Prove that the set of regular languages is a proper subset of the set of the context-free languages

Posted by David Relihan on Stack Overflow See other posts from Stack Overflow or by David Relihan
Published on 2011-01-10T23:48:39Z Indexed on 2011/01/10 23:53 UTC
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I was brushing up (not homework)on some computation-theory and came accross this problem:

How can you prove that the set of regular languages is a proper subset of the set of the context-free languages.

Now I know a language is regular iff it is accepted by a finite automaton.

And I know a language is context-free iff it is accepted by a pushdown automaton.

But I'm not sure of what solution is.

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