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Search found 7 results on 1 pages for 'asgeir s nilsen'.

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• DHCP forwarding behind access list on a Cisco Catalyst

  - by Ásgeir Bjarnason

  I'm having some trouble with forwarding DHCP from a subnet behind an access list on a Cisco Catalyst 4500 switch. I'm hoping somebody can see the mistake I'm making. The subnet is defined like this: (first three octets of IP addresses and vrf name anonymized) interface Vlan40 ip vrf forwarding vrf_name ip address 10.10.10.126 255.255.255.0 secondary ip address 10.10.10.254 255.255.255.0 ip access-group 100 out ip helper-address 10.10.20.36 no ip redirects I tried turning on a VMWare machine on this subnet that was configured to use DHCP, but I never got a DHCP response and the DHCP server didn't receive a request. I tried putting the following in the access-list: access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.10.254 host 10.10.20.36 eq bootps access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.10.254 host 10.10.20.36 eq bootpc access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.20.36 host 10.10.10.254 eq bootps access-list 100 permit udp host 10.10.20.36 host 10.10.10.254 eq bootpc That didn't help. Can anybody see what the problem is? I know that the DHCP server works; our whole network is running off of this DHCP server I also know that the subnet works because we have active servers running on the network The DHCP scope is already defined on the DHCP server The subnet is correctly defined on the VMWare server (already servers running on the subnet on VMWare) Edit 2012-10-19: This is solved! The subnet had formerly been defined as a /25 network, but was then expanded into a /24 network. When the DHCP scope was altered after this change it was done incorrectly; the gateway was moved to .254, the leasable IP range was in the lower half of the /24 subnet but we forgot to change the CIDR prefix from /25 into /24. This happened some 2 years ago, and we didn't need to use DHCP on this server network again until this week. Thank you MDMarra and Jason Seemann for looking at the question and trying to troubleshoot. Now I'm wondering if I should mark Jason's answer as the accepted answer (I am new to the Stack Exchange network, so I don't know the etiquette of what to do if I misstated the question like in this case).

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• Why does explorer.exe use so much CPU?

  - by Asgeir S. Nilsen

  The explorer.exe process on my Vista x64 has started using a lot of CPU recently. Restarting the process typically solves the problem. Is there a simple way to inspect the process to see where (threads, modules) the high CPU load is spent?

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• Any way to recover ext4 filesystems from a deleted LVM logical volume?

  - by Vegar Nilsen

  The other day I had a proper brain fart moment while expanding a disk on a Linux guest under Vmware. I stretched the Vmware disk file to the desired size and then I did what I usually do on Linux guests without LVM: I deleted the LVM partition and recreated it, starting in the same spot as the old one, but extended to the new size of the disk. (Which will be followed by fsck and resize2fs.) And then I realized that LVM doesn't behave the same way as ext2/3/4 on raw partitions... After restoring the Linux guest from the most recent backup (taken only five hours earlier, luckily) I'm now curious on how I could have recovered from the following scenario. It's after all virtually guaranteed that I'll be a dumb ass in the future as well. Virtual Linux guest with one disk, partitioned into one /boot (primary) partition (/dev/sda1) of 256MB, and the rest in a logical, extended partition (/dev/sda5). /dev/sda5 is then setup as a physical volume with pvcreate, and one volume group (vgroup00) created on top of it with the usual vgcreate command. vgroup00 is then split into two logical volumes root and swap, which are used for / and swap, logically. / is an ext4 file system. Since I had backups of the broken guest I was able to recreate the volume group with vgcfgrestore from the backup LVM setup found under /etc/lvm/backup, with the same UUID for the physical volume and all that. After running this I had two logical volumes with the same size as earlier, with 4GB free space where I had stretched the disk. However, when I tried to run "fsck /dev/mapper/vgroup00-root" it complained about a broken superblock. I tried to locate backup superblocks by running "mke2fs -n /dev/mapper/vgroup00-root" but none of those worked either. Then I tried to run TestDisk but when I asked it to find superblocks it only gave an error about not being able to open the file system due to a broken file system. So, with the default allocation policy for LVM2 in Ubuntu Server 10.04 64-bit, is it possible that the logical volumes are allocated from the end of the volume group? That would definitely explain why the restored logical volumes didn't contain the expected data. Could I have recovered by recreating /dev/sda5 with exactly the same size and disk position as earlier? Are there any other tools I could have used to find and recover the file system? (And clearly, the question is not whether or not I should have done this in a different way from the start, I know that. This is a question about what to do when shit has already hit the fan.)

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• UserForm in script run from Outlook Rule

  - by Asgeir S. Nilsen

  Based on http://support.microsoft.com/kb/306108 I'd like to create a custom rule that shows a custom UserForm instead of the plain old MsgBox. What I wrote was this: Dim alerts As CustomAlerts Sub CustomMailMessageRule(Item As Outlook.MailItem) alerts.Messages.AddItem Item.Subject alerts.Show End Sub CustomAlerts is a UserForm containing a single ListBox. Sadly my attempt does not work -- no window appears. What am I doing wrong?

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• How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

  - by Nils-Petter Nilsen

  I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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• The case against Maven?

  - by Asgeir S. Nilsen

  Time and time again I've read and heard people frustrated over Maven and how complicated it is. And that it's much easier to use Ant to build code. However, in order to: Compile code Run tests Package a deployable unit This is all you need from Maven: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>type something here</groupId> <artifactId>type something here</artifactId> <version>type something here</version> </project> What would be the corresponding minimal Ant build file?

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• EF4 Code First - Many to many relationship issue

  - by Yngve B. Nilsen

  Hi! I'm having some trouble with my EF Code First model when saving a relation to a many to many relationship. My Models: public class Event { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Tag { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Event> Events { get; set; } } In my controller, I map one or many TagViewModels into type of Tag, and send it down to my servicelayer for persistence. At this time by inspecting the entities the Tag has both Id and Name (The Id is a hidden field, and the name is a textbox in my view) The problem occurs when I now try to add the Tag to the Event. Let's take the following scenario: The Event is already in my database, and let's say it already has the related tags C#, ASP.NET If I now send the following list of tags to the servicelayer: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 and add them by first fetching the Event from the DB, so that I have an actual Event from my DbContext, then I simply do myEvent.Tags.Add to add the tags.. Problem is that after SaveChanges() my DB now contains this set of tags: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 4 C# 5 ASP.NET This, even though my Tags that I save has it's ID set when I save it (although I didn't fetch it from the DB)

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