Search Results

Search found 5121 results on 205 pages for 'foo'.

Page 101/205 | < Previous Page | 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 | Next Page >

How do I use jQuery in my Greasemonkey Javascript scripts?

- by tladuke

I saw a question here and many blog posts about getting jquery into greasemonkey, but I can't get anything to work. Here's my script: // ==UserScript== // @name Hello jQuery // @namespace http://foo.bar // @description jQuery test script // @include * // ==/UserScript== #{contents of jquery.latest.js pasted in} unsafeWindow.jQuery = jQuery; $(document).ready(function() { alert('Hello world!'); }); I'm hoping to see an alert when I refresh a page, so I can start actually programming something. I've tried a bunch of other things and so far nothing works. The script is enabled in the little monkey menu... edit: the script part now looks like this: foo(); function foo() { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; $('tr td.row2:nth-child(4)').css("background-color", "#999"); } it doesn't work. I know the jQuery is good because I can run it from outside of greasemonkey. If instead of a jQuery function is just say alert('hello'); that works fine; I get the alert on page-load.

Read the article
C++, array declaration, templates, linker error

- by justik

There is a linker error in my SW. I am using the following structure based on h, hpp, cpp files. Some classes are templatized, some not, some have function templates. Declaration: test.h #ifndef TEST_H #define TEST_H class Test { public: template <typename T> void foo1(); void foo2 () }; #include "test.hpp" #endif Definition: test.hpp #ifndef TEST_HPP #define TEST_HPP template <typename T> void Test::foo1() {} inline void Test::foo2() {} //or in cpp file #endif CPP file: test.cpp #include "test.h" void Test::foo2() {} //or in hpp file as inline I have the following problem. The variable vars[] is declared in my h file test.h #ifndef TEST_H #define TEST_H char *vars[] = { "first", "second"...}; class Test { public: void foo(); }; #include "test.hpp" #endif and used as a local variable inside foo() method defined in hpp file as inline. test.hpp #ifndef TEST_HPP #define TEST_HPP inline void Test::foo() { char *var = vars[0]; //A Linker Error } #endif However, the following linker error occurs: Error 745 error LNK2005: "char * * vars" (?vars@@3PAPADA) already defined in test2.obj How and where to declare vars[] to avoid linker errors? After including #include "test.hpp" it is late to declare it...

Read the article
"Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

- by dbarbosa

Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

Read the article
How can I qualify an autowired property with a variable from a config file using annotations?

- by jiggy

My specific problem is that I have configured two beans that implement the same interface and I have a third bean that has a property of that interface's type. I inject the property using a config property. So, assuming RemoteDataSource and LocalDataSource implement IDataSource and dao1 has a property of type IDataSource, my XML config might look like this: <bean id="datasource1" class="com.foo.RemoteDataSource"> <property name="url">${url}</property> </bean> <bean id="datasource2" class="com.foo.LocalDataSource"> <property name="path">${filepath}</property> </bean> <bean id="dao1" class="com.foo.MyDAO"> <property name="dataSource">${datasource}</property> </bean> With url, filepath and datasource being defined in an included properties file. We are now making a push for annotation-driven configuration and I'm not sure how to annotate my dao to put the data source configured in the property file. I want to do something like this, but it is evidently not allowed: @Autowired @Qualifier("${datasource}") public void setDataSource(IDataSource datasource) {...}

Read the article
[c++] accessing the hidden 'this' pointer

- by Kyle

I have a GUI architecture wherein elements fire events like so: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED, this); Every single event fired passes 'this' as the caller of the event. There is never a time I dont want to pass 'this', and further, no pointer except for 'this' should ever be passed. This brings me to a problem: How can I assert that fireEvent is never given a pointer other than 'this', and how can I simplify (and homogenize) calls to fireEvent to just: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED); At this point, I'm reminded of a fairly common compiler error when you write something like this: class A { public: void foo() {} }; class B { void oops() { const A* a = new A; a->foo(); } }; int main() { return 0; } Compiling this will give you ../src/sandbox.cpp: In member function ‘void B::oops()’: ../src/sandbox.cpp:7: error: passing ‘const A’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void A::foo()’ discards qualifiers because member functions pass 'this' as a hidden parameter. "Aha!" I say. This (no pun intended) is exactly what I want. If I could somehow access the hidden 'this' pointer, it would solve both issues I mentioned earlier. The problem is, as far as I know you can't (can you?) and if you could, there would be outcries of "but it would break encapsulation!" Except I'm already passing 'this' every time, so what more could it break. So, is there a way to access the hidden 'this', and if not are there any idioms or alternative approaches that are more elegant than passing 'this' every time?

Read the article
Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

- by Maciej H

While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

Read the article
Sharing code between two or more rails apps... alternatives to git submodules?

- by jtgameover

We have two separate rails_app, foo/ and bar/ (separate for good reason). They both depend on some models, etc. in a common/ folder, currently parallel to foo and bar. Our current svn setup uses svn:externals to share common/. This weekend we wanted to try out git. After much research, it appears that the "kosher" way to solve this is using git submodule. We got that working after separating foo,bar,common into separate repositories, but then realized all the strings attached: Always commit the submodule before committing the parent. Always push the submodule before pushing the parent. Make sure that the submodule's HEAD points to a branch before committing to it. (If you're a bash user, I recommend using git-completion to put the current branch name in your prompt.) Always run 'git submodule update' after switching branches or pulling changes. All these gotchas complicate things further than add,commit,push. We're looking for simpler ways to share common in git. This guy seems to have success using the git subtree extension, but that deviates from standard gitand still doesn't look that simple. Is this the best we can do given our project structure? I don't know enough about rails plugins/engines, but that seems like a possible RoR-ish way to share libraries. Thanks in advance.

Read the article
C++: Declare static variable in function argument list

- by MDC

Is there any way at all in C++ to declare a static variable while passing it to a function? I'm looking to use a macro to expand to the expression passed to the function. The expression needs to declare and initialize a static variable on that particular line (based on the filename and line number using FILE and LINE). int foo(int b) { int c = b + 2; return c; } int main() { int a = 3; a = foo(static int h = 2); //<---- see this! cout << a; return 0; } The problem I'm trying to solve is getting the filename and line number with the FILE and LINE macros provided by the preprocessor, but then creating a lookup table with integer keys leading to the FILE, LINE pairs. For example, the key 89 may map to file foo.cpp, line 20. To get this to work, I'm trying to use local static variables, so that they are initialized only once per line execution. The static variable will be initialized by calling a function that calculates the integer key and adds an entry to the lookup table if it is not there. Right now the program uses a message class to send exception information. I'm writing a macro to wrap this class into a new class: WRAPPER_MACRO(old_class_object) will expand to NewClass(old_class_object, key_value). If I add the static variable declaration as a second line right before this, it should work. The problem is that in most places in the code, the old class object is passed as an argument to a function. So the problem becomes declaring and initializing the static variable somehow with the macro, while keeping the existing function calls.

Read the article
Spring Controller redirect to another page

- by user1386375

Hey I got the following problem. This is the content of the jspx file: function postSMTH() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: document.getElementById("urltxt").value, data: parameters, }); } <input type="hidden" value="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/foo/foo2/foodat" name="urltxt" id="urltxt"/> <div class="foodat"><a href="javascript:postSMTH();"><spring:message code="foo_foo2_foodat_text" text="FOODAT"/></a></div> So if I push the submit button, the postSMTH function is called and the ajax object is paste to the Controller which look like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/foo") public class FooController { .............. @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String homePOST(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String homeGET(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2/foodat", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String doTHAT(HttpServletRequest request) { // check authorization Map fooMap = request.getParameterMap(); // do something in the Database, depending on the paramMap return "redirect:/foo/foo1"; } } Everything is working fine regarding the Database, but the Problem is, that the redirect at the end DOESN'T work. It just stays at the page foo2. I'm new to Spring, maybe its a little mistake somewhere. I just cant make it out by myself. Would be nice if someone would have some hint. Thanks

Read the article
How to combine two rows and calculate the time difference between two timestamp values in MySQL?

- by Nadar

I have a situation that I'm sure is quite common and it's really bothering me that I can't figure out how to do it or what to search for to find a relevant example/solution. I'm relatively new to MySQL (have been using MSSQL and PostgreSQL earlier) and every approach I can think of is blocked by some feature lacking in MySQL. I have a "log" table that simply lists many different events with their timestamp (stored as datetime type). There's lots of data and columns in the table not relevant to this problem, so lets say we have a simple table like this: CREATE TABLE log ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(16), ts DATETIME NOT NULL, eventtype VARCHAR(25), PRIMARY KEY (id) ) Let's say that some rows have an eventtype = 'start' and others have an eventtype = 'stop'. What I want to do is to somehow couple each "startrow" with each "stoprow" and find the time difference between the two (and then sum the durations per each name, but that's not where the problem lies). Each "start" event should have a corresponding "stop" event occuring at some stage later then the "start" event, but because of problems/bugs/crashed with the data collector it could be that some are missing. In that case I would like to disregard the event without a "partner". That means that given the data: foo, 2010-06-10 19:45, start foo, 2010-06-10 19:47, start foo, 2010-06-10 20:13, stop ..I would like to just disregard the 19:45 start event and not just get two result rows both using the 20:13 stop event as the stop time. I've tried to join the table with itself in different ways, but the key problems for me seems to be to find a way to correctly identify the corresponding "stop" event to the "start" event for the given "name". The problem is exactly the same as you would have if you had table with employees stamping in and out of work and wanted to find out how much they actually were at work. I'm sure there must be well known solutions to this, but I can't seem to find them...

Read the article
Why are my bound parameters all identical (using Linq)?

- by Scott Stafford

When I run this snippet of code: string[] words = new string[] { "foo", "bar" }; var results = from row in Assets select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Name.Contains(word)); } I get this SQL: -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' DECLARE @p1 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' -- EndRegion SELECT ... FROM [Assets] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p0) AND ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p1) Note that @p0 and @p1 are both bar, when I wanted them to be foo and bar. I guess Linq is somehow binding a reference to the variable word rather than a reference to the string currently referenced by word? What is the best way to avoid this problem? (Also, if you have any suggestions for a better title for this question, please put it in the comments.) Note that I tried this with regular Linq also, with the same results (you can paste this right into Linqpad): string[] words = new string[] { "f", "a" }; string[] dictionary = new string[] { "foo", "bar", "jack", "splat" }; var results = from row in dictionary select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Contains(word)); } results.Dump(); Dumps: bar jack splat

Read the article
Undefined test not working in javascript.

- by James South

I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

Read the article
OcaIDE doesn't see JoCaml tools

- by Surikator

I'm having a problem while using OcaIDE in ocamlbuild mode. I'm trying to compile my own JoCaml sources. According to the JoCaml manual (bottom of page), to use ocamlbuild with JoCaml, I just need to add the -use-jocaml argument to ocamlbuild. Indeed, if I go to the root of my project and write ocamlbuild -use-jocaml foo.native it generates my executable just fine. However, in OcaIDE I get /bin/sh: jocamldep: command not found In OcaIDE, the -use-jocaml flag is passed in the "Other Flags" box (in Project Properties). And that certainly is working, as the complaint is precisely that it doesn't find jocaml stuff. The puzzling thing is that jocaml is installed and can be accessed from any random terminal window. For example, running jocamldep -modules foo.ml > foo.ml.depends on my project does generate the desired dependency file. So, it would seem I would have to configure OcaIDE and tell it where JoCaml executables are or something. This is done for OCaml, for example. But there is no place to do that for JoCaml. And it's really strange that, if jocamldep/jocamlc/etc are all accessible from anywhere, OcaIDE wouldn't be able to pick them. Any ideas? (I am aware I can do an ocamlbuild plugin and pass the flag in a "myocamlbuild.ml" file. I'll probably use that a latter stage after I get familiar with ocamlbuild plugins. But here the question is about OcaIDE. EDIT: Actually, ocamlbuild plugins don't seem to be a solution as, although there is an option -use-jocaml in ocamlbuild to enforce jocaml use (and it works fine), the plugin system doesn't support it, i.e. jocaml is not in the list of options.)

Read the article
Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

- by thr

Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

Read the article
C++ map performance - Linux (30 sec) vs Windows (30 mins) !!!

- by sonofdelphi

I need to process a list of files. The processing action should not be repeated for the same file. The code I am using for this is - using namespace std; vector<File*> gInputFileList; //Can contain duplicates, File has member sFilename map<string, File*> gProcessedFileList; //Using map to avoid linear search costs void processFile(File* pFile) { File* pProcessedFile = gProcessedFileList[pFile->sFilename]; if(pProcessedFile != NULL) return; //Already processed foo(pFile); //foo() is the action to do for each file gProcessedFileList[pFile->sFilename] = pFile; } void main() { size_t n= gInputFileList.size(); //Using array syntax (iterator syntax also gives identical performance) for(size_t i=0; i<n; i++){ processFile(gInputFileList[i]); } } The code works correctly, but... My problem is that when the input size is 1000, it takes 30 minutes - HALF AN HOUR - on Windows/Visual Studio 2008 Express (both Debug and Release builds). For the same input, it takes only 40 seconds to run on Linux/gcc! What could be the problem? The action foo() takes only a very short time to execute, when used separately. Should I be using something like vector::reserve for the map?

Read the article
Boost shared_ptr use_count function

- by photo_tom

My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

Read the article
Common protected data member in base class?

- by EXP0

I have a base class and several derived classes. The derived classes use some common data, can I just put those common data as protected member of the base class? I know the protected member breaks encapsulation sometimes, so I wonder if there is any good approach. Here is a specific example: class Base{ public: virtual void foo() = 0; void printData(); protected: std::vector<std::string> mData; } class Dr1 : public Base{ public: virtual void foo(); //could change mData } class Dr2 : public Base{ public: virtual void foo(); //could change mData } If I put mData into Dr1 and Dr2 as private member, then I need to put it in both of them, and I can not have printData() in Base since printData() need access to mData unless I make printData() virtual and have identical function in both Dr1 and Dr2, which doesn't make much sense to me. Is there a better way to approach this without using protected member? Thank you.

Read the article
jQuery - Show id, based on selected items class?

- by Jon Hadley

I have a layout roughly as follows: <div id="foo">  </div> <div id="thumbnails"> <div class="thumb-content1"></div> <div class="thumb-content2"></div> <div class="thumb-content3"></div> </div> <div id="content-1">  </div> <div id="content-2">  </div> <div id="content-3">  </div> etc .... On page load I want to show 'foo' and 'thumbnails' and hide the three content divs. As the user clicks each thumbnail, I want to hide foo, and replace it with the matching 'content-x'. I can get my head round jQuery show, hide and replace (although, bonus points if you want to include that in your example!). But how would I extract and construct the appropriate content id, from the thumbnail class, then pass it to the show hide code?

Read the article
Why would gnu ld link order causes Signal 11 (SEGV) on startup?

- by Benoit

We are building a large application in C++ that includes the use of many (static) libraries. We have a problem where the application crashes on startup with a Signal 11, before we even reach main. After much debugging, we have observed that if we explicitly reference an object file so its link order is early, the program crashes on startup. If the file is referenced later (or not referenced at all), the program does not crash. To be clear, there is NO code invoked directly from this object file. However, as it is C++, there might be static objects that do get constructed (it's a CORBA IDL generated file). We use the -Wl,--start-group ... --end-group arguments to multi-pass link the symbols since the libraries are interdependent. Here is a representation of what I mean. This is what the linker's object file order is: Order 1 Order 2 Order 3 foo.o foo.o foo.o ... ... ... main.o main.o main.o crasher.o libA.o libA.o libA.o LibB.o LibB.o LibB.o LibC.o LibC.o LibC.o crasher.o Results: NO CRASH NO CRASH CRASH Does any one have an idea why the linkage order has an effect on the crash? It would be nice if we could force the crasher.o to link later, but we're really after an explanation. Also, is there a way to force the linker to place crasher.o towards the end? Just to add to the fun, in actuality, crasher.o is part of a Library in the --start/--end-group.

Read the article
ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

- by Daniel Koverman

I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

Read the article
How does a java compiler resolve a non-imported name

- by gexicide

Consider I use a type X in my java compilation unit from package foo.bar and X is not defined in the compilation unit itself nor is it directly imported. How does a java compiler resolve X now efficiently? There are a few possibilities where X could reside: X might be imported via a star import a.b.* X might reside in the same package as the compilation unit X might be a language type, i.e. reside in java.lang The problem I see is especially (2.). Since X might be a package-private type, it is not even required that X resides in a compilation unit that is named X.java. Thus, the compiler must look into all entries of the class path and search for any classes in a package foo.bar, it then must read every class that is in package foo.bar to check whether X is included. That sounds very expensive. Especially when I compile only a single file, the compiler has to read dozens of class files only to find a type X. If I use a lot of star imports, this procedure has to be repeated for a lot of types (although class files won't be read twice, of course). So is it advisable to import also types from the same package to speed up the compilation process? Or is there a faster method for resolving an unimported type X which I was not able to find?

Read the article
Another way to handle a common JQuery event handling pattern

- by bradgonesurfing

I have the following code for example $("a.foo").bind(function (e){ var t; if ( $(e.target).is("a") ){ t = $(e.target); }else{ t = $(e.target).parent("a"); } var data = t.attr("data-info"); }); In english. I might have a list of anchors within which there may be a number of spans. Each anchor is declared as <a class="foo" href="#" data-info="1"> <span> ... </span> <span> ... </span> </a> <a class="foo" href="#" data-info="2"> <span> ... </span> <span> ... </span> </a> ... ... I bind a handler to the click event of the anchor but the event object comes back with the anchor OR one of the spans depending on where I click. So to get my html5 "data-info" value into the callback I have to insert a bit of messy code. This is now appearing throughout my code to the point where I am guessing there might be an idiomatic JQuery way of handling this.

Read the article
How to make a multi vector in C++

- by Bob Dealio

I was wondering why can't I have a multi vectors in C ++ /please take a look at this example, it's not working though. there are only two parts to the code, foo function to manipulate the vector and the main function to echo them. typedef vector< vector<double> > MyVec; MyVec foo() { MyVec v; for (int index=0; index < 2; index ++) { for (int j=0; j<5; j++) { v[index][j]; } } return v; } int main () { MyVec z = foo(); for (int i = 0; i < z.size(); i++) { cout << z[i][1]; } return 0; }

Read the article
Using Moq to Validate Separate Invocations with Distinct Arguments

- by Thermite

I'm trying to validate the values of arguments passed to subsequent mocked method invocations (of the same method), but cannot figure out a valid approach. A generic example follows: public class Foo { [Dependency] public Bar SomeBar { get; set; } public void SomeMethod() { this.SomeBar.SomeOtherMethod("baz"); this.SomeBar.SomeOtherMethod("bag"); } } public class Bar { public void SomeOtherMethod(string input) { } } public class MoqTest { [TestMethod] public void RunTest() { Mock<Bar> mock = new Mock<Bar>(); Foo f = new Foo(); mock.Setup(m => m.SomeOtherMethod(It.Is<string>("baz"))); mock.Setup(m => m.SomeOtherMethod(It.Is<string>("bag"))); // this of course overrides the first call f.SomeMethod(); mock.VerifyAll(); } } Using a Function in the Setup might be an option, but then it seems I'd be reduced to some sort of global variable to know which argument/iteration I'm verifying. Maybe I'm overlooking the obvious within the Moq framework?

Read the article
Add new element in existing object

- by user3094292

I am using node.js. I have to add new elements in the object before to send a response to client. user.getMatch(req.user, function(err, match){ for( k=0; k<match.length; k++){ var userId = { id : match[k].match_id }; var user = new User(userId); console.log('k: ' + k); user.getUserInfo(function(err2, info){ console.log('k here: ' + k); if(info){ match[k].foo = info[0].foo; } }); } var response = { data : match }; res.json(response); }); I want to add an element "foo" from user.getUserInfo to the object "match" that was returned by user.getMatch. And then send all the data as response to the client. But it got an error because "k" inside of user.getUserInfo is not equal to the "k" outside. I do not know why the both "k" are not equal. And how will I send a response to the client after performing the loop. Thanks for your help!

Read the article

< Previous Page | 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 | Next Page >