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  • Ipsec config problem // openswan

    - by user90696
    I try to configure Ipsec on server with openswan as client. But receive error - possible, it's auth error. What I wrote wrong in config ? Thank you for answers. #1: STATE_MAIN_I2: sent MI2, expecting MR2 003 "f-net" #1: received Vendor ID payload [Cisco-Unity] 003 "f-net" #1: received Vendor ID payload [Dead Peer Detection] 003 "f-net" #1: ignoring unknown Vendor ID payload [ca917959574c7d5aed4222a9df367018] 003 "f-net" #1: received Vendor ID payload [XAUTH] 108 "f-net" #1: STATE_MAIN_I3: sent MI3, expecting MR3 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 010 "f-net" #1: STATE_MAIN_I3: retransmission; will wait 20s for response 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 003 "f-net" #1: discarding duplicate packet; already STATE_MAIN_I3 010 "f-net" #1: STATE_MAIN_I3: retransmission; will wait 40s for response 031 "f-net" #1: max number of retransmissions (2) reached STATE_MAIN_I3. Possible authentication failure: no acceptable response to our first encrypted message 000 "f-net" #1: starting keying attempt 2 of at most 3, but releasing whack other side - Cisco ASA. parameters for my connection on our Linux server : VPN Gateway 8.*.*.* (Cisco ) Phase 1 Exchange Type Main Mode Identification Type IP Address Local ID 4.*.*.* (our Linux server IP) Remote ID 8.*.*.* (VPN server IP) Authentication PSK Pre Shared Key Diffie-Hellman Key Group DH 5 (1536 bit) or DH 2 (1024 bit) Encryption Algorithm AES 256 HMAC Function SHA-1 Lifetime 86.400 seconds / no volume limit Phase 2 Security Protocol ESP Connection Mode Tunnel Encryption Algorithm AES 256 HMAC Function SHA-1 Lifetime 3600 seconds / 4.608.000 kilobytes DPD / IKE Keepalive 15 seconds PFS off Remote Network 192.168.100.0/24 Local Network 1 10.0.0.0/16 ............... Local Network 5 current openswan config : # config setup klipsdebug=all plutodebug="control parsing" protostack=netkey nat_traversal=no virtual_private=%v4:10.0.0.0/8,%v4:192.168.0.0/16,%v4:172.16.0.0/12 oe=off nhelpers=0 conn f-net type=tunnel keyexchange=ike authby=secret auth=esp esp=aes256-sha1 keyingtries=3 pfs=no aggrmode=no keylife=3600s ike=aes256-sha1-modp1024 # left=4.*.*.* leftsubnet=10.0.0.0/16 leftid=4.*.*.* leftnexthop=%defaultroute right=8.*.*.* rightsubnet=192.168.100.0/24 rightid=8.*.*.* rightnexthop=%defaultroute auto=add

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  • Openconnect for Cisco VPN doesn't recognize private key file - asn1 encoding routines:ASN1_CHECK_TLEN:wrong tag

    - by Alexander Skwar
    I'm trying to use my Synology DS212 NAS box also act as VPN gateway to my companies VPN. Sadly, they only use Cisco ASA and to complicate stuff even further, we've got to use personal certificates (which is of course more secure, but more complicate to get going…). So I compiled OpenConnect v4.06 from http://www.infradead.org/openconnect/. As a very basic test, I tried to build a connection by manually invoking openconnect, passing along the key and cert files, like so: /lib/ld-linux.so.3 --library-path /opt/lib \ /opt/openconnect/sbin/openconnect \ --certificate=$VPN_CFG/alexander.crt \ --sslkey=$VPN_CFG/alexander.key \ --cafile=$VPN_CFG/Company_VPN_CA.crt \ --user=alexander --verbose <ip>:443 It fails :( Attempting to connect to <ip>:443 Using certificate file $VPN_CFG/alexander.crt Using client certificate '/[email protected]/OU=Company VPN' 5919:error:0D0680A8:asn1 encoding routines:ASN1_CHECK_TLEN:wrong tag:tasn_dec.c:1315: Loading private key failed (see above errors) Loading certificate failed. Aborting. Failed to open HTTPS connection to <ip> Failed to obtain WebVPN cookie When I run the same command with the same cert/key files on a Ubuntu 12.04 box, it works: openconnect \ --certificate=$VPN_CFG/alexander.crt \ --sslkey=$VPN_CFG/alexander.key \ --cafile=$VPN_CFG/Company_VPN_CA.crt \ --user=alexander --verbose <ip>:443 Attempting to connect to <ip>:443 Using certificate file $VPN_CFG/alexander.crt Extra cert from cafile: '/CN=Company AG VPN CA/O=Company AG/L=Zurich/ST=ZH/C=CH' SSL negotiation with <ip> Server certificate verify failed: self signed certificate Certificate from VPN server "<ip>" failed verification. Reason: self signed certificate Enter 'yes' to accept, 'no' to abort; anything else to view: yes Connected to HTTPS on <ip> GET https://<ip>/ […] Well… The error on the NAS is this: 5919:error:0D0680A8:asn1 encoding routines:ASN1_CHECK_TLEN:wrong tag:tasn_dec.c:1315: Any ideas, what's causing this? On Syno, I use OpenConnect 4.06. On Ubuntu, I just compiled and installed to a custom location OpenConnect 4.06 as well. Thanks, Alexander

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  • SQL Server 2008 Remote Access

    - by Timothy Strimple
    I'm having problems connecting to my SQL Server 2008 database from my computer. I have enabled remote connections as described in this answer (http://serverfault.com/questions/7798/how-to-enable-remote-connections-for-sql-server-2008). And I have added the ports listed on the microsoft support page to our Cisco Asa firewall and I'm still unable to connect. The error I'm getting from the SQL Management Studio is: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond.) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 10060) Once again, I have double and triple checked that remote connections are enabled under the database properties and that TCP is enabled on the configuration page. I've added tcp ports 135, 1433, 1434, 2382, 2383, and 4022 as well as udp 1434 to the firewall. I've also checked to make sure that 1433 is the static port that is set in the tcp section of the database server configuration. The ports should be configured correctly in the firewall since http/https and rdp are all working and the sql server ports are setup the same way. What am I missing here? Any help you could offer would be greatly appreciated. Edit: I can connect to the server via TCP on the internal network. The servers are colocated in a datacenter and I can connect from my production box to my development box and vice versa. To me that indicates a firewall issue, but I've no idea what else to open. I've even tried allowing all tcp ports to that server without success.

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  • Proper Network Infastructure Setup DMZ, VPN, Routing Hardware Question

    - by NickToyota
    Greetings Server Fault Universe, So here's a quick background. Two weeks ago I started a new position as the systems administrator for an expanding health services company of just over 100 persons. The individual I was replacing left the company with little to no notice. Basically, I have inherited a network of one main HQ (where I am situated) which has existed for over 10 years, with five smaller offices (less than 20 persons). I am trying to make sense of the current setup. The network at the HQ includes: Linksys RV082 Router providing internet access for employees and site to site VPN connecting the smaller offices (using an RV042 each). We have both cable and dsl lines connected to balance traffic (however this does not work at all and is not my main concern right now). Cisco Ironport appliance. This is the main gateway for our incoming and outgoing emails. This also has an external IP and internal IP. Lotus domino in and out email servers connected to the mentioned Cisco gateway. These also have an external IP and internal IP. Two windows 2003 and 2008 boxes running as domain controllers with DNS of course. These also have both an external IP and internal IP. Website and web mail servers also on both external and internal IPs. I am still confused as why there are so many servers connected directly to the internet. I am seriously looking to redesign this setup with proper security practices in mind (my highest concern) and am in need of a proper firewall setup for the external/internal servers along with a VPN solution about 50 employees. Budget is not a concern as I have been given some flexibility to purchase necessary solutions. I have been told Cisco ASA appliance may help. Does anyone out in the Server Fault Universe have some recommendations? Thank you all in advance.

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  • Site to Site VPN problem, connection succesful data only oneway?

    - by Charles
    To start things off, I'm not the actual Administrator for the VPN Server, but he is also at a loss so I thought I'd ask it here. I know it's a Cisco ASA Firewall/VPN. I have a router that connects to the Cisco VPN server, it does so succesfully. I can ping everything within the remote network and from the remote network into my own. I've been able to SSH into a remote server over VPN as well, it all seems to work; until there's some more data returned. A quick example would be an internal webserver. The default homepage simply redirects, so only sends back HTTP headers with a "Location:". I receive this on my computer, but when I request the actual page then (which isn't that big) I don't get a response at all - it just stalls. And it does this for other services as well, for example SSH. I can do a couple of things while connected, but if there's more than xx output it seems to do nothing. The connection remains active throughout all of this. Has anyone ever experienced anything like this before / know what the problem might be? Another user who has a site-to-site connection with this VPN using the -exact same setup- has no problems, the only difference is that I have around 200ms ping to the VPN server/network because of a very long distance (other continent).

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  • Routing for Two Hosts Behind a IPSec Tunnel

    - by Brent
    Network A 10.110.15.0/24 Firewall is .1 Host A is .2 Network B 10.110.16.0/24 Firewall is .1 Host B is .2 Two Cisco ASA's. IPSec tunnel with a crypo map that secures 10.110.15.0/24 <- 10.110.16.0/24. Let's say two hosts, 10.110.15.2 and 10.110.16.2 need to talk to each other. Normally I have to enter a persistent static route on a each host along the lines of: route add 10.110.16.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.110.15.1 metric 1 -p (on the "A" box) I also have to enter another persistent static route on the .16 host in order for the traffic to know how to get back to the .15 network. Note that the default for each machine IS the firewall, so .1. I have no problem adding persistent routes on Windows/ESX/*nux machines but what about a smart switch in the .16 network that I want to manage from the .15 network. Do I need to run a routing protocol? Do I need to have Reverse Route Injection enabled on both ends of the IPSec tunnel? Should I add a route on the firewall? If so, how do you formulate it? Does it get a metric of 1 and my default route 0.0.0.0 get a metric of 2?

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  • DNS requests failing from computers that can ping DNS server

    - by dunxd
    I have a situation where computers in some of our remote offices from time to time lose the ability to use our DNS server (in head office) to resolve hostnames. The offices are connected via VPN using Cisco ASA 5505 (VPNclient config rather than Site to Site). Ping to the IP address of the DNS server works. But nslookup will get a "no response from server" message. Computers in other locations can use DNS fine. This is an intermittent problem. One day/hour it works, another it doesn't. Other offices connected in the same way work when another doesn't. No config changes have been made on routers around the time we see the problem. Some users have reported that the problem goes away after doing a repair connection in Windows XP. I think this could be caused by the DNS cache being flushed as part of this - the Windows DNS cache makes the intermittent problem look less so because it caches failed lookups as well as successful ones. However, it is possible some other aspect of Windows is involved. Windows 7 clients have also had the same problem. Any pointers on deeper troubleshooting, or anyone else found this?

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  • Tips and Suggestions IP Address Re-Addressing?

    - by RSXAdmin
    Hello serverfault Universe, My ever evolving and expanding local area network is currently using a class-C address. My network consists of multiple subnets depending on site/location. 192.168.1.x is site HQ 192.168.5.x is secondary site 192.168.10.x is so on and so forth. Long story short - I have inherited this network design from the previous admin who has left the company which started off with a dozen people and now has just over 300 full time/part time employees. We do not yet have client VPN access; but we do have site to site VPN setup. My question is, in preparation for outside client access to my network via Cisco ASA, I would like to re-address the HQ site because I understand a 192.168.1.x or 192.168.0.x are not very good choices for a company subnet - it may conflict with a home user's LAN when connecting to my LAN, I believe? Through your experience, does anyone out there have any suggestions and tips on how I can proceed with re-addressing my subnets. If I designed this network I would have gone with a 10.0.0.0 (mask 255.255.255.0) so I am leaning towards changing it to fit. Thank you.

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  • What do the readonly attributes in diskpart really mean?

    - by marzipan
    I am wondering exactly what the meaning is of the "Read-only" disk and volume attributes that you can twiddle in diskpart on Windows 7. I am trying to set up an external USB drive as an installation medium for my own software, so I'd like to protect it against casual or inadvertent changes by users who it is given to, so they don't screw up the installation files they might need in the future. From what I can tell by experimentation with diskpart, the volume read-only attribute is actually stored on the physical disk somewhere, because I can set it and it shows up when I take the drive to another machine. This is great because my users can't (easily) change any of the files on the volume, or format it from Windows explorer. However, the disk read-only attribute seems to be just an aspect of how the current machine is accessing the drive. When I set it I can no longer delete the volume in the disk via Disk Management, but when I take the drive to another machine, the attribute is no longer set and in Disk Management I can delete the volume on the disk. I guess I'm not that worried about my users doing that, but I am annoyed that I don't understand what these attributes are really doing. Another thing that I don't understand is that the "volume" read-only attribute actually seems to be global to the disk - if I have two volumes on the disk, and I set the readonly flag on one of them, then it gets set on the other one too. ?!? I have the feeling I'm not searching for the right docs - all I'm finding is diskpart docs that give the syntax for twiddling these attributes, not what they really mean. Any pointers would be very welcome! Thanks, Asa

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  • Why isn't 'Low Fragmentation Heap' LFH enabled by default on Windows Server 2003?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been investigating an issue with a production Classic ASP website running on IIS6 which seems indicative of memory fragmentation. One of the suggestions of how to ameliorate this came from Stackoverflow: How can I find why some classic asp pages randomly take a real long time to execute?. It suggested flipping a setting in the site's global.asa file to 'turn on' Low Fragmentation Heap (LFH). The following code (with a registered version of the accompanying DLL) did the trick. Set LFHObj=CreateObject("TURNONLFH.ObjTurnOnLFH") LFHObj.TurnOnLFH() application("TurnOnLFHResult")=CStr(LFHObj.TurnOnLFHResult) (Really the code isn't that important to the question). An author of a linked post reported a seemingly magic resolution to this issue, and, reading around a little more, I discovered that this setting is enabled by default on Windows Server 2008. So, naturally, this left me a little concerned: Why is this setting not enabled by default on 2003, or If it works in 2008 why have Microsoft not issued a patch to enable it by default on 2003? I suspect the answer to the above is the same for both (if there is one). Obviously, we're testing it in a non-production environment, and doing an array of metrics and comparisons to deem if it does help us. But aside from this I'm really just trying to understand if there's any technical reason why we should do this, or if there are any gotchas that we need to be aware of.

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  • Disadvantages of enabling 'Low Fragmentation Heap' LFH on Windows Server 2003?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been investigating an issue with a production Classic ASP website running on IIS6 which seems indicative of memory fragmentation. One of the suggestions of how to ameliorate this came from Stackoverflow: How can I find why some classic asp pages randomly take a real long time to execute?. It suggested flipping a setting in the site's global.asa file to 'turn on' Low Fragmentation Heap (LFH). The following code (with a registered version of the accompanying DLL) did the trick. Set LFHObj=CreateObject("TURNONLFH.ObjTurnOnLFH") LFHObj.TurnOnLFH() application("TurnOnLFHResult")=CStr(LFHObj.TurnOnLFHResult) (Really the code isn't that important to the question). An author of a linked post reported a seemingly magic resolution to this issue, and, reading around a little more, I discovered that this setting is enabled by default on Windows Server 2008. So, naturally, this left me a little concerned: Why is this setting not enabled by default on 2003, or If it works in 2008 why have Microsoft not issued a patch to enable it by default on 2003? I suspect the answer to the above is the same for both (if there is one). Obviously, we're testing it in a non-production environment, and doing an array of metrics and comparisons to deem if it does help us. But aside from this I'm really just trying to understand if there's any technical reason why we should do this, or if there are any gotchas that we need to be aware of.

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  • Small TCP Window on WAN between 2 Locations

    - by Brent
    Site A: Denver datacenter. 60MBPS. Site B: Chicago. 100MBPS. ICMP pings: Packets: Sent = 176, Received = 176, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 74ms, Maximum = 94ms, Average = 75ms File transfer between sites that never goes past ~7MBPS: Windows Update download at 60MBPS+: Site to site: IPSec VPN using two Cisco 5520's. CPU at 3-4% and lots of memory to spare. The latency between to two sites is very acceptable so I can't see an issue why it is performing so slow when transferring between the two sites. I have found that any type of transfer (FTP, HTTP, Windows file shares) will never go above ~7MBPS. When the WAN was first setup, I was able to get transfers at 50-60MBPS, which is what is expected due to the WAN connection at the Site A at 60MBPS. Then a few days later, I was not able to get anything going faster than ~7MBPS. Is there a upstream router between Denver and Chicago causing this? I want to take the blame away from our setup as downloads from Windows Update go blazing fast and for the first few days after the site to site VPN came up, I was transferring VM images at 50-60MBPS. Our stack: HP P2000 MSA - HP C7000 Chassis - HP Flex-10 - Cisco Gigabit switch - Cisco ASA - WAN

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  • Exchange 2010 issuing NDRs to Hotmail/Live & few other domains on receipt of message

    - by John Patrick Dandison
    I'm working through a beast of an issue at the moment. Exchange 2010 single server on prem Hybrid deployment to Office 365 ESMTP filtering turned off on ASA Certain domains (most consistently, Hotmail/Live) cannot send us mail. At one point, we couldn't send out either, but I created a new Send Connector that forces HELO instead of EHLO. I turned on SMTP logging, an example of the failed inbound message connection is below. I've read that it could be that reverse DNS is the problem, i.e., the exchange banner smtp address needs to reverse-DNS back to the same IP. Since it's the default exchange connector, its banner is the server's name, but the DNS name of the MX record is different. I'm waiting for the PTR records to update to reflect the internal name as well. Is that the right direction? Is this all DNS or something different? SMTP Session Log (single failed session for illustration): SMTPSubmit SMTPAcceptAnySender SMTPAcceptAuthoritativeDomainSender AcceptRoutingHeaders 220 ExchangeServerName.internalSubDomain.example.com Microsoft ESMTP MAIL Service ready at Mon, 15 Oct 2012 09:57:24 -0400 EHLO col0-omc3-s4.col0.hotmail.com 250-ExchangeServerName.internalSubDomain.example.com Hello [65.55.34.142] 250-SIZE 250-PIPELINING 250-DSN 250-ENHANCEDSTATUSCODES 250-STARTTLS 250-X-ANONYMOUSTLS 250-AUTH NTLM LOGIN 250-X-EXPS GSSAPI NTLM 250-8BITMIME 250-BINARYMIME 250-CHUNKING 250-XEXCH50 250-XRDST 250 XSHADOW MAIL FROM:<[email protected]> 08CF5268DABBD9AA;2012-10-15T13:57:24.564Z;1 250 2.1.0 Sender OK RCPT TO:<[email protected]> 250 2.1.5 Recipient OK XXXX 1282 LAST Tarpit for '0.00:00:05' 500 5.3.3 Unrecognized command XXXXXXXXX from COL002-W38 ([65.55.34.135]) by col0-omc3-s4.col0.hotmail.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.3790.4675); Tarpit for '0.00:00:05' 500 5.3.3 Unrecognized command " XXXX 15 Oct 2012 06:57:24 -0700" Tarpit for '0.00:00:05' 500 5.3.3 Unrecognized command XXXXXXXXXXX <[email protected]> Tarpit for '0.00:00:05'

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  • Have some questions about setting up a VPN to my private cloud servers

    - by Pure.Krome
    I've got a number of Virtual Servers running at a pretty big Cloud provider. They are all running Windows 2008 R2. I have a CISCO ASA firewall in front of them. Currently, I've got all ports blocked except 80/443/21/3386 (for Remote Desktop). I asked to have a VPN enabled on the firewall and they said it's easy to do BUT I need to use the 3rd party Cisco software. Now, I don't want to get into a debate about it .. but we don't want to install anything extra on our -client- computers. We all use Windows 7 and we love using the built in VPN client to connect to other private LANS we have setup in other locations. So i'm wondering what options I have to create a VPN tunnel to our private cloud LAN? All our cloud servers are part of WORKGROUP, so there's no Active Directory .. nor do we want to install all that. Secondly, we know we can open up a firewall port - so any ports for starting a VPN is fine! Lastly, I was thinking of just using one of the existing servers as the VPN server (and using the Windows VPN software) .. but I'm not sure this is a good thing? Remember - we just want to use the baked in VPN software in Windows 7 .. which is PPTP or SSTP or L2TP/IPSEC. I would -LOVE- to use some free OSS software. For usernames/passwords? We'd probably just have one account .. like U:Hithere P:whatever.. so we don't need any hardcore account management, like Active Directory, etc. So does anyone have any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to add a WiFi HotSpot to an already established LAN, keep the two separate, and not modify the primary router?

    - by user12844
    I have a set up where my Cisco ASA is sitting in one facility, providing access to the Internet for two buildings. The two buildings are geographically separated by a Wireless Bridge spanning about 10 miles. All computers and equipment inside the LAN are on the same subnet (its pretty small) and we have WiFi AP's in both locations providing Wired and Wireless access to the LAN. Given all the BYOD (Ipods, and SmartPhones etc...) coming into the office as well as Visiting reps etc... we would like to also provide a non-secure, device independent (the devices cannot see or communicate with each other), and LAN independent (the devices cannot see or use anything on the LAN) HotSpot that anyone could use for their Devices that gives them access to the Internet ONLY without needing a password. I get that this could be possible at the facility with my Cisco if I messed with it and created VLANs etc... but then I would need to get it across my Bridge as well and don't think that would be possible without serious reconfiguration of everything. Would really like some kind of magic drop in solution that can kind of piggy back on my LAN without really needing to do very many if any changes to the current set up.

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  • cryptic error message: Length of Bind host variable exceeds MaxLength

    - by janetsmith
    Hi, I've encountered a cryptic error message thrown by Sybase IQ server. com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybSQLException: ASA Error -1001019: Function not supported on varchars longer than 255 Length of Bind host variable exceeds MaxLength , -- (df_Heap.cxx 2145) at com.sybase.jdbc2.tds.Tds.processEed(Tds.java:2636) at com.sybase.jdbc2.tds.Tds.nextResult(Tds.java:1996) at com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.ResultGetter.nextResult(ResultGetter.java:69) at com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybStatement.nextResult(SybStatement.java:204) at com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybStatement.nextResult(SybStatement.java:187) at com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybStatement.updateLoop(SybStatement.java:1642) at com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybStatement.executeUpdate(SybStatement.java:1625) at com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybPreparedStatement.executeUpdate(SybPreparedStatement.java:91) at ibs.dao.CM3RM1DAO.updateToTable(CM3RM1DAO.java:197) at ibs.dao.CM3RM1DAO.isXMLProcessed(CM3RM1DAO.java:88) at ibs.xml.parser.XMLParser.parsingXMLIntoBO(XMLParser.java:2125) at ibs.common.util.MainClass.main(MainClass.java:74) We have several columns (DESCRIPTION etc.) which are of type varchar(4000). However I can update them directly without having any error. And, I don't see any code specifying any bind variables, so I have no idea where the message comes from. This is the code (I've modified it a bit): String sql = "UPDATE TABLEX SET " + "COMPANY = ?, CUSTOMER_REFERENCE= ?, " + "STATUS = ?, CONTACT_FIRST_NAME = ?, CONTACT_LAST_NAME = ?, " + "SEVERITY = ?, PRIORITY_CODE = ?, REQUESTEDDATE = ?, " + "CLOSE_TIME = ?, LEAD_TIME = ?, CHANGE_REASON = ?, MODTIME = ? WHERE NUMBER = ?"; stmt = conn.prepareStatement(sql); for loop here { stmt.setString(...); . . stmt.executeUpdate(); } Any help is appreciated

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  • Sybase SQLAnywhere jConnect routines?

    - by jr
    I have a database which is part of a closed system and the end-user of the system would like me to write some reports using the data contains in a Sybase SQL Anywhere Database. The system doesn't provide the reports that they are looking for, but access to the data is available by connecting to this ASA database. The vendor of the software would likely prefer I not update the database and I am basically read-only as I am just doing some reporting. All is good, seal is not broken, warranty still intact, etc,etc.. My main problem is that I am using jConnect in order to read from the database, and jConnect requires some "jConnect Routines" to be installed into the database. I've found that I can make this happen by just doing an "Alter Database Upgrade JConnect On", but I just don't fully understand what this does and if there is any risks associated with it. So, my question is does anyone know exactly what jConnect routines are and how are they used? Is there any risk adding these to a database? Should I be worried about this?

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  • Why do I get "Error 6060" when I try to use DBD::Advantage with a 64-bit perl on Linux?

    - by WarheadsSE
    I realize that I am attempting to go beyond the "supported" behavior of the manf's released drivers for Perl, after all they have only released it in package with x86 .so's. However, since I cannot use their package with x64 Perl on a RHEL 5.4 x86_64 box, and maintaining a seperate install of x86 Perl just for this one package, I have made an attempt to get this puppy working thanks to released 64-bit .so's that accompany other driver packages for Advantage. What I have done to this point: download beta 10 DBI drivers, in 32 download beta 10 PHP extension (it contains 32 and x86_64) copy the required DLLs into the ads-lib location (eg /usr/local/ads/lib64) compile the Perl DBI driver with the path to the lib64's .so's Good compilation, good install, good use. The problem is that I always get : failed: [iAnywhere Solutions][Advantage SQL][ASA] Error 6060: Advantage Database Server not available on specified server. axServerConnect (SQL-HY000)(DBD: db_login/SQLConnect err=-1) Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: fixed package name in post title EDIT: Updated title. It appears that it's not just the x64 perl, but the RHEL 5.4 underneath that may be interfering. As commented below, I managed to shoe-horn a x86 perl onto the system, and compile the DBD::Advantage 9.99, and later replacing that with 9.10, and none of these x86 would connect either. Neither library (9.99 or 9.10) in either bit-edness will connect from this x86_64 server to the windows server's UNC path. I have successfully mounted this share without problems, but still I cannot seem to connect to the 9.1. I have tried: \hostname\PATH \FQDN\PATH \IP\PATH and all of these variations with the port (default) 6262 included. My windows machine connects fine, with both 9.1 and 9.99 from strawberry perl.

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  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

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  • why is css not being applied to this jquery anchor button?

    - by Tim
    I must be missing something very basic in the CSS. My jQuery anchor button is functional, but it's rendering as a simple underlined label, not asa rounded-corner UI button. I would be grateful if someone could point out the error in this simple example. Thanks !DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <HTML LANG="en-US"> <HEAD> <TITLE>button test</TITLE> <META http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="Sat, 22 May 2010 00:00:11 GMT"> <link href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <SCRIPT type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function() { $('a','.test').click(function(){showIntro();return false;}); }); function showIntro() { document.location.href="intro.htm"; } </script> <body> <div class='test'><a href="#">Button</a></div> </body> </html>

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  • Validating parameters according to a fixed reference

    - by James P.
    The following method is for setting the transfer type of an FTP connection. Basically, I'd like to validate the character input (see comments). Is this going overboard? Is there a more elegant approach? How do you approach parameter validation in general? Any comments are welcome. public void setTransferType(Character typeCharacter, Character optionalSecondCharacter) throws NumberFormatException, IOException { // http://www.nsftools.com/tips/RawFTP.htm#TYPE // Syntax: TYPE type-character [second-type-character] // // Sets the type of file to be transferred. type-character can be any // of: // // * A - ASCII text // * E - EBCDIC text // * I - image (binary data) // * L - local format // // For A and E, the second-type-character specifies how the text should // be interpreted. It can be: // // * N - Non-print (not destined for printing). This is the default if // second-type-character is omitted. // * T - Telnet format control (<CR>, <FF>, etc.) // * C - ASA Carriage Control // // For L, the second-type-character specifies the number of bits per // byte on the local system, and may not be omitted. final Set<Character> acceptedTypeCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'A','E','I','L'} )); final Set<Character> acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'N','T','C'} )); if( acceptedTypeCharacters.contains(typeCharacter) ) { if( new Character('A').equals( typeCharacter ) || new Character('E').equals( typeCharacter ) ){ if( acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters.contains(optionalSecondCharacter) ) { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter + " " + optionalSecondCharacter ); } } else { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter ); } } }

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  • Is it possible to return a list of numbers from a Sybase function?

    - by ps_rs4
    I'm trying to overcome a very serious performance issue in which Sybase refuses to use the primary key index on a large table because one of the required fields is specified indirectly through another table - or, in other words; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = 123 runs in ms but SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE, LTLTBL WHERE KFIELD = LTLTBL.LOOKUP AND LTLTBL.UNIQUEID = 'STRINGREPOF123' takes 30 - 40 seconds. I've managed to work around this first problem by using a function that basically lets me do this; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = MYFUNC('STRINGREPOF123') which also runs in ms. The problem, however, is that this approach only works when there is a single value returned by MYFUNCT but I have some cases where it may return 2 or 3 values. I know that the SQL SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD IN (123,456,789) also returns in millis so I'd like to have a function that returns a list of possible values rather than just a single one - is this possible? Sadly the application is running on Sybase ASA 9. Yes I know it is old and is scheduled to be refreshed but there's nothing I can do about it now so I need logic that will work with this version of the DB. Thanks in advance for any assistance on this matter.

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  • Multiple subnets on isc-dhcp-server using ddns with bind9

    - by legioxi
    On my network I have two subnets: 10.100.1.0/24 - Wired/wireless 10.100.7.0/24 - VPN Both subnets are served by isc-dhcp-server running on a Debian VM. This same VM runs bind9 for my DNS. ISC-DHCP-SERVER is configured to use DDNS and update BIND9 with hosts/IPs. Everything runs great until a device drops off the wired/wireless network and pops onto the VPN. When connecting on the VPN, a DHCP lease is handed out on the new subnet but DDNS does not update BIND9. Since the device has A/TXT/PTR records it appears ISC-DHCP-SERVER won't switch them to the new IP. The logs show: Connect to wireless: Nov 6 20:55:13 core-server named[2417]: client 127.0.0.1#57697: updating zone 'internal.mydomain.com/IN': adding an RR at 'demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com' A Nov 6 20:55:13 core-server named[2417]: client 127.0.0.1#57697: updating zone 'internal.mydomain.com/IN': adding an RR at 'demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com' TXT Nov 6 20:55:13 core-server dhcpd: DHCPACK on 10.100.1.160 to FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF (demo-iphone) via eth0 Nov 6 20:55:13 core-server dhcpd: Added new forward map from demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com to 10.100.1.160 Nov 6 20:55:13 core-server dhcpd: Added reverse map from 160.49.21.172.in-addr.arpa. to demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com Switch to VPN: Nov 6 20:56:34 core-server dhcpd: DHCPOFFER on 10.100.7.101 to BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB (demo-iphone) via 10.100.7.0 Nov 6 20:56:34 core-server named[2417]: client 127.0.0.1#57697: updating zone 'internal.mydomain.com/IN': update unsuccessful: demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com: 'name not in use' prerequisite not satisfied (YXDOMAIN) Nov 6 20:56:34 core-server dhcpd: DHCPREQUEST for 10.100.7.101 (10.100.1.2) from BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB (demo-iphone) via 10.100.7.0 Nov 6 20:56:34 core-server dhcpd: DHCPACK on 10.100.7.101 to BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB (demo-iphone) via 10.100.7.0 Nov 6 20:56:34 core-server named[2417]: client 127.0.0.1#57697: updating zone 'internal.mydomain.com/IN': update unsuccessful: demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com/TXT: 'RRset exists (value dependent)' prerequisite not satisfied (NXRRSET) Nov 6 20:56:34 core-server dhcpd: Forward map from demo-iphone.internal.mydomain.com to 10.100.7.101 FAILED: Has an address record but no DHCID, not mine. One thing to note is that the MAC of the device when connecting via VPN is the MAC of my Cisco ASA5512X and not the actual device. The ASA is relaying the DHCP request from the VPN client to the VM running ISC-DHCP-SERVER. Is there a way to get DDNS working in this scenario?

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  • resolve access violation exception (0xC0000005) crashing IIS app pool

    - by Joseph
    IIS 7.5, server 2008 r2, classic asp and asp .net 2.0, 3.5 website same server, same app pool. The past 4 weeks thousands of these errors 'C0000005' are occurring. I know from IIS debug diag tool that 'C0000005' is an access violation error. Below is the top line from my debug diag report. In w3wp__PID__6656__Date__01_08_2011__Time_01_42_46AM__281__First Chance Access Violation.dmp the assembly instruction at asp!CActiveScriptEngine::GetApplication+27 in \\?\C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\asp.dll from Microsoft Corporation has caused an access violation exception (0xC0000005) when trying to read from memory location 0x00000000 on thread 29 Thread 29 - System ID 6736 Entry point 0x00000000 Create time 1/8/2011 12:46:26 AM Time spent in user mode 0 Days 00:00:00.140 Time spent in kernel mode 0 Days 00:00:00.078 Function Source asp!CActiveScriptEngine::GetApplication+27 vbscript!COleScript::GetDebugApplicationCoreNoRef+2b vbscript!COleScript::FDebuggerEnabled+30 vbscript!COleScript::SetScriptSite+cd asp!CActiveScriptEngine::Init+125 asp!CScriptManager::GetEngine+252 asp!AllocAndLoadEngines+28f asp!ExecuteGlobal+17a asp!Execute+b5 asp!CHitObj::ViperAsyncCallback+3fc asp!CViperAsyncRequest::OnCall+6a comsvcs!CSTAActivityWork::STAActivityWorkHelper+32 ole32!EnterForCallback+f4 ole32!SwitchForCallback+1a8 ole32!PerformCallback+a3 ole32!CObjectContext::InternalContextCallback+15b ole32!CObjectContext::DoCallback+1c comsvcs!CSTAActivityWork::DoWork+12f comsvcs!CSTAThread::DoWork+18 comsvcs!CSTAThread::ProcessQueueWork+37 comsvcs!CSTAThread::WorkerLoop+135 msvcrt!_endthreadex+44 msvcrt!_endthreadex+ce kernel32!BaseThreadInitThunk+e ntdll!__RtlUserThreadStart+70 ntdll!_RtlUserThreadStart+1b BELOW is the faulting module. ASP report Executing ASP requests 0 Request(s) ASP templates cached 0 Template(s) ASP template cache size 0.00 Bytes Loaded ASP applications 1 Application(s) ASP.DLL Version 7.5.7600.16620 ASP application report ASP application metabase key Physical Path Virtual Root Session Count 0 Session(s) Request Count 0 Request(s) Session Timeout 0 minutes(s) Path to Global.asa Server side script debugging enabled False Client side script debugging enabled False Out of process COM servers allowed False Session state turned on False Write buffering turned on False Application restart enabled False Parent paths enabled False ASP Script error messages will be sent to browser False ASP!CACTIVESCRIPTENGINE::GETAPPLICATION+27In w3wp__PID__6656__Date__01_08_2011__Time_01_42_46AM__281__First Chance Access Violation.dmp the assembly instruction at asp!CActiveScriptEngine::GetApplication+27 in \\?\C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\asp.dll from Microsoft Corporation has caused an access violation exception (0xC0000005) when trying to read from memory location 0x00000000 on thread 29 recent events: server was being brute forced by hackers all of Dec and probably earlier, they weren't able to gain access but did get a virus on and blasted out spam. insatlled AVG and about the 17 or 22 latest patches. after that the app pool started crashing and the server has crashed a couple times since then. I am in no mans land as I am a developer and not a sys admin but I have to assume many roles. So I'm reaching out for help. Sometimes I will see hundreds of these 'C0000005' scriptengine errors in the event log in a matter of seconds and other times just a few times an hour. I googled this line 'ASP!CACTIVESCRIPTENGINE::GETAPPLICATION' and got nothing. Its like the function don't exist or something. I have spent many hours google-ing to no avail and am now turning to the experts on the forums. Thank you for your help

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  • IT merger - self-sufficient site with domain controller VS thin clients outpost with access to termi

    - by imagodei
    SITUATION: A larger company acquires a smaller one. IT infrastructure has to be merged. There are no immediate plans to change the current size or role of the smaller company - the offices and production remain. It has a Win 2003 SBS domain server, Win 2000 file server, linux server for SVN and internal Wikipedia, 2 or 3 production machines, LTO backup solution. The servers are approx. 5 years old. Cisco network equippment (switches, wireless, ASA). Mail solution is a hosted Exchange. There are approx. 35 desktops and laptops in the company. IT infrastructure unification: There are 2 IT merging proposals. 1.) Replacing old servers, installing Win Server 2008 domain controller, and setting up either subdomain or domain trust to a larger company. File server and other servers remain local and synchronization should be set up to a centralized location in larger company. Similary with the backup - it remains local and if needed it should be replicated to a centralized location. Licensing is managed by smaller company. 2.) All servers are moved to a centralized location in larger company. As many desktop machines as possible are replaced by thin clients. The actual machines are virtualized and hosted by Terminal server at the same central location. Citrix solutions will be used. Only router and site-2-site VPN connection remain at the smaller company. Backup internet line to insure near 100% availability is needed. Licensing is mainly managed by larger company. Only specialized software for PCs that will not be virtualized is managed by smaller company. I'd like to ask you to discuss both solutions a bit. In your opinion, which is better from the operational point of view? Which is more reliable, cheaper in the long run? Easier to manage from the system administrator's point of view? Easier on the budget and easier to maintain from IT department's point of view? Does anybody have any experience with the second option and how does it perform in production environment? Pros and cons of both? Your input will be of great significance to me. Thank you very much!

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