How does the same origin policy apply to IP addresses

Posted by recipriversexclusion on Stack Overflow See other posts from Stack Overflow or by recipriversexclusion
Published on 2010-04-21T22:03:54Z Indexed on 2010/04/21 22:43 UTC
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same-origin-policy

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JavaScript

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jQuery

I have a server on our company intranet that runs JBoss. I want to send API calls to this server from my machine, also on the intranet, and get the resulting XML responses using JQuery.

I read the entry on Wikipedia but am confused how that applies to my situation, since our machines only have IP addresses, not domain names.

I have

server URL: 10.2.200.3:8001/serviceroot/service
client IP address: 10.2.201.217

My questions are:

As far as I understand these are different domains, right? So I have to use a proxy to issue JQuery.ajax calls to the server
If I want to avoid doing (2), can I install Apache on the server and server the page with JS code form there? But then the JS will be from 10.2.200.3 and the server is at 10.2.200.3:8001. Aren't these considered different domains according to policy?

Thanks!

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