Why do so many iptables examples specify both "-p tcp" and "-m tcp"?
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by Alex R
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Published on 2010-05-09T20:48:20Z
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2010/05/09
21:00 UTC
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iptables
The manual isn't very clear, and the online articles & tutorials don't bother to explain it.
What's the significance of -m tcp and -p tcp used together? It seems so redundant, it bothers me...
Thanks
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