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  • Multiple foreign keys from one table linking to single primary key in second table

    - by croker10
    Hi all, I have a database with three tables, a household table, an adults table and a users table. The Household table contains two foreign keys, iAdult1ID and iAdult2ID. The Users table has a iUserID primary key and the Adult table has a corresponding iUserID foreign key. One of the columns in the Users table is strUsername, an e-mail address. I am trying to write a query that will allow me to search for an e-mail address for either adult that has a relation to the household. So I have two questions, assuming that all the values are not null, how can I do this? And two, in reality, iAdult2ID can be null, is it still possible to write a query to do this? Thanks for your help. Let me know if you need any more information.

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  • Multiple Foriegn Keys from One Table linking to single Primary Key in second Table

    - by croker10
    Hi all, I have a database with three tables, a household table, an adults table and a users table. The Household table contains two foreign keys, iAdult1ID and iAdult2ID. The Users table has a iUserID primary key and the Adult table has a corresponding iUserID foreign key. One of the columns in the Users table is strUsername, an e-mail address. I am trying to write a query that will allow me to search for an e-mail address for either adult that has a relation to the household. So I have two questions, assuming that all the values are not null, how can I do this? And two, in reality, iAdult2ID can be null, is it still possible to write a query to do this? Thanks for your help. Let me know if you need any more information.

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  • Unexpected key-value behavior in a Core Data Context

    - by ????
    If I create an array of strings (via key-value coding) containing the names of a Managed Object entity's attributes which are stored in the App Delegate the first time, I get an array of NSStrings without any problems. If I subsequently make the same call later from the same entry point in code, that same collection becomes an array of NULL objects- even though nothing in the Core Data Context has changed. One unappealing work-around involves re-creating the string array every time, but I'm wondering if anyone has a guess as to what's happening behind the scenes. // Return an array of strings with the names of attributes the Activity entity - (NSArray *)activityAttributeNames { #pragma mark ALWAYS REFRESH THE ENTITY NAMES? //if (activityAttributeNames == nil) { // Create an entity pointer for Activity NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Activity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSArray *entityAttributeArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:[[entity attributesByName] allValues]]; // Extract the names of the attributes with Key-Value Coding activityAttributeNames = [entityAttributeArray valueForKeyPath:@"name"]; [entityAttributeArray release]; //} return activityAttributeNames; }

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  • How to handle Foreign key for optional field in .NET

    - by brz dot net
    What is the best way to handle following situation? A dropdown(for master table) is optional in a particular form. But, In database table the field is constrained with foreign key. If user don't select from dropdown then It creates problem because of foreign key. One solution is to create default option in master table and use it in case of blank selection. but in dropdown, we need to handle this to show on top. Is it perfect solution? Is there any other optimized solution for this? Thanks

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  • How do I bind a key to "the function represented by the following key sequence"?

    - by katrielalex
    I'm just starting to learn emacs (woohoo!) and I've been mucking around in my .emacs quite happily. Unfortunately, I don't know Lisp yet, so I'm having issues with the basics. I've already remapped a few keys until I fix my muscle memory: (global-set-key (kbd "<f9>") 'recompile) That's fine. But how can I tell a key to 'simulate pressing several keys'? For instance, I don't know, make <f1> do the same as C-u 2 C-x } (widen buffer by two chars). One way is to look up that C-x } calls shrink-window-horizontally, and do some sort of lambda thing. This is of course the neat and elegant way (how do you do this?). But surely there's a way to define <f1> to send the keystrokes C-u 2 C-x }?

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  • How to detect tab key pressing in C#?

    - by user342325
    I want to detect when tab key is pressed in a textBox and focus the next textbox in the panel. I have tried out keyPressed method and keyDown method. But when I run the program and debug those methods are not calling when the tab key is pressed. Here is my code. private void textBoxName_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Tab) { textBoxUsername.Focus(); } } private void textBoxName_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar==(char)Keys.Tab) { textBoxUsername.Focus(); } } Please correct me.Thank you.

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  • Python raises a KeyError (for an out of dictionary key) even though the key IS in the dictionary

    - by ignorantslut
    I'm getting a KeyError for an out of dictionary key, even though I know the key IS in fact in the dictionary. Any ideas as to what might be causing this? print G.keys() returns the following: ['24', '25', '20', '21', '22', '23', '1', '3', '2', '5', '4', '7', '6', '9', '8', '11', '10', '13', '12', '15', '14', '17', '16', '19', '18'] but when I try to access a value in the dictionary on the next line of code... for w in G[v]: #note that in this example, v = 17 I get the following error message: KeyError: 17 Any help, tips, or advice are all appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How do I name an array key with a key inside the array

    - by Confused
    I have some data, yes, data. This data came from a MySQL query and it will always contain 4 items, always. I want to cache that data in an array table for use later within a web page but I want to keep the keys from the query and separate out each grouping within a multidimensional array. However to save time iterating through the array each time I want to find a given group of data, I want to call the keys of the first array the same as the ID key which is always the first key within each four items. At the minute I'm using this code: function mysql_fetch_full_result_array($result) { $table_result=array(); $r=0; while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)){ $arr_row=array(); $c=0; while ($c < mysql_num_fields($result)) { $col = mysql_fetch_field($result, $c); $arr_row[$col -> name] = $row[$col -> name]; $c++; } $table_result[$r] = $arr_row; $r++; } return $table_result; } I'm currently testing this using 3 unique users, so I'm getting three rows back from the query and the data from this function ends up in the format: [0]=> . . [id] => 1 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [1]=> . . [id] => 34 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [2]=> . . [id] => 56 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data So how do I alter the code to instead of the keys [0], [1], [2] give me the output: [1]=> . . [id] => 1 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [34]=> . . [id] => 34 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [56]=> . . [id] => 56 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data I don't mind if the main array keys are strings of numbers rather than numbers but I'm a bit stuck, I tried changing the $table_result[$r] = $arr_row; part to read $table_result[$result['id']] = $arr_row; but that just outputs an array of one person. I know I need another loop but I'm struggling to work out how to write it.

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  • Retail windows xp prof sp 2 Lost key but have the genuine cd , what to do?

    - by AdityaGameProgrammer
    I had recently formatted my system only to find out i have lost the cd key to my original cd. i had used the option to enter the product key later. Yes, i know its a stupid thing to do but i bought the cd in 2008 from a retail store and i lost the original packaging. the actual label on the cd is includes service pack version 2002 .@2004 microsoft corporation reserved. There are some numbers on the back side of the cd in the inner ring. i cant for the life of me figure out how what is the use of the genuine cd i have with me when i cant seem to activate it. what exactly is the advantage of having the original cd in your possession in situations like this?. i have tried the unattend.txt and it doesnt contain the correct key. and there does not exist any winnnt.sif file in the cd. where on the cd or in it can i find the product id information i stay in india . and my attempts at trying the microsoft support site keeps getting me directed to page which says they had stopped support for windows xp in 2011. lets say by some miracle i do contact microsoft. what information would i have to provide them? and would they be giving me the product key for my cd key from their database? or a new key?

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  • How To Map Fn+Key (Multiple Keys) To Other Key in Windows?

    - by Mohamed Meligy
    I've got a ThinkPad W530 laptop, which replaces the Application Key (also known as Menu Key or Mouse Right Click key, usually between Right Alt and Right Ctrl) with the Print Screen key. So, I need to replace Prt/Scr with Application key. That's easy, all key mapping software like SharpKeys or whatever can do that. There are even a few threads in SuperUser about dozen of those. But then, the different part to this question from the others (which is why it's not a duplicate, I think) is that I also don't want to completely lose the Prt/Scr key. I'm thinking about replacing it with either: Fn + Prt/Scr Fn + F2 These seemed to have no special meaning, so, I'm not overriding anything, just adding functionality to either of them (one of them, not both), to be the new Prt/Scr key. I couldn't find any key mapping software that can detect or let me select more than one key to map, even when the other key is something like Fn key (although they all can map Fn key itself, without combination). I know it may make sense why this restriction exists, but it'll be really useful if I can override it though. Do you know any program that can do that? Thanks a lot.

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  • dynamically horizontal scalable key value store

    - by Zubair
    Hi, Is there a key value store that will give me the following: Allow me to simply add and remove nodes and will redstribute the data automatically Allow me to remove nodes and still have 2 extra data nodes to provide redundancy Allow me to store text or images up to 1GB in size Can store small size data up to 100TB of data Fast (so will allow queries to be performed on top of it) Make all this transparent to the client Works on Ubuntu/FreeBSD or Mac Free or open source I basically want something I can use a "single", and not have to worry about having memcached, a db, and several storage components so yes, I do want a database "silver bullet" you could say. Thanks Zubair Answers so far: MogileFS on top of BackBlaze - As far as I can see this is just a filesystem, and after some research it only seems to be appropriate for large image files Tokyo Tyrant - Needs lightcloud. This doesn't auto scale as you add new nodes. I did look into this and it seems it is very fast for queries which fit onto a single node though Riak - This is one I am looking into myself, but I don't have any results yet Amazon S3 - Is anyone using this as their sole persistance layer in production? From what I have seen it seems to be used for storage of images as complex queries are too expensive @shaman suggested Cassandra - definitely one I am looking into So far it seems that there is no database or key value store that fulfills the criteria I mentioned, not even after offering a bounty of 100 points did the question get answered!

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  • Get the current array key in a multi dimensional array

    - by johlton
    Hi *, I have a session array *$_SESSION['cart']* with some items in it. The structure ist like this (via *print_r*): Array ( [2-1] => Array ( [color] => 7 [articlenumber] => WRG70 10 [quantity] => 1 [price] => 17.50 ) [3-8] => Array ( [color] => 2 [articlenumber] => QRG50 02 [quantity] => 1 [price] => 13.50 ) ) Looping over the values for display is fine ... foreach($_SESSION['cart'] as $item_array) { foreach($item_array as $item => $value) { echo $value . ' | '; } } ... since it results in something like this: 7 | WRG70 10 | 1 | 17.50 | 2 | QRG50 02 | 1 | 13.50 | But Now: How can I output the matching key (e.g. '2-1') as well? I tried some array functions like key() & current but couldn't get it to work (one of these days). Any quick hint on this? Thanks a lot and best from Berlin Fabian

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  • Encrypt a file base upon a pregenerated "key" C#

    - by Anubis
    Hello everyone. I'm trying to determine the best course of action to implement a simple "licensing" system with a partner of mine. The concept is: Generate an encrypted value based upon several internal hardware components. Have the customer send this value to us which we will implement into our key generator. Once we have that, we add any other restrictions on the license (user, expires, etc.). From there we generate a file which we send to the customer they can add to their installation and voila, happy people about. I have the first part all done. My next part is trying to figure out which encryption methodology I would need to use. I already know Symmetric Encryption is pretty much the only route I can take. Most of the information I have found involves .NET already creating a key from its own internal methods. That's a bit of background, my question is: "Which encryption method could I use which would allow me to encrypt the restrictions based upon the "id" I was given from the customer's computer?" I'm writing this in C# by the way. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! Take Care!

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • Synergy 1.4.2 Linux server, OSX client, Media/Function key mapping issues

    - by at165dB
    I'm using an Apple bluetooth keybord to control my Linux synergy server. SSH tunneling, Mouse, Keyboard, and Copy&Paste all work. Linux sees all the media/app keys that are on top of the F# keys correctly. However if I press any of those keys while controlling my OSX client, nothing happens on the client. Running synergys with -d DEBUG1 I can see the following keycode info: Pressing the "dim monitor" key that also serves as F1 generates: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=232, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 If I press "fn" and the same key, I can see it sending what I'm assuming is an F1: event: KeyPress code=67, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=61374 mask=0x2000 button=0x0043 send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=61374, mask=0x2000, button=0x0043 new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=67, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=61374 mask=0x2000 button=0x0043 send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=61374, mask=0x2000, button=0x0043 I'm guessing I need to tweak my synergy.conf so that the server sends keys that it currently isn't. I'm also not sure what I need to do to tweak the keys that it is sending, but are not working. Below are all the other keys I'm having issues with. Does anyone have any idea how I can enable their functionality? brighten monitor: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=233, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 expose: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=128, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 dashboard: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=212, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 dim keyboard: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=237, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 brighten keyboard: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=238, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 rewind: event: KeyPress code=173, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57521 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ad send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57521, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ad new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=173, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57521 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ad send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57521, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ad play/pause: event: KeyPress code=172, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57523 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ac send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57523, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ac new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=172, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57523 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ac send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57523, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ac fastforward: event: KeyPress code=171, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57520 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ab send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57520, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ab new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=171, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57520 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ab send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57520, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ab mute: event: KeyPress code=121, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57517 mask=0x2000 button=0x0079 send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57517, mask=0x2000, button=0x0079 new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=121, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57517 mask=0x2000 button=0x0079 send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57517, mask=0x2000, button=0x0079 volume down: onKeyDown id=57518 mask=0x2000 button=0x007a send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57518, mask=0x2000, button=0x007a new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=122, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57518 mask=0x2000 button=0x007a send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57518, mask=0x2000, button=0x007a volume up: event: KeyPress code=123, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57519 mask=0x2000 button=0x007b send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57519, mask=0x2000, button=0x007b new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=123, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57519 mask=0x2000 button=0x007b send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57519, mask=0x2000, button=0x007b eject: event: KeyPress code=169, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57345 mask=0x2000 button=0x00a9 send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57345, mask=0x2000, button=0x00a9 new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=169, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57345 mask=0x2000 button=0x00a9 send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57345, mask=0x2000, button=0x00a9

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  • Does ssh key need to be named id_rsa?

    - by dustyprogrammer
    I have come across this problem a couple of times when creating build servers with keyed authentication. I was wondering if anyone else has experience this. I have a couple of keys for my current user that may connect to different machines. Let say machine1 and machine2. I have pasted my public key into their respective authorized_keys file. The first one I have named the first key id_rsa and the second key bender. When I try to connect to bender I get the following output with my verbose ssh connection debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /home/bozo/.ssh/.ssh/identity debug1: Trying private key: /home/bozo/.ssh/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Trying private key: /home/bozo/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). It only offers the id_rsa key, as you can see above. Is this correct? If so why? How do I get it to offer more keys? I know it is a problem I see intermittently, because I at home I have multiple keys without much trouble. I would also appreciate a overview on how the pub and private keys interact with the client and server. I thought I had a pretty decent idea, but apparently I am missing something. Please and thank you.

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  • OpenSSL without prompt

    - by JP19
    Hi, I am using following code to generate keys: apt-get -qq -y install openssl; mkdir -p /etc/apache2/ssl; openssl genrsa -des3 -out server.key 1024; openssl req -new -key server.key -out server.csr; cp server.key server.key.org; openssl rsa -in server.key.org -out server.key; openssl x509 -req -days 12000 -in server.csr -signkey server.key -out server.crt; mv server.crt /etc/apache2/ssl/cert.pem; mv server.key /etc/apache2/ssl/cert.key; rm -f server.key.orig; rm -f server.csr How can I skip the passphrase prompting? thanks JP

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  • Creating deterministic key pairs in javascript for use in encrypting/decrypting/signing messages

    - by SlickTheNick
    So I have been searching everywhere and havn't been able to find anything with the sufficient information I need.. so Im a bit stumped on this one at the moment What I am trying to do is create a public/private key pair (like PGP) upon a users account creation, based on their passphrase and a random seed. The public key would be saved on the server, and ideally the private key would never be seen by the server whatsoever. The user could then sign in, and send a message to another user. Before the message is sent, the senders key pair would be re-generated on the fly based on their credentials (and maybe a password prompt) and used to encrypt the message. The receiver would then use their own re-generated private key to decrypt said message. The server itself should never see any plaintext passwords, private keys or readable messages. Bit unsure how on how I could go about implementing this. Iv been looking into PGP, specifically openPGP.js. The main trouble I am having is being able to regenerate the key-pair based off a specific seed. PGP seems to have a random output even if the inputs are the same. Storing the private key in a cookie or in HTML5 storage or something also isnt really an option, too unreliable. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • Java HashSet key/value pair

    - by harley
    Why does Java not provide functions to get at the key/value pairs in a HashSet like in Hashtable? It seems like a real pain to have to iterate over it every time you need to get at something. Or am I just a newb missing something?

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  • Unbind Key Presses

    - by Doug
    I'm making a game that involves, like all games, key presses. Only left and right arrow and the Space Bar. They work, but the browser is pre-set to scroll left, right, or jump down on those keys. Is there any way to unbind those keys in the code? Thanks.

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  • How To Disable Subsonic's Primary Key Autoincrement?

    - by mamoo
    Hi everybody, I'm using Subsonic (simplerepository) and SQLite, and I have a class with an Int64 property marked as [SubSonicPrimaryKey]: [SubSonicPrimaryKey] public Int64 MyID; which is transformed into: [MyID] integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT Is it possible to disable the AUTOINCREMENT feature?

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  • Foreign Key Relationship in Rails

    - by Steve
    Hi...I am a beginner in Rails and I read that the Rails enforces the foreign key relationships at the model level and also at the database level in the migration file, while creating the table. Is it really necessary and what kind of advantage does it provide

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  • Performance for myCollection.Add() vs. myCollection["key"]

    - by Atomiton
    When dealing with a collection of key/value pairs is there any difference between using its Add() method and directly assigning it? For example, a HtmlGenericControl will have an Attributes Collection: var anchor = new HtmlGenericControl("a"); // These both work: anchor.Attributes.Add("class", "xyz"); anchor.Attributes["class"] = "xyz"; Is it purely a matter of preference, or is there a reason for doing one or the other?

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  • OperationalError: foreign key mismatch

    - by Niek de Klein
    I have two tables that I'm filling, 'msrun' and 'feature'. 'feature' has a foreign key pointing to the 'msrun_name' column of the 'msrun' table. Inserting in the tables works fine. But when I try to delete from the 'feature' table I get the following error: pysqlite2.dbapi2.OperationalError: foreign key mismatch From the rules of foreign keys in the manual of SQLite: - The parent table does not exist, or - The parent key columns named in the foreign key constraint do not exist, or - The parent key columns named in the foreign key constraint are not the primary key of the parent table and are not subject to a unique constraint using collating sequence specified in the CREATE TABLE, or - The child table references the primary key of the parent without specifying the primary key columns and the number of primary key columns in the parent do not match the number of child key columns. I can see nothing that I'm violating. My create tables look like this: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `msrun`; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `msrun` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `msrun` ( `msrun_name` VARCHAR(40) PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL , `description` VARCHAR(500) NOT NULL ); DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `feature`; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `feature` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `feature` ( `feature_id` VARCHAR(40) PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL , `intensity` DOUBLE NOT NULL , `overallquality` DOUBLE NOT NULL , `charge` INT NOT NULL , `content` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL , `msrun_msrun_name` VARCHAR(40) NOT NULL , CONSTRAINT `fk_feature_msrun1` FOREIGN KEY (`msrun_msrun_name` ) REFERENCES `msrun` (`msrun_name` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX `id_UNIQUE` ON `feature` (`feature_id` ASC); CREATE INDEX `fk_feature_msrun1` ON `feature` (`msrun_msrun_name` ASC); As far as I can see the parent table exists, the foreign key is pointing to the right parent key, the parent key is a primary key and the foreign key specifies the primary key column. The script that produces the error: from pysqlite2 import dbapi2 as sqlite import parseFeatureXML connection = sqlite.connect('example.db') cursor = connection.cursor() cursor.execute("PRAGMA foreign_keys=ON") inputValues = ('example', 'description') cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `msrun` VALUES(?, ?)", inputValues) featureXML = parseFeatureXML.Reader('../example_scripts/example_files/input/featureXML_example.featureXML') for feature in featureXML.getSimpleFeatureInfo(): inputValues = (featureXML['id'], featureXML['intensity'], featureXML['overallquality'], featureXML['charge'], featureXML['content'], 'example') # insert the values into msrun using ? for sql injection safety cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `feature` VALUES(?,?,?,?,?,?)", inputValues) connection.commit() for feature in featureXML.getSimpleFeatureInfo(): cursor.execute("DELETE FROM `feature` WHERE feature_id = ?", (str(featureXML['id']),))

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