Is the set of data always normalized in one form or the other in Databases

Posted by manugupt1 on Stack Overflow See other posts from Stack Overflow or by manugupt1
Published on 2010-05-10T05:34:22Z Indexed on 2010/05/10 5:44 UTC
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Suppose I have a set of data, given the data and the relation schemas can I assume that the set of data is normalized in one form or the other. In my opinion raw data given, has to be normalized into some form. However a discussion with a friend has led to ask me this question here.

To expound more on the question, I would say given a set of functional dependencies for a relation or table, is it guaranteed that the table would atleast be in 1NF if not others

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