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  • Need some serious help with self join issue.

    - by kralco626
    Well as you may know, you cannot index a view with a self join. Well actually even two joins of the same table, even if it's not technically a self join. A couple of guys from microsoft came up with a work around. But it's so complicated I don't understand it!!! The solution to the problem is here: http://jmkehayias.blogspot.com/2008/12/creating-indexed-view-with-self-join.html The view I want to apply this work around to is: create VIEW vw_lookup_test WITH SCHEMABINDING AS select count_big(*) as [count_all], awc_txt, city_nm, str_nm, stru_no, o.circt_cstdn_nm [owner], t.circt_cstdn_nm [tech], dvc.circt_nm, data_orgtn_yr from ((dbo.dvc join dbo.circt on dvc.circt_nm = circt.circt_nm) join dbo.circt_cstdn o on circt.circt_cstdn_user_id = o.circt_cstdn_user_id) join dbo.circt_cstdn t on dvc.circt_cstdn_user_id = t.circt_cstdn_user_id group by awc_txt, city_nm, str_nm, stru_no, o.circt_cstdn_nm, t.circt_cstdn_nm, dvc.circt_nm, data_orgtn_yr go Any help would be greatly apreciated!!! Thanks so much in advance!

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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  • Access Qry Questions

    - by kralco626
    It was suggested that I repost this questions as I didn't do a very good job discribing my issue the first time. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2921286/access-question) THE SITUATION: I have inspections from many months of many years. Sometimes there is more than one inspection in a month, sometimes there is no inspection. However, the report that is desired by the clients requires that I have EXACTLY ONE record per month for the time frame they request the report. They understand the data issues and have stated that if there is more than one inspection in a month to take the latest one. If the is not an inspection for that month, go back in time untill you find one and use that one. So a sample of the data is as follows: (I am including many records because I was told I did not include enough data on my last try) equip_id month year runtime date 1 5 2008 400 5/10/2008 12:34 PM 1 7 2008 500 7/12/2008 1:45 PM 1 8 2008 600 8/20/2008 1:12 PM 1 8 2008 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 1 2010 2000 1/12/2010 2:00 PM 1 3 2010 2200 3/24/2010 10:00 AM 2 7 2009 1000 7/20/2009 8:00 AM 2 10 2009 1400 10/14/2009 9:00 AM 2 1 2010 1600 1/15/2010 1:00 PM 2 1 2010 1610 1/30/2010 4:00 PM 2 3 2010 1800 3/15/2010 1:00PM After all the transformations to the data are done, it should look like this: equip_id month year runtime date 1 5 2008 400 5/10/2008 12:34 PM 1 6 2008 400 5/10/2008 12:34 PM 1 7 2008 500 7/12/2008 1:45 PM 1 8 2008 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 9 2008 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 10 2008 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 11 2008 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 12 2008 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 1 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 2 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 3 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 4 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 5 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 6 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 7 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 8 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 9 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 10 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 11 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 12 2009 605 8/30/2008 8:00 AM 1 1 2010 2000 1/12/2010 2:00 PM 1 2 2010 2000 1/12/2010 2:00 PM 1 3 2010 2200 3/24/2010 10:00 AM 2 7 2009 1000 7/20/2009 8:00 AM 2 8 2009 1000 7/20/2009 8:00 AM 2 9 2009 1000 7/20/2009 8:00 AM 2 10 2009 1400 10/14/2009 9:00 AM 2 11 2009 1400 10/14/2009 9:00 AM 2 12 2009 1400 10/14/2009 9:00 AM 2 1 2010 1610 1/30/2010 4:00 PM 2 2 2010 1610 1/30/2010 4:00 PM 2 3 2010 1800 3/15/2010 1:00PM I think that this is the most accurate dipiction of the problem that I can give. I will now say what I have tried. Although if someone else has a better approach, I am perfectly willing to throw away what I have done and do it differently... STEP 1: create a query that removes the duplicates from the data. Ie. only one record per equip_id for each month/year, keeping the latest one. (done successfully) STEP 2: create a table of the date ranges the client wants the report for. (This is done dynamically at runtime) This table two field, Month and Year. So if the client wants a report from FEb 2008 to March 2010 the table would look like: Month Year 2 2008 3 2008 . . . 12 2008 1 2009 . . . 12 2009 1 2010 2 2010 3 2010 I then left joined this table with my query from step 1. So now I have a record for every month and every year that they want the report for, with nulls(or blanks) or sometimes 0s (not sure why, access is weird, but sometiems they are nulls and sumtimes they are 0s...) for the runtimes that are not avaiable. I don't particurally like this solution, but ill do it if i have to. (this is also done successfully) STEP 3: Fill in the missing runtime values. This I HAVE NOT done successfully. Note that if the request range for the report is feb 2008 to march 2010 and the oldest record for a particular equip_id is say june 2008, it is O.K. for the runtimes to be null (or zeros) for feb - may 2008. I am working with the following query for this step: SELECT equip_id as e_id,year,month, (select top 1 runhours from qry_1_c_One_Record_per_Month a where a.equip_id = e_id order by year,month) FROM qry_1_c_One_Record_per_Month where runhours is null or runhours = 0; UNION SELECT equip_id, year, month, runhours FROM qry_1_c_One_Record_per_Month WHERE .runhours Is Not Null And runhours <> 0 However I clearly can't check the a.equip_id = e_id ... so i don't have anyway to make sure i'm looking at the correct equip_id SUMMARY: So like i said i'm willing to throw away any part, or all of what I tried. Just trying to give everyone a complete picture. I REALLY apreciate ANY help! Thanks so much in advance!

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  • Access Question

    - by kralco626
    I have a record set for inspections of many peices of equipment. The four cols of interest are equip_id,month,year,myData. My requirment is to have EXACTLY ONE Record per month for each peice of equipment. I have a quiery that makes the data unique over equip_id,month,year. So there is no more than one record for each month/year for a peice of equipment. But now I need to simulate data for the missing month. I want to simply go back in time to get the last peice of my data. So that may seem confusing, so i'll show by example. Given this: equip_id month year myData 1 1 2010 500 1 2 2010 600 1 5 2010 800 2 2 2010 300 2 4 2010 400 2 6 2010 500 I want this: equip_id month year myData 1 1 2010 500 1 2 2010 600 1 3 2010 600 1 4 2010 600 1 5 2010 800 2 2 2010 300 2 3 2010 300 2 4 2010 400 2 5 2010 400 2 6 2010 500 Notice that im filling in missing data with the data from the month ( or two months etc.) before. Also note that if the first record for equip 2 is in 2/2010 than I don't need a record for 1/2010 even though I have one for equip 1. I just need exactly one record for each month/year for each peice of equipment. So if the record does not exsist I just want to go back in time and grab the data for that record. Thanks!!!

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  • Add function to existing JQuery plugin

    - by kralco626
    Is it possible to add a function to a plugin without modifying the actual plugin? Can I do something like this in my site's js file? $.fn.Watermark.Refresh = function() { $.Watermark.HideAll(); $.Watermark.ShowAll(); } or (function($){ $.fn.Watermark.Refresh = function() { $.Watermark.HideAll(); $.Watermark.ShowAll(); }; })(jQuery); neither worked, the first says $ is undefined, the second that jQuery is undefined... ideas? Solution: Either method works, just include the jquery file before the site js file.

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  • multi-row update table with "different" data

    - by kralco626
    I think the best way to explain this is to tell you what I have. I have two tables A and B both have columns Field1 and Field2. However Field 2 is not populated in table B I want to populate field 2 of table B with field 2 of table A where field 1 of table A matches field 1 of table B. something like update tableB set Field2 = tableA.field2 where tablea.field1 = tableb.field1. The reason this may seem so odd and obscure is that I'm tyring to do an inital data load form an old database to a new one. please let me know if you need clarification

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  • help with delete where not in query

    - by kralco626
    I have a lookup table (##lookup). I know it's bad design because I'm duplicating data, but it speeds up my queries tremendously. I have a query that populates this table insert into ##lookup select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc... I would like to simulate this behavior: delete from ##lookup insert into ##lookup select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc... This would clearly update the table correctly. But this is a lot of inserting and deleting. It messes with my indexes and locks up the table for selecting from. This table could also be updated by something like: delete from ##lookup where not in (select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc...) insert into ##lookup (select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc...) except if it is already in the table The second way may take longer, but I can say "with no lock" and I will be able to select from the table. Any ideas on how to write the query the second way?

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  • How to tell my asp.net page to use .net 3.5?

    - by kralco626
    My company recently upgraded from IE 6 to IE 8. My site does not render properly. I wanted to make sure my .net version was fixed before I started to try to fix a problem. I think my web.config file says i'm using 3.5, but if I get an error when running the app I get this: Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 Why does it say 2.0? rather than 3.5? How do i change this? (using visual studio 2008, running the site locally) Thanks in advance!

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  • help with css formatting on table and div

    - by kralco626
    I have the following html (i'm also using Jquery and JqueryUI) <div style="display:none; position:fixed; z-index:100;padding:0;margin:0" class="ui-state-highlight" id="Info"> <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" style="padding:0;margin:0"> <tr style="padding:0;margin:0;"> <td><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-info"></span></td> <td width = "100%" style="padding:0;margin:0;"><div id = "InfoText"></div></td> <td><button style="width:25px;height:25px;margin:0;padding:0" id="closeInfo"></button></td> </tr> </table> </div> It procudes the following: See where i circled in red? I want to get rid of that yellow space under the button, but i can't figure out how... Thanks!

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