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  • Google maps API : V2 : Custom infowindow with bindInfoWindowHtml

    - by PlanetUnknown
    The API documentation gave me hopes last night with "bindInfoWindowHtml". But it doesn't seem to replace the default infoWindow, even when you provide your own class etc. I have tried using other ideas like the labeledmarker. But it doesn't support draggable markers. Hence can't use it in my application. Here is the sample code which shows the info. window inside, the original bubble. Isn't there a way to override that window as well ! ` <style type="text/css"> .infoWindowCustomClass { width: 500px; height: 500px; background-color: #CAEE96; color: #666; } </style> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Google Maps JavaScript API Example</title> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;sensor=false&amp;key="" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { // Create our "tiny" marker icon var blueIcon = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); blueIcon.image = "http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/micons/blue-dot.png"; // Set up our GMarkerOptions object markerOptions = { icon:blueIcon }; var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(33.968064,-83.377047), 13); markerOptions.title = "fart"; var point = new GLatLng(33.968064,-83.377047); var marker = new GMarker(point); var tempName = document.getElementById("infoWindowCustom"); marker.bindInfoWindowHtml(tempName); map.addOverlay(marker); } } </script>` And here is the DIV - <DIV id="infoWindowCustom" name="infoWindowCustom" class="infoWindowCustomClass"> Name : <TEXTAREA NAME="nameID" ID="nameID" ROWS="2" COLS="25"></TEXTAREA> Comments : <TEXTAREA NAME="commentsID" ID="commentsID" ROWS="4" COLS="25"></TEXTAREA> </DIV>

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  • Going from a math career to a cs career: how to do it?

    - by Joseph
    Hey, I'm looking for some advice on how to successfully make the transition from mathematics to CS. My academic background is in mathematics (BS and MSc), and I've taken loads of math courses as well. You name it, and I took it: Measure Theory, Algebra, PDES, Manifolds, Complex Analysis, etc. I progressed quite far along this track, and at one point, I thought I would be a professional mathematician...But around the time I was finishing my MSc, I really got sick of it. Studying very abstract mathematics was fun, but it really lost it's appeal to me. Outside of a couple hundred people, I'm not sure if anybody would understand my research. I did not want to be 60 years old and say that my only contribution to the world consisted of published papers. Anyways, I've been an off and on hobbyist programmer since 2002. I've programmed in C and Java (just small projects), and I really started to be drawn to the area as time passed. There's a real appeal to CS work because, well, it actually means something to other people out there! I enjoy all parts of it: designing webpages (a real artistic appeal). On the other end, I do enjoy toying with compilers and more nitty-gritty stuff as well. Suffice to say, I have broad interests out there. Anyways, I know it's a bit late, but I was wondering if there were other folks out there who made the change, and if so, how I could do so. I know I have some fairly big gaps to fill in terms of data structures, lack of internship experience, etc. But I really would like to make this work. So my question is simply: How can I make the switch from math to CS? To pay the bills, I'll be doing financial analysis for a company, but I'd like to eventually transition into a developer type position. I've been reading "Algorithm Design" by Tardos and doing all the problems. It's not hard to make progress since the problems are far more concrete than the stuff I've been doing the past six years. I feel I can make fairly rapid progress in picking up all the materials from data structures, etc. but none of it can substitute the past several years I've lost. Anyways, I'm eager to learn but would love some advice/concrete direction. Thanks, Joseph

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  • Speed Problem with Wireless Connectivity on Cisco 877w

    - by Carl Crawley
    Having a bit of a weird one with my local LAN setup. I recently installed a Cisco 877W router on my DSL2+ connection and all is working really well.. Upgraded the IOS to 12.4 and my wired clients are streaming connectivity superfast at 1.3mb/s. However, there seems to be an issue with my wireless clients - I can't seem to stream any data across the local wireless connection (LAN) and using the Internet, whilst responsive enough isn't really comparable with the wired connection speed. For example, all devices are connected to an 8 Port Gb switch on FE0 from the Router with a NAS disk and on my wired clients, I can transfer/stream etc absolutely fine - however, transferring a local 700Mb file on my local LAN estimates 7-8 hours to transfer :( The Wireless config is as follows : interface Dot11Radio0 description WIRELESS INTERFACE no ip address ! encryption mode ciphers tkip ! ssid [MySSID] ! speed basic-1.0 basic-2.0 basic-5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 channel 2462 station-role root rts threshold 2312 world-mode dot11d country GB indoor bridge-group 1 bridge-group 1 subscriber-loop-control bridge-group 1 spanning-disabled bridge-group 1 block-unknown-source no bridge-group 1 source-learning no bridge-group 1 unicast-flooding All devices are connected to the Gb Switch which is connected to FE0 with the following: Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0021.a03e.6519 (bia 0021.a03e.6519) Description: Uplink to Switch MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 14000 bits/sec, 19 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 167000 bits/sec, 23 packets/sec 177365 packets input, 52089562 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 919 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 260 input errors, 260 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 156673 packets output, 106218222 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Not sure why I'm having problems on the wireless and I've reached the end of my Cisco knowledge... Thanks for any pointers! Carl

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  • Return pre-UPDATE column values in PostgreSQL without using triggers, functions or other "magic"

    - by Python Larry
    I have a related question, but this is another part of MY puzzle. I would like to get the OLD VALUE of a Column from a Row that was UPDATEd... WITHOUT using Triggers (nor Stored Procedures, nor any other extra, non-SQL/-query entities). The query I have is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) RETURNING row_id If I could do "FOR UPDATE ON my_table" at the end of the subquery, that'd be devine (and fix my other question/problem). But, that won't work: can't have this AND a "GROUP BY" (which is necessary for figuring out the COUNT of trans_nbr's). Then I could just take those trans_nbr's and do a query first to get the (soon-to-be-) former processing_by values. I've tried doing like: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table old_my_table JOIN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) sub_my_table ON old_my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr WHERE my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr AND my_table.processing_by = old_my_table.processing_by RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by But that can't work; "old_my_table" is not viewable outside of the join; the RETURNING clause is blind to it. I've long since lost count of all the attempts I've made; I have been researching this for literally hours. If I could just find a bullet-proof way to lock the rows in my subquery - and ONLY those rows, and WHEN the subquery happens - all the concurrency issues I'm trying to avoid disappear... UPDATE: [WIPES EGG OFF FACE] Okay, so I had a typo in the non-generic code of the above that I wrote "doesn't work"; it does... thanks to Erwin Brandstetter, below, who stated it would, I re-did it (after a night's sleep, refreshed eyes, and a banana for bfast). Since it took me so long/hard to find this sort of solution, perhaps my embarrassment is worth it? At least this is on SO for posterity now... : What I now have (that works) is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table AS old_my_table WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(*) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) AND my_table.row_id = old_my_table.row_id RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by AS old_processing_by The COUNT(*) is per a suggestion from Flimzy in a comment on my other (linked above) question. (I was more specific than necessary. [In this instance.])

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  • How to break a Hibernate session?

    - by Péter Török
    In the Hibernate reference, it is stated several times that All exceptions thrown by Hibernate are fatal. This means you have to roll back the database transaction and close the current Session. You aren’t allowed to continue working with a Session that threw an exception. One of our legacy apps uses a single session to update/insert many records from files into a DB table. Each recourd update/insert is done in a separate transaction, which is then duly committed (or rolled back in case an error occurred). Then for the next record a new transaction is opened etc. But the same session is used throughout the whole process, even if a HibernateException was caught in the middle. We are using Oracle 9i btw with Hibernate 3.24.sp1 on JBoss 4.2. Reading the above in the book, I realized that this design may fail. So I refactored the app to use a separate session for each record update. In a unit test with a mock session factory, I could prove that it is now requesting a new session for each record update. So far, so good. However, we found no way to reproduce the session failure while testing the whole app (would this be a stress test btw, or ...?). We thought of shutting down the listener of the DB but we realized that the app is keeping a bunch of connections open to the DB, and the listener would not affect those connections. (This is a web app, activated once every night by a scheduler, but it can also be activated via the browser.) Then we tried to kill some of those connections in the DB while the app was processing updates - this resulted in some failed updates, but then the app happily continued. Apparently Hibernate is clever enough to reopen broken connections under the hood without breaking the whole session. So this might not be a critical issue, as our app seems to be robust enough even in its original form. However, the issue keeps bugging me. I would like to know: Under what circumstances does the Hibernate session really become unusable after a HibernateException was thrown? How to reproduce this in a test? (What's the proper term for such a test?)

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  • Another IKImageView Question: copying a region

    - by Brian Postow
    I'm trying to use the select and copy feature of the IKImageView. If all you want to do is have an app with an image, select a portion and copy it to the clipboard, it's easy. You set the copy menu pick to the first responder's copy:(id) method and magically everything works. However, if you want something more complicated, like you want to copy as part of some other operation, I can't seem to find the method to do this. IKImageView doesn't seem to have a copy method, it doesn't seem to have a method that will even tell you the selected rectangle! I have gone through Hillegass' book, so I understand how the clipboard works, just not how to get the portion of the image out of the view... Now, I'm starting to think that I made a mistake in basing my project on IKImageView, but it's what Preview is built on (or so I've read), so I figured it had to be stable... and anyway, now it's too late, I'm too deep in this to start over... So, other than not using IKImageView, any suggestions on how to copy the select region to the clipboard manually? EDIT actually, I have found the copy(id) method, but when I call it, I get <Error>: CGBitmapContextCreate: unsupported parameter combination: 8 integer bits/component; 16 bits/pixel; 1-component color space; kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast; 2624 bytes/row. Which obviously doesn't happen when I do a normal copy through the first-responder... I understand the error message, but I'm not sure where it's getting those parameters from... Is there any way to trace through this and see how this is happening? A debugger won't help for obvious reasons, as well as the fact that I'm doing this in Mozilla, so a debugger isn't an option anyway... EDIT 2 It occurs to me that the copy:(id) method I found may be copying the VIEW rather than copying a chunk of the image to the clipboard, which is what I need. The reason I thought it was the clipboard copy is that in another project, where I'm copying from an IKImageView to the clipboard straight from the edit menu, it just sends a copy:(id) to the firstResponder, but I'm not actually sure what the firstresponder does with it...

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  • Searches (and general querying) with HBase and/or Cassandra (best practices?)

    - by alexeypro
    I have User model object with quite few fields (properties, if you wish) in it. Say "firstname", "lastname", "city" and "year-of-birth". Each user also gets "unique id". I want to be able to search by them. How do I do that properly? How to do that at all? My understanding (will work for pretty much any key-value storage -- first goes key, then value) u:123456789 = serialized_json_object ("u" as a simple prefix for user's keys, 123456789 is "unique id"). Now, thinking that I want to be able to search by firstname and lastname, I can save in: f:Steve = u:384734807,u:2398248764,u:23276263 f:Alex = u:12324355,u:121324334 so key is "f" - which is prefix for firstnames, and "Steve" is actual firstname. For "u:Steve" we save as value all user id's who are "Steve's". That makes every search very-very easy. Querying by few fields (properties) -- say by firstname (i.e. "Steve") and lastname (i.e. "l:Anything") is still easy - first get list of user ids from "f:Steve", then list from "l:Anything", find crossing user ids, an here you go. Problems (and there are quite a few): Saving, updating, deleting user is a pain. It has to be atomic and consistent operation. Also, if we have size of value limited to some value - then we are in (potential) trouble. And really not of an answer here. Only zipping the list of user ids? Not too cool, though. What id we want to add new field to search by. Eventually. Say by "city". We certainly can do the same way "c:Los Angeles" = ..., "c:Chicago" = ..., but if we didn't foresee all those "search choices" from the very beginning, then we will have to be able to create some night job or something to go by all existing User records and update those "c:CITY" for them... Quite a big job! Problems with locking. User "u:123" updates his name "Alex", and user "u:456" updates his name "Alex". They both have to update "f:Alex" with their id's. That means either we get into overwriting problem, or one update will wait for another (and imaging if there are many of them?!). What's the best way of doing that? Keeping in mind that I want to search by many fields? P.S. Please, the question is about HBase/Cassandra/NoSQL/Key-Value storages. Please please - no advices to use MySQL and "read about" SELECTs; and worry about scaling problems "later". There is a reason why I asked MY question exactly the way I did. :-)

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  • Partial overriding in Java (or dynamic overriding while overloading)

    - by Lie Ryan
    If I have a parent-child that defines some method .foo() like this: class Parent { public void foo(Parent arg) { System.out.println("foo in Function"); } } class Child extends Parent { public void foo(Child arg) { System.out.println("foo in ChildFunction"); } } When I called them like this: Child f = new Child(); Parent g = f; f.foo(new Parent()); f.foo(new Child()); g.foo(new Parent()); g.foo(new Child()); the output is: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Parent But, I want this output: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Child I have a Child class that extends Parent class. In the Child class, I want to "partially override" the Parent's foo(), that is, if the argument arg's type is Child then Child's foo() is called instead of Parent's foo(). That works Ok when I called f.foo(...) as a Child; but if I refer to it from its Parent alias like in g.foo(...) then the Parent's foo(..) get called irrespective of the type of arg. As I understand it, what I'm expecting doesn't happen because method overloading in Java is early binding (i.e. resolved statically at compile time) while method overriding is late binding (i.e. resolved dynamically at compile time) and since I defined a function with a technically different argument type, I'm technically overloading the Parent's class definition with a distinct definition, not overriding it. But what I want to do is conceptually "partially overriding" when .foo()'s argument is a subclass of the parent's foo()'s argument. I know I can define a bucket override foo(Parent arg) in Child that checks whether arg's actual type is Parent or Child and pass it properly, but if I have twenty Child, that would be lots of duplication of type-unsafe code. In my actual code, Parent is an abstract class named "Function" that simply throws NotImplementedException(). The children includes "Polynomial", "Logarithmic", etc and .foo() includes things like Child.add(Child), Child.intersectionsWith(Child), etc. Not all combination of Child.foo(OtherChild) are solvable and in fact not even all Child.foo(Child) is solvable. So I'm best left with defining everything undefined (i.e. throwing NotImplementedException) then defines only those that can be defined. So the question is: Is there any way to override only part the parent's foo()? Or is there a better way to do what I want to do?

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  • Asynchronous Silverlight 4 call to the World of Warcraft armoury streaming XML in C#

    - by user348446
    Hello - I have been stuck on this all weekend and failed miserably! Please help me to claw back my sanity!! Your challenge For my first Silverlight application I thought it would be fun to use the World of Warcraft armoury to list the characters in my guild. This involves making an asyncronous from Silverlight (duh!) to the WoW armoury which is XML based. SIMPLE EH? Take a look at this link and open the source. You'll see what I mean: http://eu.wowarmory.com/guild-info.xml?r=Eonar&n=Gifted and Talented Below is code for getting the XML (the call to ShowGuildies will cope with the returned XML - I have tested this locally and I know it works). I have not managed to get the expected returned XML at all. Notes: If the browser is capable of transforming the XML it will do so, otherwise HTML will be provided. I think it examines the UserAgent I am a seasoned asp.net web developer C# so go easy if you start talking about native to Windows Forms / WPF I can't seem to set the UserAgent setting in .net 4.0 - doesn't seem to be a property off the HttpWebRequest object for some reason - i think it used to be available. Silverlight 4.0 (created as 3.0 originally before I updated my installation of Silverlight to 4.0) Created using C# 4.0 Please explain as if you talking to a web developer and not a proper programming lol! Below is the code - it should return the XML from the wow armoury. private void button7_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // URL for armoury lookup string url = @"http://eu.wowarmory.com/guild-info.xml?r=Eonar&n=Gifted and Talented"; // Create the web request HttpWebRequest httpWebRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); // Set the user agent so we are returned XML and not HTML //httpWebRequest.Headers["User-Agent"] = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0)"; // Not sure about this dispatcher thing - it's late so i have started to guess. Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(delegate() { // Call asyncronously IAsyncResult asyncResult = httpWebRequest.BeginGetResponse(ReqCallback, httpWebRequest); // End the response and use the result using (HttpWebResponse httpWebResponse = (HttpWebResponse)httpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(asyncResult)) { // Load an XML document from a stream XDocument x = XDocument.Load(httpWebResponse.GetResponseStream()); // Basic function that will use LINQ to XML to get the list of characters. ShowGuildies(x); } }); } private void ReqCallback(IAsyncResult asynchronousResult) { // Not sure what to do here - maybe update the interface? } Really hope someone out there can help me! Thanks mucho! Dan. PS Yes, I have noticed the irony in the name of the guild :)

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  • Delphi LoadLibrary Failing to find DLL other directory - any good options?

    - by Chris Thornton
    Two Delphi programs need to load foo.dll, which contains some code that injects a client-auth certificate into a SOAP request. foo.dll resides in c:\fooapp\foo.dll and is normally loaded by c:\fooapp\foo.exe. That works fine. The other program needs the same functionality, but it resides in c:\program files\unwantedstepchild\sadapp.exe. Both aps load the DLL with this code: FOOLib := LoadLibrary('foo.dll'); ... If FOOLib <> 0 then begin FOOProc := GetProcAddress(FOOLib , 'xInjectCert'); FOOProc(myHttpRequest, Data, CertName); end; It works great for foo.exe, as the dll is right there. sadapp.exe fails to load the library, so FOOLib is 0, and the rest never gets called. The sadapp.exe program therefore silently fails to inject the cert, and when we test against production, it the cert is missing, do the connection fails. Obviously, we should have fully-qualified the path to the DLL. Without going into a lot of details, there were aspects of the testing that masked this problem until recently, and now it's basically too late to fix in code, as that would require a full regression test, and there isn't time for that. Since we've painted ourselves into a corner, I need to know if there are any options that I've overlooked. While we can't change the code (for this release), we CAN tweak the installer. I've found that placing c:\fooapp into the path works. As does adding a second copy of foo.dll directly into c:\program files\unwantedstepchild. c:\fooapp\foo.exe will always be running while sadapp.exe is running, so I was hoping that Windows would find it that way, but apparently not. Is there a way to tell Windows that I really want that same DLL? Maybe a manifest or something? This is the sort of "magic bullet" that I'm looking for. I know I can: Modify the windows path, probably in the installer. That's ugly. Add a second copy of the DLL, directly into the unwantedstepchild folder. Also ugly Delay the project while we code and test a proper fix. Unacceptable. Other? Thanks for any guidance, especially with "Other". I understand that this issue is not necessarily specific to Delphi. Thanks!

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  • Reliable and fast way to convert a zillion ODT files in PDF?

    - by Marco Mariani
    I need to pre-produce a million or two PDF files from a simple template (a few pages and tables) with embedded fonts. Usually, I would stay low level in a case like this, and compose everything with a library like ReportLab, but I joined late in the project. Currently, I have a template.odt and use markers in the content.xml files to fill with data from a DB. I can smoothly create the ODT files, they always look rigth. For the ODT to PDF conversion, I'm using openoffice in server mode (and PyODConverter w/ named pipe), but it's not very reliable: in a batch of documents, there is eventually a point after which all the processed files are converted into garbage (wrong fonts and letters sprawled all over the page). Problem is not predictably reproducible (does not depend on the data), happens in OOo 2.3 and 3.2, in Ubuntu, XP, Server 2003 and Windows 7. My Heisenbug detector is ticking. I tried to reduce the size of batches and restarting OOo after each one; still, a small percentage of the documents are messed up. Of course I'll write about this on the Ooo mailing lists, but in the meanwhile, I have a delivery and lost too much time already. Where do I go? Completely avoid the ODT format and go for another template system. Suggestions? Anything that takes a few seconds to run is way too slow. OOo takes around a second and it sums to 15 days of processing time. I had to write a program for clustering the jobs over several clients. Keep the format but go for another tool/program for the conversion. Which one? There are many apps in the shareware or commercial repositories for windows, but trying each one is a daunting task. Some are too slow, some cannot be run in batch without buying it first, some cannot work from command line, etc. Open source tools tend not to reinvent the wheel and often depend on openoffice. Converting to an intermediate .DOC format could help to avoid the OOo bug, but it would double the processing time and complicate a task that is already too hairy. Try to produce the PDFs twice and compare them, discarding the whole batch if there's something wrong. Although the documents look equal, I know of no way to compare the binary content. Restart OOo after processing each document. it would take a lot more time to produce them it would lower the percentage of the wrong files, and make it very hard to identify them. Go for ReportLab and recreate the pages programmatically. This is the approach I'm going to try in a few minutes. Learn to properly format bulleted lists Thanks a lot.

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  • Visual Studio soft-crashing when encountering XAML Errors in initialize.

    - by Aren
    I've been having some serious issues with Visual Studio 2010 as of late. It's been crashing in a peculiar way when I encounter certain types of XAML errors during the InitializeComponent() of a control/window. The program breaks and visual studio gears up like it's catching an exception (because it is) and then stops midway displaying a broken highlight in my XAML file with no details as to what is wrong. Example: There is not pop outs, or details Anywhere about what is wrong, only a callstack that points to my InitializeComponent() call. Now normally I'd just do some trial and error to fix this problem, and find out where i messed up, but the real problem isn't my code. Visual Studio is rendered completely useless at this point. It reports my application still in "Running" mode. The Stop/Break/Restart buttons on the toolbar or in the menus don't do anything (but grey out). Closing the application does not stop this behaviour, closing visual studio gets it stuck in a massive loop where it yells at me complaining every file open is not in the debug project, then repeats this process when i have exausted every open file. I have to force-close devenv.exe, and after this happening 3-4 times in a row it's a lot of wasted time (as my projects are usually pretty big and studio can be quite slow @ loading). To the point Has anyone else experienced this? How can I stop studio from locking up. Can I at LEAST get information out of this beast another way so i can fix my XAML error sooner rather than after 3-4 trial-and-error compiles yielding the same crash? Any & All help would be appreciated. Visual Studio 2010 version: 10.0.30319.1RTM Edit & Update FWIW, mostly the errors that cause this are XamlParseExceptions (I figured this out after i found what was wrong with my XAML). I think I need to be clearer though, Im not looking for the solution to my code problem, as these are usually typos / small things, I'm looking for a solution to VStudio getting all buggered up as a result. The particular error in the above image that 100% for sure caused this was a XamlParseException caused by forgetting a Value attribute on a data trigger. I've fixed that part but it still doesn't tell my why my studio becomes a lump of neutered program when a perfectly normal exception is thrown in the parsing of the XAML. Code that will cause this issue (at least for me) This is the base template WPF Application, with the following Window.xaml code. The problem is a missing Value="True" on the <DataTrigger ...> in the template. It generates a XamlParseException and Visual Studio Crashes as described above when debugging it. Final Notes The following solutions did not help me: Restarting Visual Studio Rebooting Reinstalling Visual Studio

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  • Can GPU capabilities impact virtual machine performance?

    - by Dave White
    While this many not seem like a programming question directly, it impacts my development activities and so it seems like it belongs here. It seems that more and more developers are turning to virtual environments for development activities on their computers, SharePoint development being a prime example. Also, as a trainer, I have virtual training environments for all of the classes that I teach. I recently purchased a new Dell E6510 to travel around with. It has the i7 620M (Dual core, HyperThreaded cpu running at 2.66GHz) and 8 GB of memory. Reading the spec sheet, it sounded like it would be a great laptop to carry around and run virtual machines on. Getting the laptop though, I've been pretty disappointed with the user experience of developing in a virtual machine. Giving the Virtual Machine 4 GB of memory, it was slow and I could type complete sentences and watch the VM "catchup". My company has training laptops that we provide for our classes. They are Dell Precision M6400 Intel Core 2 Duo P8700 running at 2.54Ghz with 8 GB of memory and the experience on this laptops is night and day compared to the E6510. They are crisp and you barely aware that you are running in a virtual environment. Since the E6510 should be faster in all categories than the M6400, I couldn't understand why the new laptop was slower, so I did a component by component comparison and the only place where the E6510 is less performant than the M6400 is the graphics department. The M6400 is running a nVidia FX 2700m GPU and the E6510 is running a nVidia 3100M GPU. Looking at benchmarks of the two GPUs suggest that the FX 2700M is twice as fast as the 3100M. http://www.notebookcheck.net/Mobile-Graphics-Cards-Benchmark-List.844.0.html 3100M = 111th (E6510) FX 2700m = 47th (Precision M6400) Radeon HD 5870 = 8th (Alienware) The host OS is Windows 7 64bit as is the guest OS, running in Virtual Box 3.1.8 with Guest Additions installed on the guest. The IDE being used in the virtual environment is VS 2010 Premium. So after that long setup, my question is: Is the GPU significantly impacting the virtual machine's performance or are there other factors that I'm not looking at that I can use to boost the vm's performance? Do we now have to consider GPU performance when purchasing laptops where we expect to use virtualized development environments? Thanks in advance. Cheers, Dave

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  • How safe is my safe rethrow?

    - by gustafc
    (Late edit: This question will hopefully be obsolete when Java 7 comes, because of the "final rethrow" feature which seems like it will be added.) Quite often, I find myself in situations looking like this: do some initialization try { do some work } catch any exception { undo initialization rethrow exception } In C# you can do it like this: InitializeStuff(); try { DoSomeWork(); } catch { UndoInitialize(); throw; } For Java, there's no good substitution, and since the proposal for improved exception handling was cut from Java 7, it looks like it'll take at best several years until we get something like it. Thus, I decided to roll my own: (Edit: Half a year later, final rethrow is back, or so it seems.) public final class Rethrow { private Rethrow() { throw new AssertionError("uninstantiable"); } /** Rethrows t if it is an unchecked exception. */ public static void unchecked(Throwable t) { if (t instanceof Error) throw (Error) t; if (t instanceof RuntimeException) throw (RuntimeException) t; } /** Rethrows t if it is an unchecked exception or an instance of E. */ public static <E extends Exception> void instanceOrUnchecked( Class<E> exceptionClass, Throwable t) throws E, Error, RuntimeException { Rethrow.unchecked(t); if (exceptionClass.isInstance(t)) throw exceptionClass.cast(t); } } Typical usage: public void doStuff() throws SomeException { initializeStuff(); try { doSomeWork(); } catch (Throwable t) { undoInitialize(); Rethrow.instanceOrUnchecked(SomeException.class, t); // We shouldn't get past the above line as only unchecked or // SomeException exceptions are thrown in the try block, but // we don't want to risk swallowing an error, so: throw new SomeException("Unexpected exception", t); } private void doSomeWork() throws SomeException { ... } } It's a bit wordy, catching Throwable is usually frowned upon, I'm not really happy at using reflection just to rethrow an exception, and I always feel a bit uneasy writing "this will not happen" comments, but in practice it works well (or seems to, at least). What I wonder is: Do I have any flaws in my rethrow helper methods? Some corner cases I've missed? (I know that the Throwable may have been caused by something so severe that my undoInitialize will fail, but that's OK.) Has someone already invented this? I looked at Commons Lang's ExceptionUtils but that does other things. Edit: finally is not the droid I'm looking for. I'm only interested to do stuff when an exception is thrown. Yes, I know catching Throwable is a big no-no, but I think it's the lesser evil here compared to having three catch clauses (for Error, RuntimeException and SomeException, respectively) with identical code. Note that I'm not trying to suppress any errors - the idea is that any exceptions thrown in the try block will continue to bubble up through the call stack as soon as I've rewinded a few things.

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  • Looking for Fiddler2 help. connection to gateway refused? Just got rid of a virus

    - by John Mackey
    I use Fiddler2 for facebook game items, and it's been a great success. I accessed a website to download some dat files I needed. I think it was eshare, ziddu or megaupload, one of those. Anyway, even before the rar file had downloaded, I got this weird green shield in the bottom right hand corner of my computer. It said a Trojan was trying to access my computer, or something to that extent. It prompted me to click the shield to begin anti-virus scanning. It turns out this rogue program is called Antivirus System Pro and is pretty hard to get rid of. After discovering the rogue program, I tried using Fiddler and got the following error: [Fiddler] Connection to Gateway failed.Exception Text: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:5555 I ended up purchasing SpyDoctor + Antivirus, which I'm told is designed specifically for getting rid of these types of programs. Anyway, I did a quick-scan last night with spydoctor and malware bytes. Malware picked up 2 files, and Spydoctor found 4. Most were insignificant, but it did find a worm called Worm.Alcra.F, which was labeled high-priority. I don’t know if that’s the Anti-Virus Pro or not, but SpyDoctor said it got rid of all of those successfully. I tried to run Fiddler again before leaving home, but was still getting the "gateway failed" error. Im using the newest version of firefox. When I initially set up the Fiddler 2.2.8.6, I couldn’t get it to run at first, so I found this faq on the internet that said I needed to go through ToolsOptionsSettings and set up an HTTP Proxy to 127.0.0.1 and my Port to 8888. Once I set that up and downloaded this fiddler helper as a firefox add-on, it worked fine. When I turn on fiddler, it automatically takes my proxy setting from no proxy (default) to the 127.0.0.1 with Port 8888 set up. It worked fine until my computer detected this virus. Anyway, hopefully I've given you sufficient information to offer me your best advice here. Like I said, Spydoctor says the bad stuff is gone, so maybe the rogue program made some type of change in my fiddler that I could just reset or uncheck or something like that? Or will I need to completely remove fiddler and those dat files and rar files I downloaded? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • Python: Script works, but seems to deadlock after some time

    - by sberry2A
    I have the following script, which is working for the most part Link to PasteBin The script's job is to start a number of threads which in turn each start a subprocess with Popen. The output from each subprocess is as follows: 1 2 3 . . . n Done Bascially the subprocess is transferring 10M records from tables in one database to different tables in another db with a lot of data massaging/manipulation in between because of the different schemas. If the subprocess fails at any time in it's execution (bad records, duplicate primary keys, etc), or it completes successfully, it will output "Done\n". If there are no more records to select against for transfer then it will output "NO DATA\n" My intent was to create my script "tableTransfer.py" which would spawn a number of these processes, read their output, and in turn output information such as number of updates completed, time remaining, time elapsed, and number of transfers per second. I started running the process last night and checked in this morning to see it had deadlocked. There were not subprocceses running, there are still records to be updated, and the script had not exited. It was simply sitting there, no longer outputting the current information because no subprocces were running to update the total number complete which is what controls updates to the output. This is running on OS X. I am looking for three things: I would like to get rid of the possibility of this deadlock occurring so I don't need to check in on it as frequently. Is there some issue with locking? Am I doing this in a bad way (gThreading variable to control looping of spawning additional thread... etc.) I would appreciate some suggestions for improving my overall methodology. How should I handle ctrl-c exit? Right now I need to kill the process, but assume I should be able to use the signal module or other to catch the signal and kill the threads, is that right? I am not sure whether I should be pasting my entire script here, since I usually just paste snippets. Let me know if I should paste it here as well.

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  • Why no switch on pointers?

    - by meeselet
    For instance: #include <stdio.h> void why_cant_we_switch_him(void *ptr) { switch (ptr) { case NULL: printf("NULL!\n"); break; default: printf("%p!\n", ptr); break; } } int main(void) { void *foo = "toast"; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); return 0; } gcc test.c -o test test.c: In function 'why_cant_we_switch_him': test.c:5: error: switch quantity not an integer test.c:6: error: pointers are not permitted as case values Just curious. Is this a technical limitation? EDIT People seem to think there is only one constant pointer expression. Is that is really true, though? For instance, here is a common paradigm in Objective-C (it is really only C aside from NSString, id and nil, which are merely a pointers, so it is still relevant — I just wanted to point out that there is, in fact, a common use for it, despite this being only a technical question): #include <stdio.h> #include <Foundation/Foundation.h> static NSString * const kMyConstantObject = @"Foo"; void why_cant_we_switch_him(id ptr) { switch (ptr) { case kMyConstantObject: // (Note that we are comparing pointers, not string values.) printf("We found him!\n"); break; case nil: printf("He appears to be nil (or NULL, whichever you prefer).\n"); break; default: printf("%p!\n", ptr); break; } } int main(void) { NSString *foo = @"toast"; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); foo = kMyConstantObject; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); return 0; } gcc test.c -o test -framework Foundation test.c: In function 'why_cant_we_switch_him': test.c:5: error: switch quantity not an integer test.c:6: error: pointers are not permitted as case values It appears that the reason is that switch only allows integral values (as the compiler warning said). So I suppose a better question would be to ask why this is the case? (though it is probably too late now.)

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  • Many-To-Many Query with Linq-To-NHibernate

    - by rjygraham
    Ok guys (and gals), this one has been driving me nuts all night and I'm turning to your collective wisdom for help. I'm using Fluent Nhibernate and Linq-To-NHibernate as my data access story and I have the following simplified DB structure: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Classes]( [Id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [nvarchar](100) NOT NULL, [StartDate] [datetime2](7) NOT NULL, [EndDate] [datetime2](7) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Classes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Sections]( [Id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [ClassId] [bigint] NOT NULL, [InternalCode] [varchar](10) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Sections] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[SectionStudents]( [SectionId] [bigint] NOT NULL, [UserId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_SectionStudents] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [SectionId] ASC, [UserId] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[aspnet_Users]( [ApplicationId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [UserId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [UserName] [nvarchar](256) NOT NULL, [LoweredUserName] [nvarchar](256) NOT NULL, [MobileAlias] [nvarchar](16) NULL, [IsAnonymous] [bit] NOT NULL, [LastActivityDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [UserId] ASC ) I omitted the foreign keys for brevity, but essentially this boils down to: A Class can have many Sections. A Section can belong to only 1 Class but can have many Students. A Student (aspnet_Users) can belong to many Sections. I've setup the corresponding Model classes and Fluent NHibernate Mapping classes, all that is working fine. Here's where I'm getting stuck. I need to write a query which will return the sections a student is enrolled in based on the student's UserId and the dates of the class. Here's what I've tried so far: 1. var sections = (from s in this.Session.Linq<Sections>() where s.Class.StartDate <= DateTime.UtcNow && s.Class.EndDate > DateTime.UtcNow && s.Students.First(f => f.UserId == userId) != null select s); 2. var sections = (from s in this.Session.Linq<Sections>() where s.Class.StartDate <= DateTime.UtcNow && s.Class.EndDate > DateTime.UtcNow && s.Students.Where(w => w.UserId == userId).FirstOrDefault().Id == userId select s); Obviously, 2 above will fail miserably if there are no students matching userId for classes the current date between it's start and end dates...but I just wanted to try. The filters for the Class StartDate and EndDate work fine, but the many-to-many relation with Students is proving to be difficult. Everytime I try running the query I get an ArgumentNullException with the message: Value cannot be null. Parameter name: session I've considered going down the path of making the SectionStudents relation a Model class with a reference to Section and a reference to Student instead of a many-to-many. I'd like to avoid that if I can, and I'm not even sure it would work that way. Thanks in advance to anyone who can help. Ryan

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  • Hide a base class method from derived class, but still visible outside of assembly

    - by clintp
    This is a question about tidyness. The project is already working, I'm satisfied with the design but I have a couple of loose ends that I'd like to tie up. My project has a plugin architecture. The main body of the program dispatches work to the plugins that each reside in their own AppDomain. The plugins are described with an interface, which is used by the main program (to get the signature for invoking DispatchTaskToPlugin) and by the plugins themselves as an API contract: namespace AppServer.Plugin.Common { public interface IAppServerPlugin { void Register(); void DispatchTaskToPlugin(Task t); // Other methods omitted } } In the main body of the program Register() is called so that the plugin can register its callback methods with the base class, and then later DispatchTaskToPlugin() is called to get the plugin running. The plugins themselves are in two parts. There's a base class that implements the framework for the plugin (setup, housekeeping, teardown, etc..). This is where DispatchTaskToPlugin is actually defined: namespace AppServer.Plugin { abstract public class BasePlugin : MarshalByRefObject, AppServer.Plugin.Common.IAppServerPlugin { public void DispatchTaskToPlugin(Task t) { // ... // Eventual call to actual plugin code // } // Other methods omitted } } The actual plugins themselves only need to implement a Register() method (to give the base class the delegates to call eventually) and then their business logic. namespace AppServer.Plugin { public class Plugin : BasePlugin { override public void Register() { // Calls a method in the base class to register itself. } // Various callback methods, business logic, etc... } } Now in the base class (BasePlugin) I've implemented all kinds of convenience methods, collected data, etc.. for the plugins to use. Everything's kosher except for that lingering method DispatchTaskToPlugin(). It's not supposed to be callable from the Plugin class implementations -- they have no use for it. It's only needed by the dispatcher in the main body of the program. How can I prevent the derived classes (Plugin) from seeing the method in the base class (BasePlugin/DispatchTaskToPlugin) but still have it visible from outside of the assembly? I can split hairs and have DispatchTaskToPlugin() throw an exception if it's called from the derived classes, but that's closing the barn door a little late. I'd like to keep it out of Intellisense or possibly have the compiler take care of this for me. Suggestions?

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  • Who calls the Destructor of the class when operator delete is used in multiple inheritance.

    - by dicaprio-leonard
    This question may sound too silly, however , I don't find concrete answer any where else. With little knowledge on how late binding works and virtual keyword used in inheritance. As in the code sample, when in case of inheritance where a base class pointer pointing to a derived class object created on heap and delete operator is used to deallocate the memory , the destructor of the of the derived and base will be called in order only when the base destructor is declared virtual function. Now my question is : 1) When the destructor of base is not virtual, why the problem of not calling derived dtor occur only when in case of using "delete" operator , why not in the case given below: derived drvd; base *bPtr; bPtr = &drvd; //DTOR called in proper order when goes out of scope. 2) When "delete" operator is used, who is reponsible to call the destructor of the class? The operator delete will have an implementation to call the DTOR ? or complier writes some extra stuff ? If the operator has the implementation then how does it looks like , [I need sample code how this would have been implemented]. 3) If virtual keyword is used in this example, how does operator delete now know which DTOR to call? Fundamentaly i want to know who calls the dtor of the class when delete is used. Sample Code class base { public: base() { cout<<"Base CTOR called"<<endl; } virtual ~base() { cout<<"Base DTOR called"<<endl; } }; class derived:public base { public: derived() { cout<<"Derived CTOR called"<<endl; } ~derived() { cout<<"Derived DTOR called"<<endl; } }; I'm not sure if this is a duplicate, I couldn't find in search. int main() { base *bPtr = new derived(); delete bPtr;// only when you explicitly try to delete an object return 0; }

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  • jquery 1.4.1 breaks my slideshow

    - by JMC Creative
    After toying with the jquery slideshow extension, I created my own that better suited my purposes ( I didn't like that all the images needed to load at the beginning for instance). Now, upon upgrading to jQuery 1.4.2 (I know I'm late), the slideshow loads the first image fine ( from the line$('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); towards the bottom), but doesn't do anything beyond that. Does anyone have any idea which jquery construct is killing my script? The live page is at lplonline.org which is using 1.3.2 for the time being. Thanks in advance. Array.prototype.random = function( r ) { var i = 0, l = this.length; if( !r ) { r = this.length; } else if( r > 0 ) { r = r % l; } else { i = r; r = l + r % l; } return this[ Math.floor( r * Math.random() - i ) ]; }; jQuery(function($){ var imgArr = new Array(); imgArr[1] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/Brbrshop4-hrmnywkshp72006.jpg"; imgArr[2] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/IMGA0125.JPG"; //etc, etc, about 30 of these are created dynamically from a db function randImgs () { var randImg = imgArr.random(); var img1 = $('div#slideshow img#ssone'); var img2 = $('div#slideshow img#sstwo'); if(img1.is(':visible') ) { img2.fadeIn(1500); img1.fadeOut(1500,function() { img1.attr({src : randImg}); }); } else { img1.fadeIn(1500); img2.fadeOut(1500,function() { img2.attr({src : randImg}); }); } } setInterval(randImgs,9000); // 9 SECONDS $('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); }); </script> <div id="slideshow"> <img id="ssone" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-investments.png" alt="" /> <img id="sstwo" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-drugs.png" alt="" /> </div>

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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  • Dealing with personal failure

    - by codeelegance
    A while ago I was given the task of updating and extending the functionality of a software project. I was given a year to make the needed changes working solo. A month into development I came to the conclusion that it would take longer to change the existing product than to rewrite it from the ground up. I'd never attempted a complete rewrite so I talked with my boss about it and he was thrilled with the idea. I'm a fan of agile development but had never had the opportunity to take advantage of all of the prescribed practices so when I set to work I tried to incorporate as many as I could. I didn't have direct access to the customer and my coworkers (non-programmers) knew the business domain but were already so busy they didn't really have time to participate in design meetings so I resigned to working in the dark and occasionally calling one of them over to my desk to get feedback on my progress. I used TDD and refactored mercilessly and even tried taking a domain driven design approach. Things went well for a while. As the deadline came closer and the complexity of the project grew my productivity start slipping. I found myself cutting corners and ignoring the practices I had established as the pressure increased to meet the deadline. I also started working late nights and weekends to keep up with the load. In the end it made little difference how hard I worked. The project missed its deadline and what was completed wasn't enough to give to the customer. I had failed. Not only had I not finished on time but the previous version had sat untouched for almost a year so it wouldn't be of any help. Luckily we had another product that offered some of the same functionality. My boss decided to cancel the project entirely and moved all our orphaned customers to the other product. I spent weeks (along with everyone else at the company) manning the phones providing technical support for those customers. After it was all over, my boss was gracious enough not to fire me for nearly ruining the company. I was moved to the other product and have been trying to redeem myself ever since. Where did I go wrong? Has anyone else had to deal with this kind of defeat? How did you recover?

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  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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  • Expand and overlap image over a grid of other images

    - by soren121
    I've been fighting with jQuery all night and getting quite frustrated here, so forgive me if the answer was staring me in the face. I have a grid of 15 images contained within a <div>, and when I click on one of them, I want it to expand to three times its original size of 150x105 and overlap the rest. I've got the expanding down, but the overlapping isn't quite working. My current HTML: <div id="image-grid"> <img src="images/after-pictures/1.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/2.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/3.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/4.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/5.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/6.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/7.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/8.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/9.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/10.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/11.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/12.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/13.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/14.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/15.jpg" class="igc5" /> </div> The igc* class denotes the column the image is in. CSS: #image-grid { border: 1px solid #aaa; width: 745px; padding: 5px 2px 2px 5px; } #image-grid img { width: 150px; height: 105px; margin: -2px; } jQuery: $('#image-grid img').click(function() { $(this).animate({ width: '450px', height: '315px', zIndex: '10' }, 200); });

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