Search Results

Search found 6 results on 1 pages for 'mgibsonbr'.

Page 1/1 | 1 

  • "Integratable" but not "integrated" GPL

    - by mgibsonbr
    There has been much debate over whether or not merely linking to a piece of code makes it a derivative work. I know FSF says "yes", so according to them I can't dynamically link a non-GPL compatible program to a GPL library and distribute the whole. But I could do that for private use, as long as no code is released to the public. That made me wonder: what if I don't redistribute the GPL code at all? If my program can work alone (reinforcing my claim that it's not a derivative work), but can do more if the GPL library is also installed to the system, couldn't I just release my application under my own licensing terms - without including any GPL code - and post instructions for anyone interested to separately download the GPL code and do the integration "for their private use"? I know it's against the "spirit" of the GPL, so I'm not suggesting it's a good idea to do that. However, this question is bugging me for some time, specially because of the implications of each answer: If I can not do that: can I write another library with a similar API? (before answering "of course you can", remember that having the same API would allow both libraries to be swapped at will by my customers - so I don't need to work too hard on my library or even make it "working". How to determine if a similar program is just similar or is a circumvention attempt?) If I can do that: can I also be paid to perform the service of installing the GPL library for a customer? (I sell them my program, install it in their machines, download and install the GPL library too) can I put the two programs in the same website? In two different CDs? (I know I said the idea was not to redistribute the GPL code, I'm just thinking in excuses people could use to claim they're not redistributing even though they are)

    Read the article

  • Animating DOM elements vs refreshing a single Canvas

    - by mgibsonbr
    A few years ago, when the HTML Canvas element was still kinda fresh, I wrote a small game in a rather "unusual" way: each game element had its own canvas, and frequently animated elements even had multiple canvases, one for each animation sprite. This way, the translation would be done by manipulating the DOM position of the canvases, while the sprite animation would consist of altering the visibility of the already drawn canvases. (z-indexes, of course, were the tricky part) It worked like a charm: even in IE6 with excanvas it showed a decent performance, and everything was rather consistent between browsers, including some smartphones. Now I'm thinking in writing a larger game engine in the same fashion, so I'm wondering whether it would be a good idea to do so in the current context (with all the advances in browsers and so on). I know I'm trading memory for time, so this needs to be customizable (even at runtime) for each machine the game will be running. But I believe using separate canvases would also help to avoid the game "freezing" on CPU spikes, since the translation would still happen even if the redraws lag for a while. Besides, the browsers' rendering engines are already optimized in may ways, so I'm guessing this scheme would also reduce the load on the CPU (in contrast to doing everything in JavaScript - specially the less optimized ones). It looks good in my head, but I'd like to hear the opinion of more experienced people before proceeding further. Is there any known drawback of doing this? I'm particulartly unexperienced in dealing with the GPU, so I wonder whether this "trick" would nullify any benefit of using a single, big canvas. Or maybe on modern devices it's overkill (though I'm skeptic about the claims that canvas+js - especially WebGL - will ever be a good alternative to native code). Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • What ufw allows/denies by default?

    - by mgibsonbr
    I was accessing a server running Ubuntu 12.04 Server using SSH and managed to lock myself out of it. I'm still wondering how that happened: The firewall was enabled by default; sudo ufw status did not show any rules (but I could SSH to the server normally); I tried explicitly allowing ports 80 and 443 using the commands: sudo ufw allow 80 sudo ufw allow 443 sudo ufw status now showed something like: Status: active To Action From -- ------ ---- 80 ALLOW Anywhere 80 ALLOW Anywhere (v6) 443 ALLOW Anywhere 443 ALLOW Anywhere (v6) (Recalling from memory and seeing some examples; I can't access the server to see the exact output, so I might be mistaken) After logging out of SSH, now I can't log in anymore (connection timeout). What just happened? There were no DENY rules previously (AFAIK), neither I introduced any. How could SSH be previously available and now it's not? Does ufw (or more precisely iptables) allow everything by default, unless you explicitly allow something, then it denies everything by default? Or did I do something wrong, that broke the existing rules somehow?

    Read the article

  • Should I use mod_wsgi embedded mode if I have full control of Apache?

    - by mgibsonbr
    I'm managing a bunch of sites and applications in a shared hosting, using Django via mod_wsgi. I had planned to use daemon mode from the beginning (to avoid restart problems), but ended up purchasing a plan that allows me to run a dedicated Apache instance. I kept using daemon mode for convenience, but I'm afraid it's consuming more server resources than it should (I have different projects for each site, each with its own process and process group), so I'm considering switching to embedded mode. Would that be a sensible thing to do? I'd still be able to restart Apache anytime I need to, and I wouldn't need so many child processes and sockets (so I hope the resource usage would decrease). But I'm unsure whether or not doing so would make it more difficult to manage those sites (if I need to update one, I have to restart all) or maybe the applications won't be properly isolated from one another. Are these problems really significant (or only a minor nuisance), are there other drawbacks I coudn't foresee? I'm looking for advice in any aspect of this setup - mainainability, performance, security etc. Tips for improving the current setup are also welcome (I know how to correctly configure a basic mod_wsgi setup, but I'm clueless about sensible values for threads, processes etc).

    Read the article

  • Parameterized Django models

    - by mgibsonbr
    In principle, a single Django application can be reused in two or more projects, providing functionality relevent to both. That implies that the same database structure (tables and relations) will be re-created identically in different databases, and most times this is not a problem (assuming the projects/databases are unrelated - for instance when someone downloads a complete app to use in their own projects). Sometimes, however, the models must be "tweaked" a little to better fit the problem needs. This can be accomplished by forking the app, but I wondered if there wouldn't be a better option in cases where the app designer can anticipate the most common customizations. For instance, if I have a model that could relate to another as one-to-one or one-to-many, I could specify the unique property as a parameter, that can be specified in the project's settings: class This(models.Model): other = models.ForeignKey(Other, unique=settings.OTHER_TO_THIS) Or if a model can relate to many others, I could create an intermediate table for each of them (thus enforcing referential integrity) instead of using generic fks: for related in settings.MODELS_RELATED_TO_OTHER: model_name = '%s_Other' % related globals()[model_name] = type(model_name, (models.Model,) { me:models.ForeignKey(find_model_class(related)), other:models.ForeignKey(Other), # Some other properties all intersection tables must have }) Etc. Let me stress out that I'm not proposing to change the models at runtime nor anything like that; once the parameters were defined and syncdb called for the first time, those parameters are not to be changed again (unless you're doing a schema migration). Is this a good design? Are there better ways to accomplish the same thing, or maybe drawbacks I coulnd't anticipate? This technique is meant to be used sparingly (only on apps meant to be reused in wildly different contexts, and only when a specific need of customization can be detected while the app model is being designed).

    Read the article

  • What does "incoming" and "outgoing" traffic mean?

    - by mgibsonbr
    I've seen many resources explaining how to set up a server's firewall to allow incoming and outgoing traffic on HTTP standard ports (80 and 443), but I can't figure out why I would need either of them. Do I need to unblock both for a "regular" web site to work? For file uploads to work? Are there situations where it would be advisable to unblock one and leave the other blocked? Sorry if that's a basic question, but I couldn't find it explained anywhere (also I'm not a native english speaker). I know in a "regular" web site the client is always the one who initiates a request, so I'm assuming a web server must accept incoming traffic on those ports, and my common sense tells me the server is allowed to send a response without unblocking anything else (otherwise it wouldn't make sense to have two types of rules). Is that correct? But what is an outgoing web (service) traffic, and what would be its use? AFAIK if the server wanted to initiate a connection with another machine, the specific port that matters is the one in the other end (i.e. the destination port would be 80), on its end any free port could be used (the source port would be random). I can open HTTP requests from my server (using wget for instance) without unblocking anything. So I'm assuming my concepts of "incoming" and "outgoing" are wrong somehow.

    Read the article

1