in a lot of different webs. You have a font which has different anti-aliasing options, the designer uses the same font with different anti-aliasing options on different parts of the text on the web. So there is a difference between some elements. In this case I have sharp, crisp, strong and smooth. I've used a font generator to get the code to access it via @font-face. Even so, I also have the original .otf if important to know. Is there a method to access this? I upload a picture of what I mean and my actual code: ![@font-face { font-family: 'light'; src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot'); src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot?#iefix') format('embedded-opentype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.woff') format('woff'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.ttf') format('truetype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.svg#../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light') format('svg'); font-weight: normal; font-style: normal; }]![enter image description here][1]

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC Controller Method not always called from $.getJSON request

    - by johnvpetersen
    I have a controller method that returns a jSON object and in one calling situation, it works and in another calling situation, it does not work. When the URL in my browser is this: http://localhost:65247/Client -- it works. But, when my url looks like this: http://localhost:65247/Client/UserAdmin?id=6 -- it DOES NOT work In a nutshell, clients have users. From within the client, I wish to work on a specific user (this is the UserAdmin view). In this case, the client id is 6. From within the UserAdmin view that was launched with Id=6, I then wish to select a user from a dropdown. The idea was to use javascript and $.getJSON to fetch data for the specific user so as not to have to refresh the entire page. I use this approach in other parts of the app. The only difference I can see is with the URL in the browser. It would appear the presence of parameters via the '?' is futzing things up a bit. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance. John

    Read the article

  • Moq.Mock<T> - how to setup a method that takes an expression

    - by Paul
    I am Mocking my repository interface and am not sure how to setup a method that takes an expression and returns an object? I am using Moq and NUnit Interface: public interface IReadOnlyRepository : IDisposable { IQueryable<T> All<T>() where T : class; T Single<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) where T : class; } Test with IQueryable already setup, but don't know how to setup the T Single: private Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository> _mockRepos; private AdminController _controller; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { var allPages = new List<Page>(); for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { allPages.Add(new Page { Id = i, Title = "Page Title " + i, Slug = "Page-Title-" + i, Content = "Page " + i + " on page content." }); } _mockRepos = new Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository>(); _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.All<Page>()).Returns(allPages.AsQueryable()); //Not sure what to do here??? _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.Single<Page>() //---- _controller = new AdminController(_mockRepos.Object); }

    Read the article

  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

    Read the article

  • Java HashSet using a specified method

    - by threenplusone
    I have a basic class 'HistoryItem' like so: public class HistoryItem private Date startDate; private Date endDate; private Info info; private String details; @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = (startDate == null ? 0 : startDate.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (endDate == null ? 0 : endDate.hashCode()); return hash; } } I am currently using a HashSet to remove duplicates from an ArrayList on the startDate & endDate fields, which is working correctly. However I also need to remove duplicates on different fields (info & details). My question is this. Is there a way to specify a different method which HashSet will use in place of hashCode()? Something like this: public int hashCode_2() { int hash = (info == null ? 0 : info.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (details == null ? 0 : details.hashCode()); return hash; } Set<HistoryItem> removeDups = new HashSet<HistoryItem>(); removeDups.setHashMethod(hashCode_2); Or is there another way that I should be doing this?

    Read the article

  • Chrome extension:Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null

    - by T_t
    Hi,i am beginner with chrome extension.There is simple problem. There is the code in my extension,but it do not work.I don't know how to figure it out. In my extension, i used a xml file to stroe some data.There is the code in my background.html,but it do not work,i don't know how to figure it out... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function loadXmlFile(){ var xmlDom = null; var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); if( xmlhttp ){ xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if( xmlhttp.readyState == 4 ){ if( xmlhttp.status == 200 ){ xmlDom = xmlhttp.responseXML; } } } xmlhttp.open( "GET",chrome.extension.getURL("/xml/123.xml"),true); xmlhttp.send( null ); } return xmlDom; } var xmlDom = loadXmlFile(); var s = xmlDom.getElementsByTagName( "to" ); alert( s[0].nodeType ); </script> </body> </html> I used developer tools to debug,but it says " Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null"... who can help me?

    Read the article

  • Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

    - by dierre
    Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

    Read the article

  • Java method help

    - by dalton conley
    Ok, so I'm working on a project for a class I'm taking.. simple music library. Now I'm having some issues, the main issue is I'm getting "non-static method cannot be referenced from a static context" Here is a function I have public void addSong() { Scanner scan = new Scanner(System.in); Song temp = new Song(); int index = countFileLines(Main.databaseFile); index = index + 2; temp.index = index; System.out.print("Enter the artist name: "); temp.artist.append(scan.next()); } Now thats in a class file called LibraryFunctions. So I can access it with LibraryFunctions.addSong(); Now I'm trying to run this in my main java file and its giving me the error, I know why the error is happening, but what do I do about it? If I make addSong() a static function then it throws errors at me with the Song temp = new Song() being static. Kind of ironic. Much help is appreciated on this!

    Read the article

  • Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

    Read the article

  • Queue Data structure app crash with front() method

    - by Programer
    I am implementing queue data strcutre but my app gets crashed, I know I am doing something wrong with Node pointer front or front() method of queue class #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Node { public: int get() { return object; }; void set(int object) { this->object = object; }; Node * getNext() { return nextNode; }; void setNext(Node * nextNode) { this->nextNode = nextNode; }; private: int object; Node * nextNode; }; class queue{ private: Node *rear; Node *front; public: int dequeue() { int x = front->get(); Node* p = front; front = front->getNext(); delete p; return x; } void enqueue(int x) { Node* newNode = new Node(); newNode->set(x); newNode->setNext(NULL); rear->setNext(newNode); rear = newNode; } int Front() { return front->get(); } int isEmpty() { return ( front == NULL ); } }; main() { queue q; q.enqueue(2); cout<<q.Front(); system("pause"); }

    Read the article

  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

    Read the article

  • Dealing with multiple generics in a method call

    - by thaBadDawg
    I've been dealing a lot lately with abstract classes that use generics. This is all good and fine because I get a lot of utility out of these classes but now it's making for some rather ugly code down the line. For example: abstract class ClassBase<T> { T Property { get; set; } } class MyClass : ClassBase<string> { OtherClass PropertyDetail { get; set; } } This implementation isn't all that crazy, except when I want to reference the abstract class from a helper class and then I have to make a list of generics just to make reference to the implemented class, like this below. class Helper { void HelpMe<C, T>(object Value) where C : ClassBase<T>, new() { DoWork(); } } This is just a tame example, because I have some method calls where the list of where clauses end up being 5 or 6 lines long to handle all of the generic data. What I'd really like to do is class Helper { void HelpMe<C>(object Value) where C : ClassBase, new() { DoWork(); } } but it obviously won't compile. I want to reference ClassBase without having to pass it a whole array of generic classes to get the function to work, but I don't want to reference the higher level classes because there are a dozen of those. Am I the victim of my own cleverness or is there an avenue that I haven't considered yet?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105  | Next Page >