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• Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

  - by Jeremy Dowell

  I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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• Java the little console game won't repeat?

  - by Jony Kale

  Okay, what I have so far is: You enter the game, and write "spin" to the console. Program will enter the while loop. In the while loop, if entered int is -1, return to the back (Set console input back to "", and let the user select what game he would like to play). Problem: Instead of going back, and selecting "spin" again, the program exits? Why is it happening? How can I fix this? private static Scanner console = new Scanner(System.in); private static Spin spin = new Spin(); private static String inputS = ""; private static int inputI = 0; private static String[] gamesArray = new String[] {"spin", "tof"}; private static boolean spinWheel = false; private static boolean tof = false; public static void main (String[] args) { if (inputS.equals("")) { System.out.println("Welcome to the system!"); System.out.print("Please select a game: "); inputS = console.nextLine(); } while (inputS.equals("spin")) { System.out.println("Welcome to the spin game! Please write 1 to spin. and -1 to exit back"); inputI = console.nextInt(); switch (inputI) { case 1: break; case -1: inputI = 0; inputS = ""; break; } } }

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• Easiest RPC client method in PHP

  - by T.K.

  I've been asked to help a friend's company to bring up a web application. I have very limited time and I reluctantly accepted the request, at one condition. As most of the logic goes on in the back-end, I suggested that I would finish the complete back-end only, allowing a front-end developer to simply interface with my backend. I plan to do the back-end in Java EE or Python (with Pylons). It does not really matter at this point. I plan to have my back-end completely ready and unit-tested, so that my input will hardly be needed after my work is done. I know they have a PHP programmer, but as far as I could tell he is a real rookie. I want him to basically interface with my backend's services in the easiest possible way, with no way of him "stuffing" it up. It's basically a CRUD-only application. I could implement the backend as accessible through a webservice such as XML-RPC or SOAP. Even a RESTful API could be possible. However, my main objective is to make something that complete "noob" PHP programmer can easily interface with without getting confused. Preferably I do not even want to talk to him because I generally have an extremely busy schedule, and doing "support calls" is not something I am willing to do. Which approach should I choose? I would welcome any suggestions and inputs!

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• How can I suppress the vertical gridlines in a ggplot2 plot while retaining the x-axis labels?

  - by Tarek

  This is a follow-on from this question, in which I was trying to suppress the vertical gridlines. The solution, as provided by learnr, was to add scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA), but this had the side effect of also suppressing the x-axis labels, as well. I am totally happy to write the labels back in by hand, but it's not clear to me how to figure out where the labels should go. The other option is to suppress all gridlines (using opts( panel.grid.major = theme_blank()) or some such) and then drawing back in just the major horizontal gridlines. Again, the problem here is how to figure out what the breaks are in the plot to supply to geom_hline(). So, essentially, my options are: Suppress vertical gridlines and x-axis labels (using scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA) ) and add the x-axis labels back in. Suppress all gridlines (using opts( panel.grid.major = theme_blank()) ) and add the major horizontal gridlines back in using geom_hline(). Here are the two options: library(ggplot2) data <- data.frame(x = 1:10, y = c(3,5,2,5,6,2,7,6,5,4)) # suppressing vertical gridlines and x-axis labels # need to re-draw x-axis labels ggplot(data, aes(x, y)) + geom_bar(stat = 'identity') + scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA) + opts( panel.grid.major = theme_line(size = 0.5, colour = '#1391FF'), panel.grid.minor = theme_blank(), panel.background = theme_blank(), axis.ticks = theme_blank() ) # suppressing all gridlines # need to re-draw horizontal gridlines, probably with geom_hbar() ggplot(data, aes(x, y)) + geom_bar(stat = 'identity') + scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA) + opts( panel.grid.major = theme_blank(), panel.grid.minor = theme_blank(), panel.background = theme_blank(), axis.ticks = theme_blank() )

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• Problem pushing multiple view controllers onto navigation controller stack

  - by Jim

  Hi, I am trying to push three view controllers onto the navigation controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:one animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:two animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:three animated:YES]; The desired behavior is that view three will show, and when the back button is pressed it will go to view two and then to view one... What actually happens is that view one is visible and pressing back goes to view two and then back again it goes to view one. Which is to say that view one is shown instead of view three. Very strangely, looking at the viewController array of the navigationController after the calls above show the right entries, and looking at the visibleViewController property shows that it has view three in it... even though view one is visible. If i navigate to a sub view from the visible view one (that shows in the place of view three) and press back from that sub view... it goes to view three. It looks like it is showing view one, but knows it is on view three... I am completely confused... any ideas? Jim

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• Redirecting from an update action to the referrer of the edit

  - by Mark Westling

  My Rails 2.3 application has a User model and the usual controller actions. The edit form can be reached two ways: when a user edits his own profile from the home page, or when an admin user edits someone else's profile from users collection. What I'd like to do is have the update action redirect back to the referred of the edit action, not the update action. If I do a simple redirect_to(:back) within update, it goes back to the edit form -- not good. One solution is to forget entirely about referrers and redirect based on the current_user and the updated user: if they're the same, go back to the home page, else go to the users collection page. This will break if I ever add a third path to the edit form. It's doubtful I'll ever do this but I'd prefer a solution that's not so brittle. Another solution is to store the referrer of edit form in a hidden field and then redirect to this value from inside the update action. This doesn't feel quite right, though I can't explain why. Are there any better approaches? Or, should I stop worrying and go with one of the two I've mentioned?

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• Entity Framework. Updating EntityCollection using disconnected objects via navigation property.

  - by yougotiger

  I have a question, much liket this unanswered one. I'm trying to work with the entity framework, and having a tough time getting my foreign tables to update. I have something basically like this in the DB: Incident (table): -ID -other fields Responses (table): -FK:Incident.ID -other fields And and entities that match: Incident (entity) -ID -Other fields -Responses (EntityCollection of Responses via navigation property) Each Incident can have 0 or more responses. In my Webpage, I have a form to allow the user to enter all the details of an Incident, including a list of responses. I can add everything to the database when a new Incident is created, however I'm having difficulty with editing the Incident. When the page loads for edit, I populate the form and then store the responses in the viewstate. When the user changes the list of responses (adds one, deletes one or edits one). I store this back into the viewstate. Then when the user clicks the save button, I'd like to save the changes to the Incident and the Responses back to the DB. I cannot figure out how to get the responses from the detached viewstate into the Incident object so that they can be updated together. Currently when the user clicks save, I'm getting the Incident to edit from the db, making changes to the Incident's fields and then saving it back to the DB. However I can't figure out how to have the detached list of responses from the viewstate attach to the Incident. I have tried the following without success: Clearning the Incident.Responses collection and adding the ones from the viewstate back in: Incident.Responses.Clear() for each objResponse in Viewstate("Responses") Incident.Responses.add(objResponse) next Creating an EntityCollection from my list and then assiging that to the Incident.Responses Incident.Responses = EntityCollectionFromViewstateList Iterating through the responses in Incident.Response and assigning the corresponding object from viewstate: for each ObjResponse in Incident.Responses objResponse = objCorrespondingModifedResonseFromViewState Next These all fail, I'd like to be able to merge the changes into the Inicdent object so that when the BLL calls SaveChanges on the changes to both the Incident and Responses will happen at the same time. Any suggestions? I keep finding lots of stuff about assigning foreign keys (singular), but I haven't found a great solution for doing a set of entities assigned to another entity in this manner.

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• parallel computation for an Iterator of elements in Java

  - by Brian Harris

  I've had the same need a few times now and wanted to get other thoughts on the right way to structure a solution. The need is to perform some operation on many elements on many threads without needing to have all elements in memory at once, just the ones under computation. As in, Iterables.partition is insufficient because it brings all elements into memory up front. Expressing it in code, I want to write a BulkCalc2 that does the same thing as BulkCalc1, just in parallel. Below is sample code that illustrates my best attempt. I'm not satisfied because it's big and ugly, but it does seem to accomplish my goals of keeping threads highly utilized until the work is done, propagating any exceptions during computation, and not having more than numThreads instances of BigThing necessarily in memory at once. I'll accept the answer which meets the stated goals in the most concise way, whether it's a way to improve my BulkCalc2 or a completely different solution. interface BigThing { int getId(); String getString(); } class Calc { // somewhat expensive computation double calc(BigThing bigThing) { Random r = new Random(bigThing.getString().hashCode()); double d = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; i++) { d += r.nextDouble(); } return d; } } class BulkCalc1 { final Calc calc; public BulkCalc1(Calc calc) { this.calc = calc; } public TreeMap<Integer, Double> calc(Iterator<BigThing> in) { TreeMap<Integer, Double> results = Maps.newTreeMap(); while (in.hasNext()) { BigThing o = in.next(); results.put(o.getId(), calc.calc(o)); } return results; } } class SafeIterator<T> { final Iterator<T> in; SafeIterator(Iterator<T> in) { this.in = in; } synchronized T nextOrNull() { if (in.hasNext()) { return in.next(); } return null; } } class BulkCalc2 { final Calc calc; final int numThreads; public BulkCalc2(Calc calc, int numThreads) { this.calc = calc; this.numThreads = numThreads; } public TreeMap<Integer, Double> calc(Iterator<BigThing> in) { ExecutorService e = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(numThreads); List<Future<?>> futures = Lists.newLinkedList(); final Map<Integer, Double> results = new MapMaker().concurrencyLevel(numThreads).makeMap(); final SafeIterator<BigThing> it = new SafeIterator<BigThing>(in); for (int i = 0; i < numThreads; i++) { futures.add(e.submit(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { while (true) { BigThing o = it.nextOrNull(); if (o == null) { return; } results.put(o.getId(), calc.calc(o)); } } })); } e.shutdown(); for (Future<?> future : futures) { try { future.get(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { // swallowing is OK } catch (ExecutionException ex) { throw Throwables.propagate(ex.getCause()); } } return new TreeMap<Integer, Double>(results); } }

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• Alternative way of implementation of a code

  - by vikramjb

  The title is not exactly meaningful, but I am not share what else to name it. I wrote a TOC Generation code sometime later. Based on this I was writing code to check for duplicates also. The code is as follows curNumber = getTOCReference(selItem.SNo, IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); curNumber = realTOCRef; And the code for CheckForDuplicates is ListViewItem curItem = this.tlvItems.FindItemWithText(curNumber); if (curItem != null) { curNumber = this.getTOCReference(curNumber, !IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); } else { realTOCRef= curNumber; } What this code does, it gets a TOC and tries it find if it already exists in the ObjectListView and gets a new TOC if there is a existing TOC. Once it determines that the generated TOC is not there in the list it stores it in realTOCRef and sends it back to the main calling code. I have used "out" to return the last generated TOC, which is something I did not want to do. The reason why I did it was after the non duplicate TOC was generated the return was not going back to the calling code instead it looped through the previous instances then it returned back. When the looping back happened the TOC that was to be returned also got reset. I would appreciate any help on this.

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• Why is there a time lag when trying to change the text on a button in IE using JQuery?

  - by Deane

  I have some Ajax that runs on a button click. Sometimes it takes a few seconds to return, so I wanted a visual clue to the user that the browser was doing something. So, I have this: $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); As you can see, it changes the text on the button, and disables it. When the Ajax call comes back (it's synchronous, remember), the button changes back. In Firefox, this works great. In IE, it's...odd. It doesn't run the code in order. It doesn't change the text of the button and launches right into the Ajax call. The browser blocks with the Submit active and saying "Submit." Right after the Ajax comes back, the button quickly flashes "Working..." then back to Submit." So, for some reason, IE isn't changing the text of the button until after the Ajax call, even though the code for it is before the Ajax call. It's acting like this: //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); Again, this works perfectly in Firefox. But in IE, there's some kind of...lag?

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• PHP form processing - how to capture text from field that has variable Name/ID

  - by user80151

  I have a form that has a field pulled from the database as a dropdown. I need to get the text selected in the dropdown but I don't know in advance what the field ID will be. This is basically just a form that has already been generated. I don't need to pull anything from the database, it's already on this page. All I need to do is get the form information and email it, no writing to the database. I know how to do the _Request for the other fields based on the ID but I'm not sure how to do this one. The ID changes. It can be ID=1, ID-2, etc. I need to do something like: _REQUEST form element where ID is LIKE "ID[*]" or something similar. Any suggestions or links to tutorials? Here are a couple samples of what the dropdown renders on the page: <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib- 1">Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[1]" id="attrib-1"> <option value="45">VC3-4C</option> <option value="1">VC3-4PG</option> <option value="3">VC3-4SG</option> <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib-14">SPK Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[14]" id="attrib-14"> <option value="43">SPK-4</option> <option value="44">SPK-8</option> </select> TIA

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• Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

  - by FnGreg7

  Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

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• What about IPv4 class E?

  - by Luc

  IPv4's class E network (240.0.0.0/4) contains 268 million addresses. Despite the advertisements for IPv6, claiming we have ran out of address space, this block ironically still claims to be "Reserved for future use". Why hasn't this block been freed up yet? Of course, IPv6 should be promoted instead of freeing up more IPv4 addresses, but we've seen the address shortage coming for years. There has even been a time they weren't sure there was enough time to develop IPv6 before we would run out of addresses. Why didn't they free up this block already? And is there any chance these addresses will be used in the future, like when IPv6 is fairly widely implemented but we still need IPv4 for backwards compatibility? It will be phased out regardless, but then ISPs don't have to employ NAT for IPv4 compatibility.

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• Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

  - by anonymous coward

  My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

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• Normals per index?

  - by WarrenFaith

  I have a pyramid which has 5 vertex and 18 indices. As I want to add normals to each face I just found solution for normals for each vertex. That means I can't use indices to define my pyramid I need to have 18 vertex (and 3 times the same vertex for the same point in space). There must be a solution to use normals not on vertex base but on index base. Some code (javascript): var vertices = [ -half, -half, half, // 0 front left half, -half, half, // 1 front right half, -half, -half, // 2 back right -half, -half, -half, // 3 back left 0.0, Math.sqrt((size * size) - (2 * (half * half))) - half, 0.0 // 4 top ]; var vertexNormals = [ // front face normaleFront[0], normaleFront[1], normaleFront[2], normaleFront[0], normaleFront[1], normaleFront[2], normaleFront[0], normaleFront[1], normaleFront[2], // back face normaleBack[0], normaleBack[1], normaleBack[2], normaleBack[0], normaleBack[1], normaleBack[2], normaleBack[0], normaleBack[1], normaleBack[2], // left face normaleLeft[0], normaleLeft[1], normaleLeft[2], normaleLeft[0], normaleLeft[1], normaleLeft[2], normaleLeft[0], normaleLeft[1], normaleLeft[2], // right face normaleRight[0], normaleRight[1], normaleRight[2], normaleRight[0], normaleRight[1], normaleRight[2], normaleRight[0], normaleRight[1], normaleRight[2], // bottom face 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, ]; var pyramidVertexIndices = [ 0, 1, 4, // Front face 2, 3, 4, // Back face 3, 0, 4, // Left face 1, 2, 4, // Right face 0, 1, 2, 2, 3, 0, // Bottom face ];

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• Segmentation fault in Qt application framework

  - by yan bellavance

  this generates a segmentation fault becuase of "QColor colorMap[9]";. If I remove colorMap the segmentation fault goes away. If I put it back. It comes back. If I do a clean all then build all, it goes away. If I increase its arraysize it comes back. On the other hand if I reduce it it doesnt come back. I tired adding this array to another project and What could be happening. I am really curious to know. I have removed everything else in that class. This widget subclassed is used to promote a widget in a QMainWindow. class LevelIndicator : public QWidget { public: LevelIndicator(QWidget * parent); void paintEvent(QPaintEvent * event ); float percent; QColor colorMap[9]; int NUM_GRADS; }; the error happens inside ui_mainwindow.h at one of these lines: hpaFwdPwrLvl->setObjectName(QString::fromUtf8("hpaFwdPwrLvl")); verticalLayout->addWidget(hpaFwdPwrLvl); I know i am not providing much but I will give alink to the app. Im trying to see if anyone has a quick answer for this.

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• Not able to play videos (from youtube) in WebView

  - by user1205193

  I am using a webview to display a video (could be from youtube or vimeo) in my app. In order to not load the video webpages in the default Android Browser, I am also extending the WebViewClient so I can override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method. This way the video webpage loads successfully in the WebView. However, when I click on the embedded video on the WebView, it does not play. If I do not override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method, and let the video webpages load in the default Android browser, the videos work just fine. Any ideas why the videos are not working in the WebView? Also, the main reason why I overrode the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method is because if I do not do that, then when I exit the Android browser to come back to my activity (by hitting the back button on the phone), I see a white screen. Upon hitting the back button twice, I am able to get back to my Activity. I am using the emulator to do this test. Here is my code: public class YoutubeLink extends Activity { WebView myWebView; String video_url; private class HelloWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.youtubelink); //Retrieving data from ListSample.java Bundle extras = getIntent().getExtras(); if(extras !=null) { video_url = extras.getString("video_url"); Log.d("inside YoutubeLink.java", video_url); } myWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.web); myWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); myWebView.setWebViewClient(new HelloWebViewClient()); myWebView.loadUrl(video_url); } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) && myWebView.canGoBack()) { myWebView.goBack(); return true; } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); }}

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• DNS forwarders limitations

  - by thejartender

  My question is very simple (maybe a tad too simple), but I will try and phrase it in a way to hopefully assist future visitors. I have just set up (successfully I hope) a DNS server at with some name server records on Ubuntu 12.10 while I am waiting for it to propagate I would like to know for future reference if I can use more than 2 forwarders in my /etc/named.conf.options.Would this speed up propagation? Do make this question and answer more valuable what other public DNS servers are available over and above Google's public DNS adresses: 8.8.8.8 8.8.4.4 I would also like to know if a restart of bind means that my servers will need to re-propagate? Is there a methodology to update settings while bind is running?

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• Client validate in MVC 2

  - by khoailang

  Hello, I'm very new in MVC 2, Let say, I have a page with 1 text box and 2 input typed submit, "back" and "next". I'm using client validation like this: "" type="text/javascript"/" " type="text/javascript"/ " type="text/javascript"/ . . . <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); % . . . . . . and validation rule used for that text box is [StringLength(100, ErrorMessage="This field should be no longer than 100")] My wish is that validation rules will be applied only when I click on Next button. And when I click on Back button, no validation error message will be displayed and form will be posted to server. Is it possible to do that? could you please tell me how? My problem now is that when I click Back, validation rules are applied and prevent me from posting back to server.

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• Basic HTML Internal Link not working in IE8

  - by Eamonn

  This one has me scratching my head. I have a page with several internal links bringing the user down the page to further content. Beneath various sections there are further internal links bringing the user back to the top. This works fine in all browsers apart from IE8 (actual IE8 - not IE9 in IE8 mode) where they work go down, but not coming back up! Examples: <a href="page.php?v=35&amp;u=admin-videos#a">A &ndash; General</a> .... //travelling DOWN the page <h3><strong>A &ndash; General<a name="a"></a></strong></h3> <a name="top"></a> .... //travelling back up <a href="page.php?v=35&amp;u=admin-videos#top">Back to top.</a> I've tried filling the 'top' anchor with &nbsp; but that hasn't changed it. Any ideas? Actual use case: http://databizsolutions.ie/contents/page.php?v=35&u=admin-videos

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• Python - How to remove/unimport libs was imported before

  - by Marslo

  As we know that, in python 2.x, integer would be got if we divide two integer values. However, if using the furture (it's might be a lib or something like that), just like from __future__ import division, we can get float value. E.g.: >>> 3/2 1 >>> from __future__ import division >>> 3/2 1.5 >>> >>> >>> 3//2 1 >>> 4/3 1.3333333333333333 >>> So, '//' instead of '/' should be used if getting integer after imported division, but I want to know how to using '/' to get integer again. That is mean, whether there is some way to un-import or remove the libs which was imported before.

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• TCP/IP RST being sent differently in different browsers.

  - by Brian

  On Mac OS X (10.6), if I start a YouTube video download and pull the Ethernet cable for 5 or so seconds, then plug it back in, I get varying results depending on the browser. With Opera and Chrome, after I plug the cable back in the video continues to load. But with Safari and Firefox, it never does. Using Wireshark to look at the traffic, I found that Opera and Chrome simply ACK the first packet from YouTube after the cable has been plugged back in, but Safari and Firefox set the RST flag (0x4) in the TCP header and no more traffic follows. I can put a HUB in between the machine and the internet connection, the problem goes away and all four browsers continue loading the video when the cable is plugged back into the HUB. Again, looking at the Wireshark logs, it's evident that the machine doesn't see the Mulitcast connection close and there is simply a delay in the packets flowing through. So it seems that if Safari and Firefox sees a Multicast connection close, and then later see data on that same connection, they will send a RST. My question is why? What is the correct course of action, and why are 2/4 browsers doing it one way, while the other 2/4 are doing it another way? Is there somewhere in the code that I can see where this is happening in Firefox, for instance? Thank you very much.

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• Passing models between controllers in MVC4

  - by wtfsven

  I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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• Sorted queue with dropping out elements

  - by ffriend

  I have a list of jobs and queue of workers waiting for these jobs. All the jobs are the same, but workers are different and sorted by their ability to perform the job. That is, first person can do this job best of all, second does it just a little bit worse and so on. Job is always assigned to the person with the highest skills from those who are free at that moment. When person is assigned a job, he drops out of the queue for some time. But when he is done, he gets back to his position. So, for example, at some moment in time worker queue looks like: [x, x, .83, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] where x's stand for missing workers and numbers show skill level of left workers. When there's a new job, it is assigned to 3rd worker as the one with highest skill of available workers. So next moment queue looks like: [x, x, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] Let's say, that at this moment worker #2 finishes his job and gets back to the list: [x, .91, x, x, .7, .63, .55, .54, .48, ...] I hope the process is completely clear now. My question is what algorithm and data structure to use to implement quick search and deletion of worker and insertion back to his position. For the moment the best approach I can see is to use Fibonacci heap that have amortized O(log n) for deleting minimal element (assigning job and deleting worker from queue) and O(1) for inserting him back, which is pretty good. But is there even better algorithm / data structure that possibly take into account the fact that elements are already sorted and only drop of the queue from time to time?

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• Retrieving friend's likes from the Facebook Graph API

  - by Joe Frank

  Howdy- I have been tooling around with the Facebook Graph API and successfully retrieved back a list of my likes, and a list of my friends (once I authenticated using OAuth). But what I really want to achieve is pulling back my friend's likes. When I try and do that, obviously using the same URL that I use to pull back my own likes but subbing the friend's user id for "me", I don't get anything back, unless they have installed the app as well. Then I get them no problem. To be clear, I can only see the likes of friends who have installed my application. So clearly I am running into a security/rights issue of some sort. I could see where this would be the case; you simply aren't allowed to see your friend's likes unless they have installed the same app. Fair enough, but then how is blekko.com doing it? I even tried using FQL without much luck. I suspect I am missing something totally obvious. Anyone had any luck with this? Maybe with the Javascript API or one of the other access methods? Thanks in advance for any guidance.

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