Why do so many iptables examples specify both "-p tcp" and "-m tcp"?

Posted by Alex R on Server Fault See other posts from Server Fault or by Alex R
Published on 2010-05-09T20:48:20Z Indexed on 2010/05/09 21:00 UTC
Read the original article Hit count: 154

Filed under:

The manual isn't very clear, and the online articles & tutorials don't bother to explain it.

What's the significance of -m tcp and -p tcp used together? It seems so redundant, it bothers me...

Thanks

© Server Fault or respective owner

Related posts about iptables