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  • How to set a native object property

    - by theunilife
    ok so im creating a jquery plugin that will allow me to use the new html5 Audio interface and im trying to create an option that is an object that you will be able to set the various listeners but i dont seem to be able to set those options to the listener property of the Audio object.

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  • "set shiftround" doesn't work in Vim?

    - by Ory Band
    Hi. I'm using MacVim, and when trying to set shiftround in my .vimrc I get the following error: E518: Unknown option:  shiftround EDIT: However, when I try to :set shiftround manually within Vim, it works and gives no errors. Anybody knows what is causing this? If somebody wants to view my whole .vimrc (perhaps something else I'm not of is the cause of this), please do: https://github.com/oryband/dotvim/blob/master/vimrc

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  • the difference of String.valueOf(char) and +

    - by Will Yu
    to show the default value of char ,I wrote code like this: public class TestChar { static char a; public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("."+String.valueOf(a)+"."); System.out.println("the default char is "+a); } } but the console output is confused.the first is ". ." ,however the second is "the default char is [](like this ,I don't know how to describe it.)" why?thanks for help

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  • Difference between c++11 vs c++03

    - by aiao
    I have spend a few hours about rvalue s and lvalue. Here is what I understand int main() { //..... Foo foo = Bar1(); Foo foo = Bar2(); //...... } Foo Bar1() { //Do something return foo; } Foo& Bar2() { //Do something return foo; } Under c++03, Bar1() would copy the return object (just before return), and then return the address of the copied object; executing a wasteful copy of an object which is about to be destroyed. Bar2() would return the object created within the function. Under c++11, Bar1() and Bar2() would essentially be equivalent (and also equivalent to Bar2() of c++03). Is that right? If not, please elaborate.

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  • Join two results sets to make one result set in T-SQL

    - by Michael Kniskern
    What would be the best approach to combine the two results sets in one result set in T-SQL? SQL statment #1: SELECT COUNT(t.col1) as 'Number of Responses', t.col2 as 'Department' FROM table t WHERE col3 IS NOT NULL GROUP BY t.col1 ORDER BY t.col1 SQL Statment #1: SELECT COUNT(t.col1) as 'Total number of participants', t.col2 as 'Department' FROM table t GROUP BY t.col1 ORDER by t.col1 Desired result set Number of Responses | Total Number of participants | Department

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  • difference between #define and enum{} in C

    - by guest
    when should one use enum {BUFFER = 1234}; over #define BUFFER 1234 ? what are the advantages enum brings compared to #define? i know, that #define is just simple text substitution and enum names the constant somehow. but why would one need that at all?

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  • Removing object/array difference from different arrays [duplicate]

    - by Kay Singian
    This question already has an answer here: remove objects from array by object property 3 answers I have two JavaScript objects: object_1 = [ {'value': '9:00', 'text':'9:00 am', 'eventtime':'09:00:00' }, {'value': '9:30', 'text':'9:30 am', 'eventtime':'09:30:00' }, {'value': '10:00', 'text':'10:00 am', 'eventtime':'10:00:00' }, {'value': '10:30', 'text':'10:30 am', 'eventtime':'10:30:00' }, {'value': '11:00', 'text':'11:00 am', 'eventtime':'11:00:00' }, {'value': '11:30', 'text':'11:30 am', 'eventtime':'11:30:00' }, ]; object_2 = [ {'eventtime': '10:30:00'}, {'eventtime': '11:00:00'} ]; I want to remove the object in object_1 which has the same eventtime value and store it in a new array/object . Please help me do so, I cant find a solution to this. This will be the new array/object: object_new = [ {'value': '9:00', 'text':'9:00 am', 'eventtime':'09:00:00' }, {'value': '9:30', 'text':'9:30 am', 'eventtime':'09:30:00' }, {'value': '10:00', 'text':'10:00 am', 'eventtime':'10:00:00' }, {'value': '11:30', 'text':'11:30 am', 'eventtime':'11:30:00' }, ];

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  • Oracle: Difference in execution plans between databases

    - by Will
    Hello, I am comparing queries my development and production database. They are both Oracle 9i, but almost every single query has a completely different execution plan depending on the database. All tables/indexes are the same, but the dev database has about 1/10th the rows for each table. On production, the query execution plan it picks for most queries is different from development, and the cost is somtimes 1000x higher. Queries on production also seem to be not using the correct indexes for queries in some cases (full table access). I have ran dbms_utility.analyze schema on both databases recently as well in the hopes the CBO would figure something out. Is there some other underlying oracle configuration that could be causing this? I am a developer mostly so this kind of DBA analysis is fairly confusing at first..

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  • Difference between methods with and without generics

    - by isakavis
    Can someone help me understand advantages and disadvantages (if any) between the following methods which do the same function of storing away the entity to azure (in my case)? public bool Save<T>(string tableName, T entity) where T : TableEntityBase, new() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } vs public bool Save(string tableName, TableEntityBase entity) { throw new NotImplementedException(); }

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  • IO::Pipe - close(<handle>) does not set $?

    - by danboo
    My understanding is that closing the handle for an IO::Pipe object should be done with the method ($fh->close) and not the built-in (close($fh)). The other day I goofed and used the built-in out of habit on a IO::Pipe object that was opened to a command that I expected to fail. I was surprised when $? was zero, and my error checking wasn't triggered. I realized my mistake. If I use the built-in, IO:Pipe can't perform the waitpid() and can't set $?. But what I was surprised by was that perl seemed to still close the pipe without setting $? via the core. I worked up a little test script to show what I mean: use 5.012; use warnings; use IO::Pipe; say 'init pipes:'; pipes(); my $fh = IO::Pipe->reader(q(false)); say 'post open pipes:'; pipes(); say 'return: ' . $fh->close; #say 'return: ' . close($fh); say 'status: ' . $?; say q(); say 'post close pipes:'; pipes(); sub pipes { for my $fd ( glob("/proc/self/fd/*") ) { say readlink($fd) if -p $fd; } say q(); } When using the method it shows the pipe being gone after the close and $? is set as I expected: init pipes: post open pipes: pipe:[992006] return: 1 status: 256 post close pipes: And, when using the built-in it also appears to close the pipe, but does not set $?: init pipes: post open pipes: pipe:[952618] return: 1 status: 0 post close pipes: It seems odd to me that the built-in results in the pipe closure, but doesn't set $?. Can anyone help explain the discrepancy? Thanks!

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  • Crystal Reports Reportviewer - Set Datasource Dynamically Not Working :argh:

    - by Albert
    I'm running CR XI, and accessing .RPT files through a ReportViewer in my ASP.NET pages. I've already got the following code, which is supposed to set the Report Datasource dynamically. rptSP = New ReportDocument Dim rptPath As String = Request.QueryString("report") rptSP.Load(rptPath.ToString, 0) Dim SConn As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionStringBuilder(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ConnectionString) rptSP.DataSourceConnections(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog).SetConnection(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog, SConn.UserID, SConn.Password) Dim myConnectionInfo As ConnectionInfo = New ConnectionInfo myConnectionInfo.ServerName = SConn.DataSource myConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog myConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID myConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password 'Two new methods to loop through all objects and tables contained in the requested report and set 'login credentials for each object and table. SetDBLogonForReport(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) SetDBLogonForSubreports(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) Me.CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rptSP But when I go into each .RPT file, and open up the Database Expert section, there is obviously still servernames hardcoded in there, and the code listed above doesn't seem to be able to change the servernames that are hardcoded there. I say this because I have training and production environments. When the .RPT file is hardcoded with my production server, and I open it on my training server with the code above (and the web.config has the training server in the connection string), I get the ol: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. And then if I go into the .RPT file, and change over the datasource to the training server, and try to open it again, it works fine. Why doesn't the code above overwrite the .RPT files datasource? How can I avoid having to open up each .RPT and change the datasource when migrating reports from server to server? Is there a setting in the .RPT file I'm missing or something?

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  • ajax redirect dillema, how to get redirect URL OR how to set properties for redirect request

    - by Anthony
    First, I'm working in Google Chrome, if that helps. Here is the behavior: I send an xhr request via jquery to a remote site (this is a chrome Extension, and I've set all of the cross-site settings...): $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType : "text/xml", url: some_url, data: some_xml, username: user, password: pass, success: function(data,status,xhr){ alert(data); }, error: function(xhr, status, error){ alert(xhr.status); } }); The URL that is being set returns a 302 (this is expected), and Chrome follows the redirect (also expected). The new URL returns a prompt for credentials, which are not being pulled from the original request, so Chrome shows a login dialog. If I put in the original credentials, I get back a response about invalid request sent (it's a valid HTTP request -- 200 -- the remote server just doesn't like one of the headers). When viewing the developer window in Chrome, there are two requests sent. The first is to the original URL with all settings set in the ajax request. The second is to the redirect URL, with a method of "GET", nothing from the "POST" field, and no credentials. I am at a loss as to what I can do. I either need to: Get the redirect URL so I can send a second request (xhr.getResponseHeader("Location") does NOT work), Have the new redirect request preserver the settings from the original request, or Get the final URL that the error came from so I can send another request. Ideally I don't want the user to have to put in their credentials a second time in this dialog box, but I'll take what I can get if I can just get the final URL.

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  • Iframe src set dynamically through JavaScript is being executed twice on Internet Explorer

    - by Pierre
    Hello Everyone, I am encountering a very annoying problem with IE. Basically I need to set the source of an IFrame using JavaScript, however the source document is being executed twice not once during each call. The simplified HTML code is pasted below (I simplified it so that readers can understand it quickly. The source is being set through JavaScript since it will contain dynamic content): <html> <head> <title>Iframe test</title> </head> <body> <iframe id="testIframe" scrolling="no" frameborder="0" src="" width="800" height="600"></iframe> <script language="JavaScript"> document.getElementById("testIframe").src = "http://localhost/test.php"; </script> </body> </html> In this example, test.php inserts a record inside a local database once called. Whenever the page above is called using IE, two rows are being inserted on most occasions (sometimes only 1 row is inserted but this is not the norm). I tested the same script on Chrome and Opera and it works correctly on them so this must be an IE issue. If is set the src directly inside the iframe tag IE starts behaving correctly, however I need to be able to build the URL using javascript. Has anyone encountered this issue? and does anyone know of a solution/workaround? Thanks and Regards Pierre

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