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  • Linux C debugging library to detect memory corruptions

    - by calandoa
    When working sometimes ago on an embedded system with a simple MMU, I used to program dynamically this MMU to detect memory corruptions. For instance, at some moment at runtime, the foo variable was overwritten with some unexpected data (probably by a dangling pointer or whatever). So I added the additional debugging code : at init, the memory used by foo was indicated as a forbidden region to the MMU; each time foo was accessed on purpose, access to the region was allowed just before then forbidden just after; a MMU irq handler was added to dump the master and the address responsible of the violation. This was actually some kind of watchpoint, but directly self-handled by the code itself. Now, I would like to reuse the same trick, but on a x86 platform. The problem is that I am very far from understanding how is working the MMU on this platform, and how it is used by Linux, but I wonder if any library/tool/system call already exist to deal with this problem. Note that I am aware that various tools exist like Valgrind or GDB to manage memory problems, but as far as I know, none of these tools car be dynamically reconfigured by the debugged code. I am mainly interested for user space under Linux, but any info on kernel mode or under Windows is also welcome!

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  • Is there any appreciable difference between if and if-else?

    - by Drew
    Given the following code snippets, is there any appreciable difference? public boolean foo(int input) { if(input > 10) { doStuff(); return true; } if(input == 0) { doOtherStuff(); return true; } return false; } vs. public boolean foo(int input) { if(input > 10) { doStuff(); return true; } else if(input == 0) { doOtherStuff(); return true; } else { return false; } } Or would the single exit principle be better here with this piece of code... public boolean foo(int input) { boolean toBeReturned = false; if(input > 10) { doStuff(); toBeReturned = true; } else if(input == 0) { doOtherStuff(); toBeReturned = true; } return toBeReturned; } Is there any perceptible performance difference? Do you feel one is more or less maintainable/readable than the others?

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  • Unable to HTTP PUT with libcurl

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to PUT data using libcurl to mimic the command curl -u test:test -X PUT --data-binary @data.yaml "http://127.0.0.1:8000/foo/" which works correctly. My options look like: curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "test:test"); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_URL, "http://127.0.0.1:8000/foo/"); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_UPLOAD, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_READFUNCTION, read_data); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_READDATA, &yaml); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_INFILESIZE, yaml.size()); curl_easy_perform(handle); I believe the read_data function works correctly, but if you ask, I'll post that code. I'm using Django with django-piston, and my update function is never called! (It is called when I use the command line version above.) libcurl's output is: * About to connect() to 127.0.0.1 port 8000 (#0) * Trying 127.0.0.1... * connected * Connected to 127.0.0.1 (127.0.0.1) port 8000 (#0) * Server auth using Basic with user 'test' > PUT /foo/ HTTP/1.1 Authorization: Basic dGVzdDp0ZXN0 Host: 127.0.0.1:8000 Accept: */* Content-Length: 244 Expect: 100-continue * Done waiting for 100-continue ** this is where my read_data handler confirms: read 244 bytes ** * HTTP 1.0, assume close after body < HTTP/1.0 400 BAD REQUEST < Date: Thu, 13 May 2010 08:22:52 GMT < Server: WSGIServer/0.1 Python/2.5.1 < Vary: Authorization < Content-Type: text/plain < Bad Request* Closing connection #0

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  • In Javascript, is it true that function aliasing works as long as the function being aliased doesn't

    - by Jian Lin
    In Javascript, if we are aliasing a function, such as in: f = g; f = obj.display; obj.f = foo; all the 3 lines above, they will work as long as the function / method on the right hand side doesn't touch this? Since we are passing in all the arguments, the only way it can mess up is when the function / method on the right uses this? Actually, line 1 is probably ok if g is also a property of window? If g is referencing obj.display, then the same problem is there. In line 2, when obj.display touches this, it is to mean the obj, but when f() is invoked, the this is window, so they are different. In line 3, it is the same: when f() is invoked inside of obj's code, then the this is obj, while foo might be using this to refer to window if it were a property of window. (global function). So line 2 can be written as f = function() { obj.display.apply(obj, arguments) } and line 3: obj.f = function() { foo.apply(window, arguments) } Is this the correct method, and are there there other methods besides this?

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  • URL protocol handler shell execute problem

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I'm working on a small hobby web site where I'm able to launch a local app with certain arguments based on links. Setting up a protocol wasn't difficult, as described in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa767914(VS.85).aspx, but I have one dilemma: Let's say the protocol is: foo:127.0.0.1:1111, so a link like href="foo:127.0.0.1:1111" would launch an app like: bar.exe "%1". Since I don't have any control over bar.exe (if I had, then it would be no problem to just parse it, obviously), I need some help parsing %1. bar.exe will launch correctly if it's run as bar.exe 127.0.0.1:1111, but not if it's run as bar.exe foo:127.0.0.1:1111. So I guess my question is... is there ANY way to tell the registry to pass on not %1, but a trimmed %1? (Thinking in terms of regexp where you have match[0] = all of the matched, match[1] = first capture in the matched text). I can solve it by having a .bat instead of .exe, but as I would like to make it as easy as possible for the user to use, I would LOVE it if I could handle it all stricly in registry. Any help is greatly appreciated! Chuck

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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  • Need to exclude results in a MySQL query where two table fields are not of certain values (brain far

    - by DondeEstaMiCulo
    I don't know if I'm just burnt out and can't think, or what... But I can't seem to make this work right... (We're using MySQL 5.1...) I have two tables which have some transactional stuff stored in them. There will be many records per user_id in each table. Table1 and Table2 have a one-to-one relationship with each other. I want to pull records from both tables, but I want to exclude records which have certain values in both tables. I don't care if they both don't have these values, or if just one does, but both tables should not have both values. (Does this make any sense? lol) For example: SELECT t1.id, t1.type, t2.name FROM table1 t1 INNER JOIN table2 t2 ON table.xid = table2.id WHERE t1.user_id = 100 AND (t1.type != 'FOO' AND t2.name != 'BAR') So t1.type is type ENUM with about 10 different options, and t2.name is also type ENUM with 2 options. My expected results would look a little like: 1, FOO, YUM 2, BOO, BAR 3, BOO, YUM But instead, all I'm getting is: 3, BOO, YUM Because it's filtering out all records which has 'FOO' as the type, and 'BAR' as the name. I keep waiting for that D'oh! moment where it hits me and I feel like an idiot for not realizing what I'm doing wrong. But it hasn't come. And I still feel like an idiot, lol. I appreciate any light any of you can shed on this! Many thanks in advance for the help!

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  • how to store a file handle in perl class

    - by Haiyuan Zhang
    please look at the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • Python calling class methods with the wrong number of parameters

    - by Hussain
    I'm just beginning to learn python. I wrote an example script to test OOP in python, but something very odd has happened. When I call a class method, Python is calling the function with one more parameter than given. Here is the code: 1. class Bar: 2. num1,num2 = 0,0 3. def __init__(num1,num2): 4. num1,num2 = num1,num2 5. def foo(): 6. if num1 num2: 7. print num1,'is greater than ',num2,'!' 8. elif num1 is num2: 9. print num1,' is equal to ',num2,'!' 10. else: 11. print num1,' is less than ',num2,'!' 12. a,b,t = 42,84,bar(a,b) 13. t.foo 14. 15. t.num1 = t.num1^t.num2 16. t.num2 = t.num2^t.num1 17. t.num1 = t.num1^t.num2 18. 19. t.foo 20. And the error message I get: python test.py Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 12, in a,b,t = 42,84,bar(a,b) NameError: name 'bar' is not defined Can anyone help? Thanks in advance

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  • Boost's "cstdint" Usage

    - by patt0h
    Boost's C99 stdint implementation is awfully handy. One thing bugs me, though. They dump all of their typedefs into the boost namespace. This leaves me with three choices when using this facility: Use "using namespace boost" Use "using boost::[u]<type><width>_t" Explicitly refer to the target type with the boost:: prefix; e.g., boost::uint32_t foo = 0; Option ? 1 kind of defeats the point of namespaces. Even if used within local scope (e.g., within a function), things like function arguments still have to be prefixed like option ? 3. Option ? 2 is better, but there are a bunch of these types, so it can get noisy. Option ? 3 adds an extreme level of noise; the boost:: prefix is often = to the length of the type in question. My question is: What would be the most elegant way to bring all of these types into the global namespace? Should I just write a wrapper around boost/cstdint.hpp that utilizes option ? 2 and be done with it? Also, wrapping the header like so didn't work on VC++ 10 (problems with standard library headers): namespace Foo { #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> using namespace boost; } using namespace Foo; Even if it did work, I guess it would cause ambiguity problems with the ::boost namespace.

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  • How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

    - by user1277160
    Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

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  • Rails syntax for comments in templates: is this bug understood?

    - by brahn
    Using rails 2.3.2 I have a partial _foo.rhtml that begins with a comment as follows: <% # here is a comment %> <li><%= foo %></li> When I render the partial from a view in the traditional way, e.g. <% some_numbers = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] %> <ul> <%= render :partial => "foo", :collection => some_numbers %> </ul> I found that the <li> and </li> tags are ommitted in the output -- i.e. the resulting HTML is <ul> 1 2 3 4 5 </ul> However, I can solve this problem by fixing _foo.rhtml to eliminate the space between the <% and the # so that the partial now reads: <%# here is a comment %> <li><%= foo %></li> My question: what's going on here? E.g., is <% # comment %> simply incorrect syntax for including comments in a template? Or is the problem more subtle? Thanks!

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  • Could I do this blind relative to absolute path conversion (for perforce depot paths) better?

    - by wonderfulthunk
    I need to "blindly" (i.e. without access to the filesystem, in this case the source control server) convert some relative paths to absolute paths. So I'm playing with dotdots and indices. For those that are curious I have a log file produced by someone else's tool that sometimes outputs relative paths, and for performance reasons I don't want to access the source control server where the paths are located to check if they're valid and more easily convert them to their absolute path equivalents. I've gone through a number of (probably foolish) iterations trying to get it to work - mostly a few variations of iterating over the array of folders and trying delete_at(index) and delete_at(index-1) but my index kept incrementing while I was deleting elements of the array out from under myself, which didn't work for cases with multiple dotdots. Any tips on improving it in general or specifically the lack of non-consecutive dotdot support would be welcome. Currently this is working with my limited examples, but I think it could be improved. It can't handle non-consecutive '..' directories, and I am probably doing a lot of wasteful (and error-prone) things that I probably don't need to do because I'm a bit of a hack. I've found a lot of examples of converting other types of relative paths using other languages, but none of them seemed to fit my situation. These are my example paths that I need to convert, from: //depot/foo/../bar/single.c //depot/foo/docs/../../other/double.c //depot/foo/usr/bin/../../../else/more/triple.c to: //depot/bar/single.c //depot/other/double.c //depot/else/more/triple.c And my script: begin paths = File.open(ARGV[0]).readlines puts(paths) new_paths = Array.new paths.each { |path| folders = path.split('/') if ( folders.include?('..') ) num_dotdots = 0 first_dotdot = folders.index('..') last_dotdot = folders.rindex('..') folders.each { |item| if ( item == '..' ) num_dotdots += 1 end } if ( first_dotdot and ( num_dotdots > 0 ) ) # this might be redundant? folders.slice!(first_dotdot - num_dotdots..last_dotdot) # dependent on consecutive dotdots only end end folders.map! { |elem| if ( elem !~ /\n/ ) elem = elem + '/' else elem = elem end } new_paths << folders.to_s } puts(new_paths) end

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  • How safe and reliable are C++ String Literals?

    - by DoctorT
    So, I'm wanting to get a better grasp on how string literals in C++ work. I'm mostly concerned with situations where you're assigning the address of a string literal to a pointer, and passing it around. For example: char* advice = "Don't stick your hands in the toaster."; Now lets say I just pass this string around by copying pointers for the duration of the program. Sure, it's probably not a good idea, but I'm curious what would actually be going on behind the scenes. For another example, let's say we make a function that returns a string literal: char* foo() { // function does does stuff return "Yikes!"; // somebody's feeble attempt at an error message } Now lets say this function is called very often, and the string literal is only used about half the time it's called: // situation #1: it's just randomly called without heed to the return value foo(); // situation #2: the returned string is kept and used for who knows how long char* retVal = foo(); In the first situation, what's actually happening? Is the string just created but not used, and never deallocated? In the second situation, is the string going to be maintained as long as the user finds need for it? What happens when it isn't needed anymore... will that memory be freed up then (assuming nothing points to that space anymore)? Don't get me wrong, I'm not planning on using string literals like this. I'm planning on using a container to keep my strings in check (probably std::string). I'm mostly just wanting to know if these situations could cause problems either for memory management or corrupted data.

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  • Make function non-recursive

    - by user69514
    I'm not sure how to make this function non-recursive. Any ideas?: void foo(int a, int b){ while( a < len && arr[a][b] != -1){ if(++a == len){ a = 0; b++; } } if( a == len){ size++; return; } if( a < (len-1)){ arr[a][b] = 1; arr[a][(b+1)] = 1; foo(a, b); arr[a][b] = -1; arr[a][(b+1)] = -1; } if( a < (len-1) && arr[(a+1)][b] == -1){ arr[a][b] = 0; arr[(a+1)][b] = 0; foo(a,b); arr[a][b] = -1; arr[(a+1)][b] = -1; } }

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  • Why do I get errors when using unsigned integers in an expression with C++?

    - by neuviemeporte
    Given the following piece of (pseudo-C++) code: float x=100, a=0.1; unsigned int height = 63, width = 63; unsigned int hw=31; for (int row=0; row < height; ++row) { for (int col=0; col < width; ++col) { float foo = x + col - hw + a * (col - hw); cout << foo << " "; } cout << endl; } The values of foo are screwed up for half of the array, in places where (col - hw) is negative. I figured because col is int and comes first, that this part of the expression is converted to int and becomes negative. Unfortunately, apparently it doesn't, I get an overflow of an unsigned value and I've no idea why. How should I resolve this problem? Use casts for the whole or part of the expression? What type of casts (C-style or static_cast<...)? Is there any overhead to using casts (I need this to work fast!)? EDIT: I changed all my unsigned ints to regular ones, but I'm still wondering why I got that overflow in this situation.

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  • What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

    - by AutomatedTester
    I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

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  • Method having an abstract class as a parameter

    - by Ferhat
    I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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  • How to unit test generic classes

    - by Rowland Shaw
    I'm trying to set up some unit tests for an existing compact framework class library. However, I've fallen at the first hurdle, where it appears that the test framework is unable to load the types involved (even though they're both in the class library being tested) Test method MyLibrary.Tests.MyGenericClassTest.MyMethodTest threw exception: System.MissingMethodException: Could not load type 'MyLibrary.MyType' from assembly 'MyLibrary, Version=1.0.3778.36113, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.. My code is loosely: public class MyGenericClass<T> : List<T> where T : MyType, new() { public bool MyMethod(T foo) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } With test methods: public void MyMethodTestHelper<T>() where T : MyType, new() { MyGenericClass<T> target = new MyGenericClass<T>(); foo = new T(); expected = true; actual = target.MyMethod(foo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void MyMethodTest() { MyMethodTestHelper<MyType>(); } I'm a bit stumped though, as I can't even get it to break in the debugger to get to the inner exception, so what else do I check? EDIT this does seem to be something specific to the Compact Framework - recompiling the class libraries and the unit tests for the full framework, gives the expected output (i.e. the debugger stops when I'm going to throw a NotImplementedException).

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  • Cannot overload function

    - by anio
    So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

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  • Multiple leaf methods problem in composite pattern

    - by Ondrej Slinták
    At work, we are developing an PHP application that would be later re-programmed into Java. With some basic knowledge of Java, we are trying to design everything to be easily re-written, without any headaches. Interesting problem came out when we tried to implement composite pattern with huge number of methods in leafs. What are we trying to achieve (not using interfaces, it's just an example): class Composite { ... } class LeafOne { public function Foo( ); public function Moo( ); } class LeafTwo { public function Bar( ); public function Baz( ); } $c = new Composite( Array( new LeafOne( ), new LeafTwo( ) ) ); // will call method Foo in all classes in composite that contain this method $c->Foo( ); It seems like pretty much classic Composite pattern, but problem is that we will have quite many leaf classes and each of them might have ~5 methods (of which few might be different than others). One of our solutions, which seems to be the best one so far and might actually work, is using __call magic method to call methods in leafs. Unfortunately, we don't know if there is an equivalent of it in Java. So the actual question is: Is there a better solution for this, using code that would be eventually easily re-coded into Java? Or do you recommend any other solution? Perhaps there's some different, better pattern I could use here. In case there's something unclear, just ask and I'll edit this post.

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  • Howto: Access a second related model in a nested attribute builder block

    - by Joe Cairns
    I have a basic has_many through relationship: class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bars, :dependent => :destroy has_many :wtfs :through => :bars accepts_nested_attributes_for :bars, :wtfs end On my crud forms I have a builder block for the wtf, but I need the label to come from the bar (an attribute called label for instance). What's the proper method to do this? Here's the most simple scaffold: <h1>New foo</h1> <% form_for(@foo) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :name %><br /> <%= f.text_field :name %> </p> <h2>Bars</h2> <% f.fields_for :wtfs do |builder| %> <%= builder.hidden_field :bar_id %> <p> <%= builder.text_field :wtf_data_i_need_to_set %> </p> <% end %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> <%= link_to 'Back', foos_path %>

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  • regexp target last main li in list

    - by veilig
    I need to target the starting tag of the last top level LI in a list that may or may-not contain sublists in various positions - without using CSS or Javascript. Is there a simple/elegant regexp that can help with this? I'm no guru w/ them, but it appears the need for greedy/non-greedy selectors when I'm selecting all the middle text (.*) / (.+) changes as nested lists are added and moved around in the list - and this is throwing me off. $pattern = '/^(<ul>.*)<li>(.+<\/li><\/ul>)$/'; $replacement = '$1<li id="lastLi">$3'; Perhaps there is an easier approach?? converting to XML to target the LI and then convert back? ie: Single Element <ul> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Multiple Elements <ul> <li>foo</li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested Lists before end <ul> <li> foo <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> <li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested List at end <ul> <li>foo</li> <li> TARGET <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> </li> </ul>

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  • Is private method in spring service implement class thread safe

    - by Roger Ray
    I got a service in an project using Spring framework. public class MyServiceImpl implements IMyService { public MyObject foo(SomeObject obj) { MyObject myobj = this.mapToMyObject(obj); myobj.setLastUpdatedDate(new Date()); return myobj; } private MyObject mapToMyObject(SomeObject obj){ MyObject myojb = new MyObject(); ConvertUtils.register(new MyNullConvertor(), String.class); ConvertUtils.register(new StringConvertorForDateType(), Date.class); BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class); return myojb; } } Then I got a class to call foo() in multi-thread; There goes the problem. In some of the threads, I got error when calling BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); saying Cannot invoke com.my.MyObject.setStartDate - java.lang.ClassCastException@2da93171 obviously, this is caused by ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class) which is supposed to be called after BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. It looks like one of the threads deregistered the Date class out while another thread was just about to call BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. So My question is how do I make the private method mapToMyObject() thread safe? Or simply make the BeanUtils thread safe when it's used in a private method. And will the problem still be there if I keep the code this way but instead I call this foo() method in sevlet? If many sevlets call at the same time, would this be a multi-thread case as well?

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