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• In ASP.NET, is it possible to output cache by host name? ie varybyhost or varbyhostheader?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got a website that has a number of host headers. Depending on the host header, the results are different - both visually (theme'd) and data. So lets imagine i have a website called 'Foo' - that returns search results (original, eh?). Now, the same code runs both sites. It is physically the same server/website (using Host Headers) :- www.foo.com www.foo.com.au Now, if i goto '.com', the site is theme'd in blue. if i goto the '.com.au' site, it's theme'd in red. And the data is different for the same search result, based on the host name (ie. us results for .com, au results for .com.au) SO .. if i wish to use OutputCaching .. can this be handled / differ by the host name? I don't want to have the first person goto the .com site .. grab the results ... and the a second person goto my .com.au .. same search data .. and get the theme and results for the .com site. Possible?

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• No "redefinition of default parameter error" for class template member function?

  - by STingRaySC

  Why does the following give no compilation error?: // T.h template<class T> class X { public: void foo(int a = 42); }; // Main.cpp #include "T.h" #include <iostream> template<class T> void X<T>::foo(int a = 13) { std::cout << a << std::endl; } int main() { X<int> x; x.foo(); // prints 42 } It seems as though the 13 is just silently ignored by the compiler. Why is this? The cooky thing is that if the template declaration is in Main.cpp instead of a header file, I do indeed get the default parameter redefinition error. Now I know the compiler will complain about this if it were just an ordinary (non-template) function. What does the standard have to say about default parameters in class template member functions or function templates?

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• How to support comparisons for QVariant objects containing a custom type?

  - by Tyler McHenry

  According to the Qt documentation, QVariant::operator== does not work as one might expect if the variant contains a custom type: bool QVariant::operator== ( const QVariant & v ) const Compares this QVariant with v and returns true if they are equal; otherwise returns false. In the case of custom types, their equalness operators are not called. Instead the values' addresses are compared. How are you supposed to get this to behave meaningfully for your custom types? In my case, I'm storing an enumerated value in a QVariant, e.g. In a header: enum MyEnum { Foo, Bar }; Q_DECLARE_METATYPE(MyEnum); Somewhere in a function: QVariant var1 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); QVariant var2 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); assert(var1 == var2); // Fails! What do I need to do differently in order for this assertion to be true? I understand why it's not working -- each variant is storing a separate copy of the enumerated value, so they have different addresses. I want to know how I can change my approach to storing these values in variants so that either this is not an issue, or so that they do both reference the same underlying variable. It don't think it's possible for me to get around needing equality comparisons to work. The context is that I am using this enumeration as the UserData in items in a QComboBox and I want to be able to use QComboBox::findData to locate the item index corresponding to a particular enumerated value.

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• Namespace scoped aliases for generic types in C#

  - by TN

  Let's have a following example: public class X { } public class Y { } public class Z { } public delegate IDictionary<Y, IList<Z>> Bar(IList<X> x, int i); public interface IFoo { // ... Bar Bar { get; } } public class Foo : IFoo { // ... public Bar Bar { get { return null; //... } } } void Main() { IFoo foo; //= ... IEnumerable<IList<X>> source; //= ... var results = source.Select(foo.Bar); } The compiler says: The type arguments for method 'System.Linq.Enumerable.Select(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable, System.Func)' cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. It's because, it cannot convert Bar to Func<IList<X>, int, IDictionary<Y, IList<Z>>>. It would be great if I could create type namespace scoped type aliases for generic types in C#. Then I would define Bar not as a delegate, but rather I would define it as an namespace scoped alias for Func<IList<X>, int, IDictionary<Y, IList<Z>>>. public alias Bar = Func<IList<X>, int, IDictionary<Y, IList<Z>>>; I could then also define namespace scoped alias for e.g. IDictionary<Y, IList<Z>>. And if used appropriately:), it will make the code more readable. Now I have inline the generic types and the real code is not well readable:( Have you find the same trouble:)? Is there any good reason why it is not in C# 3.0? Or there is no good reason, it's just matter of money and/or time? EDIT: I know that I can use using, but it is not namespace based - not so convenient for my case.

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• Am I doing something wrong here (references in C++)?

  - by m4design

  I've been playing around with references (I'm still having issues in this regard). 1- I would like to know if this is an acceptable code: int & foo(int &y) { return y; // is this wrong? } int main() { int x = 0; cout << foo(x) << endl; foo(x) = 9; // is this wrong? cout << x << endl; return 0; } 2- Also this is from an exam sample: Week & Week::highestSalesWeek(Week aYear[52]) { Week max = aYear[0]; for(int i = 1; i < 52; i++) { if (aYear[i].getSales() > max.getSales()) max = aYear[i]; } return max; } It asks about the mistake in this code, also how to fix it. My guess is that it return a local reference. The fix is: Week & max = aYear[0]; Is this correct/enough?

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• Will TFS 2010 support non-contiguous merging?

  - by steve_d

  I know that merging non-contiguous changesets at once may not be a good idea. However there is at least one situation in which merging non-contiguous changesets is (probably) not going to break anything: when there are no intervening changes on the affected individual files. (At least, it wouldn't break any worse than would a series of cherry-picked merges, checked in each time; and at least this way you would discover breakage before checking in). For instance, let's say you have a Main and a Development branch. They start out identical (e.g. after a release). They have two files, foo.cs and bar.cs. Alice makes a change in Development\foo.cs and checks it in as changeset #1001. Bob makes a change in Development\bar.cs and checks it in as #1002. Alice makes another change to Development\foo.cs and checks it in as #1003. Now we could in theory merge both changes #1001 and #1003 from dev-to main in a single operation. If we try to merge at the branch level, dev-to-main, we will have to do it as two operations. In this simple, contrived example it's simple enough to merge the one file - but in the real world where there would be many files involved, it's not so simple. Non-contiguous merging is one of the reasons given for why "merge by workitem" is not implemented in TFS.

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• When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

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• Django: Create custom template tag -> ImportError

  - by Alexander Scholz

  I'm sorry to ask this again, but I tried several solutions from stack overflow and some tutorials and I couldn't create a custom template tag yet. All I get is ImportError: No module named test_tag when I try to start the server via python manage.py runserver. I created a very basic template tag (found here: django templatetag?) like so: My folder structure: demo manage.py test __init__.py settings.py urls.py ... templatetags __init__.py test_tag.py test_tag.py: from django import template register = template.Library() @register.simple_tag def test_tag(input): if "foo" == input: return "foo" if "bar" == input: return "bar" if "baz" == input: return "baz" return "" index.html: {% load test_tag %} <html> <head> ... </head> <body> {% cms_toolbar %} {% foobarbaz "bar" %} {% foobarbaz "elephant" %} {% foobarbaz "foo" %} </body> </html> and my settings.py: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'test_tag', ... ) Please let me know if you need further information from my settings.py and what I did wrong so I can't even start my server. (If I delete 'test_tag' from installed apps I can start the server but I get the error that test_tag is not known, of course). Thanks

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• How can I store and access a filehandle in a Perl class?

  - by Haiyuan Zhang

  please look at the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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• how to install a file handle in perl class

  - by Haiyuan Zhang

  please looku up the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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• Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

  - by Dr.Dredel

  I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

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• Why do I need to give my options a value attribute in my dropdown? JQuery related.

  - by Alex

  So far in my web developing experiences, I've noticed that almost all web developers/designers choose to give their options in a select a value like so: <select name="foo"> <option value="bar">BarCheese</option> // etc. // etc. </select> Is this because it is best practice to do so? I ask this because I have done a lot of work with jQuery and dropdown's lately, and sometimes I get really annoyed when I have to check something like: $('select[name=foo]').val() == "bar"); To me, many times that seems less clear than just being able to check the val() against BarCheese. So why is it that most web developers/designers specify a value paramater instead of just letting the options actual value be its value? And yes, if the option has a value attribute I know I can do something like this: $('select[name=foo] option:contains("BarCheese")').attr('selected', 'selected'); But I would still really like to know why this is done. Thanks!!

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• How do I use jQuery in my Greasemonkey Javascript scripts?

  - by tladuke

  I saw a question here and many blog posts about getting jquery into greasemonkey, but I can't get anything to work. Here's my script: // ==UserScript== // @name Hello jQuery // @namespace http://foo.bar // @description jQuery test script // @include * // ==/UserScript== #{contents of jquery.latest.js pasted in} unsafeWindow.jQuery = jQuery; $(document).ready(function() { alert('Hello world!'); }); I'm hoping to see an alert when I refresh a page, so I can start actually programming something. I've tried a bunch of other things and so far nothing works. The script is enabled in the little monkey menu... edit: the script part now looks like this: foo(); function foo() { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; $('tr td.row2:nth-child(4)').css("background-color", "#999"); } it doesn't work. I know the jQuery is good because I can run it from outside of greasemonkey. If instead of a jQuery function is just say alert('hello'); that works fine; I get the alert on page-load.

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• C++, array declaration, templates, linker error

  - by justik

  There is a linker error in my SW. I am using the following structure based on h, hpp, cpp files. Some classes are templatized, some not, some have function templates. Declaration: test.h #ifndef TEST_H #define TEST_H class Test { public: template <typename T> void foo1(); void foo2 () }; #include "test.hpp" #endif Definition: test.hpp #ifndef TEST_HPP #define TEST_HPP template <typename T> void Test::foo1() {} inline void Test::foo2() {} //or in cpp file #endif CPP file: test.cpp #include "test.h" void Test::foo2() {} //or in hpp file as inline I have the following problem. The variable vars[] is declared in my h file test.h #ifndef TEST_H #define TEST_H char *vars[] = { "first", "second"...}; class Test { public: void foo(); }; #include "test.hpp" #endif and used as a local variable inside foo() method defined in hpp file as inline. test.hpp #ifndef TEST_HPP #define TEST_HPP inline void Test::foo() { char *var = vars[0]; //A Linker Error } #endif However, the following linker error occurs: Error 745 error LNK2005: "char * * vars" (?vars@@3PAPADA) already defined in test2.obj How and where to declare vars[] to avoid linker errors? After including #include "test.hpp" it is late to declare it...

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• "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

  - by dbarbosa

  Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

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• [c++] accessing the hidden 'this' pointer

  - by Kyle

  I have a GUI architecture wherein elements fire events like so: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED, this); Every single event fired passes 'this' as the caller of the event. There is never a time I dont want to pass 'this', and further, no pointer except for 'this' should ever be passed. This brings me to a problem: How can I assert that fireEvent is never given a pointer other than 'this', and how can I simplify (and homogenize) calls to fireEvent to just: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED); At this point, I'm reminded of a fairly common compiler error when you write something like this: class A { public: void foo() {} }; class B { void oops() { const A* a = new A; a->foo(); } }; int main() { return 0; } Compiling this will give you ../src/sandbox.cpp: In member function ‘void B::oops()’: ../src/sandbox.cpp:7: error: passing ‘const A’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void A::foo()’ discards qualifiers because member functions pass 'this' as a hidden parameter. "Aha!" I say. This (no pun intended) is exactly what I want. If I could somehow access the hidden 'this' pointer, it would solve both issues I mentioned earlier. The problem is, as far as I know you can't (can you?) and if you could, there would be outcries of "but it would break encapsulation!" Except I'm already passing 'this' every time, so what more could it break. So, is there a way to access the hidden 'this', and if not are there any idioms or alternative approaches that are more elegant than passing 'this' every time?

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• Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

  - by Maciej H

  While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

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• How can I qualify an autowired property with a variable from a config file using annotations?

  - by jiggy

  My specific problem is that I have configured two beans that implement the same interface and I have a third bean that has a property of that interface's type. I inject the property using a config property. So, assuming RemoteDataSource and LocalDataSource implement IDataSource and dao1 has a property of type IDataSource, my XML config might look like this: <bean id="datasource1" class="com.foo.RemoteDataSource"> <property name="url">${url}</property> </bean> <bean id="datasource2" class="com.foo.LocalDataSource"> <property name="path">${filepath}</property> </bean> <bean id="dao1" class="com.foo.MyDAO"> <property name="dataSource">${datasource}</property> </bean> With url, filepath and datasource being defined in an included properties file. We are now making a push for annotation-driven configuration and I'm not sure how to annotate my dao to put the data source configured in the property file. I want to do something like this, but it is evidently not allowed: @Autowired @Qualifier("${datasource}") public void setDataSource(IDataSource datasource) {...}

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• Sharing code between two or more rails apps... alternatives to git submodules?

  - by jtgameover

  We have two separate rails_app, foo/ and bar/ (separate for good reason). They both depend on some models, etc. in a common/ folder, currently parallel to foo and bar. Our current svn setup uses svn:externals to share common/. This weekend we wanted to try out git. After much research, it appears that the "kosher" way to solve this is using git submodule. We got that working after separating foo,bar,common into separate repositories, but then realized all the strings attached: Always commit the submodule before committing the parent. Always push the submodule before pushing the parent. Make sure that the submodule's HEAD points to a branch before committing to it. (If you're a bash user, I recommend using git-completion to put the current branch name in your prompt.) Always run 'git submodule update' after switching branches or pulling changes. All these gotchas complicate things further than add,commit,push. We're looking for simpler ways to share common in git. This guy seems to have success using the git subtree extension, but that deviates from standard gitand still doesn't look that simple. Is this the best we can do given our project structure? I don't know enough about rails plugins/engines, but that seems like a possible RoR-ish way to share libraries. Thanks in advance.

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• C++: Declare static variable in function argument list

  - by MDC

  Is there any way at all in C++ to declare a static variable while passing it to a function? I'm looking to use a macro to expand to the expression passed to the function. The expression needs to declare and initialize a static variable on that particular line (based on the filename and line number using FILE and LINE). int foo(int b) { int c = b + 2; return c; } int main() { int a = 3; a = foo(static int h = 2); //<---- see this! cout << a; return 0; } The problem I'm trying to solve is getting the filename and line number with the FILE and LINE macros provided by the preprocessor, but then creating a lookup table with integer keys leading to the FILE, LINE pairs. For example, the key 89 may map to file foo.cpp, line 20. To get this to work, I'm trying to use local static variables, so that they are initialized only once per line execution. The static variable will be initialized by calling a function that calculates the integer key and adds an entry to the lookup table if it is not there. Right now the program uses a message class to send exception information. I'm writing a macro to wrap this class into a new class: WRAPPER_MACRO(old_class_object) will expand to NewClass(old_class_object, key_value). If I add the static variable declaration as a second line right before this, it should work. The problem is that in most places in the code, the old class object is passed as an argument to a function. So the problem becomes declaring and initializing the static variable somehow with the macro, while keeping the existing function calls.

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• Spring Controller redirect to another page

  - by user1386375

  Hey I got the following problem. This is the content of the jspx file: function postSMTH() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: document.getElementById("urltxt").value, data: parameters, }); } <input type="hidden" value="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/foo/foo2/foodat" name="urltxt" id="urltxt"/> <div class="foodat"><a href="javascript:postSMTH();"><spring:message code="foo_foo2_foodat_text" text="FOODAT"/></a></div> So if I push the submit button, the postSMTH function is called and the ajax object is paste to the Controller which look like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/foo") public class FooController { .............. @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String homePOST(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String homeGET(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2/foodat", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String doTHAT(HttpServletRequest request) { // check authorization Map fooMap = request.getParameterMap(); // do something in the Database, depending on the paramMap return "redirect:/foo/foo1"; } } Everything is working fine regarding the Database, but the Problem is, that the redirect at the end DOESN'T work. It just stays at the page foo2. I'm new to Spring, maybe its a little mistake somewhere. I just cant make it out by myself. Would be nice if someone would have some hint. Thanks

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• How to combine two rows and calculate the time difference between two timestamp values in MySQL?

  - by Nadar

  I have a situation that I'm sure is quite common and it's really bothering me that I can't figure out how to do it or what to search for to find a relevant example/solution. I'm relatively new to MySQL (have been using MSSQL and PostgreSQL earlier) and every approach I can think of is blocked by some feature lacking in MySQL. I have a "log" table that simply lists many different events with their timestamp (stored as datetime type). There's lots of data and columns in the table not relevant to this problem, so lets say we have a simple table like this: CREATE TABLE log ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(16), ts DATETIME NOT NULL, eventtype VARCHAR(25), PRIMARY KEY (id) ) Let's say that some rows have an eventtype = 'start' and others have an eventtype = 'stop'. What I want to do is to somehow couple each "startrow" with each "stoprow" and find the time difference between the two (and then sum the durations per each name, but that's not where the problem lies). Each "start" event should have a corresponding "stop" event occuring at some stage later then the "start" event, but because of problems/bugs/crashed with the data collector it could be that some are missing. In that case I would like to disregard the event without a "partner". That means that given the data: foo, 2010-06-10 19:45, start foo, 2010-06-10 19:47, start foo, 2010-06-10 20:13, stop ..I would like to just disregard the 19:45 start event and not just get two result rows both using the 20:13 stop event as the stop time. I've tried to join the table with itself in different ways, but the key problems for me seems to be to find a way to correctly identify the corresponding "stop" event to the "start" event for the given "name". The problem is exactly the same as you would have if you had table with employees stamping in and out of work and wanted to find out how much they actually were at work. I'm sure there must be well known solutions to this, but I can't seem to find them...

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• Why are my bound parameters all identical (using Linq)?

  - by Scott Stafford

  When I run this snippet of code: string[] words = new string[] { "foo", "bar" }; var results = from row in Assets select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Name.Contains(word)); } I get this SQL: -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' DECLARE @p1 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' -- EndRegion SELECT ... FROM [Assets] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p0) AND ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p1) Note that @p0 and @p1 are both bar, when I wanted them to be foo and bar. I guess Linq is somehow binding a reference to the variable word rather than a reference to the string currently referenced by word? What is the best way to avoid this problem? (Also, if you have any suggestions for a better title for this question, please put it in the comments.) Note that I tried this with regular Linq also, with the same results (you can paste this right into Linqpad): string[] words = new string[] { "f", "a" }; string[] dictionary = new string[] { "foo", "bar", "jack", "splat" }; var results = from row in dictionary select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Contains(word)); } results.Dump(); Dumps: bar jack splat

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• Undefined test not working in javascript.

  - by James South

  I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

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• Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

  - by thr

  Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

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