Search Results

Search found 3459 results on 139 pages for 'if modified since'.

Page 102/139 | < Previous Page | 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109  | Next Page >

  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

    Read the article

  • MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

    - by Andy Evans
    I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

    - by Meltemi
    I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

    Read the article

  • What is happening in this T-SQL code? (Concatenting the results of a SELECT statement)

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

    Read the article

  • ObjectDisposedException when .Show()'ing a form that shouldn't be disposed.

    - by user320781
    ive checked out some of the other questions and obviously the best solution is to prevent the behavior that causes this issue in the first place, but the problem is very intermittent, and very un-reproduceable. I basically have a main form, with sub forms. The sub forms are shown from menus and/or buttons from the main form like so: private void myToolStripMenuItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { xDataForm.Show(); xDataForm.Activate(); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR 10103"); ErrorLogging newLogger = new ErrorLogging("10103"); Thread errorThread = new Thread(ErrorLogging.writeErrorToLog); errorThread.Start(); } } and the sub forms are actually in the main form(for better or worse. i would actually like to change this but would be a considerable amount of time to do so): public partial class FormMainScreen : Form { Form xDataForm = new xData(); ...(lots more here) public FormMainScreen(int pCount, string pName) { InitializeComponent(); ... } ... } The Dispose function for the sub form is modified so that, the 'close' and 'X' buttons actually hide the form so we dont have to re-create it every time. When the main screen closes, it sets a "flag" to 2, so the other forms know that it is actually ok to close; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (FormMainScreen.isExiting == 2) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } else { if (xData.ActiveForm != null) { xData.ActiveForm.Hide(); } } } So, the question is, why would this work over and over and over again flawlessly, but, literally, about every 1/1000 of the time, cause an exception, or rather, why is my form being disposed? I had a suspicion that the garbage collector was getting confused, because it occurs slightly more frequently after it has been running for many hours.

    Read the article

  • Using PLINQ to calculate and update values within the enclosure does not work

    - by Keith
    I recently needed to do a running total on a report. Where for each group, I order the rows and then calculate the running total based on the previous rows within the group. Aha! I thought, a perfect use case for PLINQ! However, when I wrote up the code, I got some strange behavior. The values I was modifying showed as being modified when stepping through the debugger, but when they were accessed they were always zero. Sample Code: class Item { public int PortfolioID; public int TAAccountID; public DateTime TradeDate; public decimal Shares; public decimal RunningTotal; } List<Item> itemList = new List<Item> { new Item { PortfolioID = 1, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 1), Shares = 5.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 1, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 2), Shares = -2.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 2, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 1), Shares = 7.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 2, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 2), Shares = -3.335m, }, }; var found = (from i in itemList where i.TAAccountID == 1 select new Item { TAAccountID = i.TAAccountID, PortfolioID = i.PortfolioID, Shares = i.Shares, TradeDate = i.TradeDate, RunningTotal = 0 }); found.AsParallel().ForAll(x => { var prevItems = found.Where(i => i.PortfolioID == x.PortfolioID && i.TAAccountID == x.TAAccountID && i.TradeDate <= x.TradeDate); x.RunningTotal = prevItems.Sum(s => s.Shares); }); foreach (Item i in found) { Console.WriteLine("Running total: {0}", i.RunningTotal); } Console.ReadLine(); If I change the select for found to be .ToArray(), then it works fine and I get calculated reuslts. Any ideas what I am doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

    Read the article

  • Mysql select - improve performance

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

    Read the article

  • How to create instances of related models in Django

    - by sevennineteen
    I'm working on a CMSy app for which I've implemented a set of models which allow for creation of custom Template instances, made up of a number of Fields and tied to a specific Customer. The end-goal is that one or more templates with a set of custom fields can be defined through the Admin interface and associated to a customer, so that customer can then create content objects in the format prescribed by the template. I seem to have gotten this hooked up such that I can create any number of Template objects, but I'm struggling with how to create instances - actual content objects - in those templates. For example, I can define a template "Basic Page" for customer "Acme" which has the fields "Title" and "Body", but I haven't figured out how to create Basic Page instances where these fields can be filled in. Here are my (somewhat elided) models... class Customer(models.Model): ... class Field(models.Model): ... class Template(models.Model): label = models.CharField(max_length=255) clients = models.ManyToManyField(Customer, blank=True) fields = models.ManyToManyField(Field, blank=True) class ContentObject(models.Model): label = models.CharField(max_length=255) template = models.ForeignKey(Template) author = models.ForeignKey(User) customer = models.ForeignKey(Customer) mod_date = models.DateTimeField('Modified Date', editable=False) def __unicode__(self): return '%s (%s)' % (self.label, self.template) def save(self): self.mod_date = datetime.datetime.now() super(ContentObject, self).save() Thanks in advance for any advice!

    Read the article

  • Java Concurrency in practice sample question

    - by andy boot
    I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. According to the book this piece of code is at risk of of failure if it has not been published properly. Because I like to code examples and break them to prove how they work. I have tried to make it throw an AssertionError but have failed. (Leading me to my previous question) Can anyone post sample code so that an AssertionError is thrown? Rule: Do not modify the Holder class. public class Holder{ private int n; public Holder(int n){ this.n = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } I have modified the class to make it more fragile but I still can not get an AssertionError thrown. class Holder2{ private int n; private int n2; public Holder2(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(200); this.n2 = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n2) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } Is it possible to make either of the above classes throw an AssertionError? Or do we have to accept that they may occasionally do so and we can't write code to prove it?

    Read the article

  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

    Read the article

  • What scenarios are possible where the VS C# compiler would not compile a reference of a reference?

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm probably asking this question wrong (and that may be why Google isn't helping), but here goes: In Visual Studio I am compiling a C# project (let's call it Project A, the startup project) which has a reference to Project B. Project B has a reference to a Project C, so when A gets built, the dlls for B gets placed in the bin directory of A, as does the dll for C (because B requires C, and A requires B). However, I have apparently made some change recently so that the dll for Project C does not go into the bin directory of Project A when rebuilding the solution. I have no idea what I've done to make this happen. I have not modified the setup of the solution itself, and I have only added additional references to the project files. Code wise, I have commented out most of the actual code in Project B that references classes in Project C, but did not remove the reference from the project itself (I don't think this matters). I was told that perhaps the C# compiler was optimizing somehow so that it was not building Project C, but really I'm out of ideas. I would think someone has run into something similar before Any thoughts? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Events and references pattern

    - by serhio
    In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

    Read the article

  • TFS How does merging work?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

    Read the article

  • C# Tupel group limitation

    - by user609511
    How can i controll the loop of Tupel Repeatation ? Someone has give me a hint about my algorithm. I modified a little bit his algorithm. int LimCol = Convert.ToInt32(LimitColis); result = oListTUP .GroupBy(x => x.Item1) .Select(g => new { Key = g.Key, Sum = g.Sum(x => x.Item2), Poids = g.Sum(x => x.Item3), }) .Select(p => new { Key = p.Key, Items = Enumerable.Repeat(LimCol , p.Sum / LimCol).Concat(Enumerable.Repeat(p.Sum % LimCol, 1)), CalculPoids = p.Poids / (Enumerable.Repeat(LimCol, p.Sum / LimCol).Concat(Enumerable.Repeat(p.Sum % LimCol, 1))).Count() }) .SelectMany(p => p.Items.Select(i => Tuple.Create(p.Key, i, p.CalculPoids))) .ToList(); foreach (var oItem in result) { Label1.Text += oItem.Item1 + "--" + oItem.Item2 + "--" + oItem.Item3 + "<br>"; } the result with LimCol = 3 as you can see i colored with red is the problem. i expected: 0452632--3--3,75 0452632--3--3,75 0452632--3--3,75 0452632--3--3,75 essai 49--3--79,00 essai 49--2--79,00 Thanks you in advance

    Read the article

  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

    Read the article

  • Calculating rotation in > 360 deg. situations

    - by danglebrush
    I'm trying to work out a problem I'm having with degrees. I have data that is a list of of angles, in standard degree notation -- e.g. 26 deg. Usually when dealing with angles, if an angle exceeds 360 deg then the angle continues around and effectively "resets" -- i.e. the angle "starts again", e.g. 357 deg, 358 deg, 359 deg, 0 deg, 1 deg, etc. What I want to happen is the degree to continue increasing -- i.e. 357 deg, 358 deg, 359 deg, 360 deg, 361 deg, etc. I want to modify my data so that I have this converted data in it. When numbers approach the 0 deg limit, I want them to become negative -- i.e. 3 deg, 2 deg, 1 deg, 0 deg, -1 deg, -2 deg, etc. With multiples of 360 deg (both positive and negative), I want the degrees to continue, e.g. 720 deg, etc. Any suggestions on what approach to take? There is, no doubt, a frustratingly simple way of doing this, but my current solution is kludgey to say the least .... ! My best attempt to date is to look at the percentage difference between angle n and angle n - 1. If this is a large difference -- e.g. 60% -- then this needs to be modified, by adding or subtracting 360 deg to the current value, depending on the previous angle value. That is, if the previous angle is negative, substract 360, and add 360 if the previous angle is positive. Any suggestions on improving this? Any improvements?

    Read the article

  • Drupal-- How to place an image in Panels 3 panels and mini-panels, w/o views or nodes?

    - by msumme
    Is it possible, through any modular functionality, to insert an image into a (mini-)panel, either through token replacement, or through an upload dialog, or through a file selection menu? Do I have to use views? Do I have to create nodes? Would the best way be to make a panel node, and then embed it in a mini-node, if I want a block-like panel that can be placed on multiple pages? I want to build a site with images in a particular layout as a small block, and make it very easy for my client to change those images in the future. I can think of some other ways to make this work, but it's driving me crazy that there seems to be no way to simply PUT an image in a mini-panel without having to upload it and hard-code an image tag. And since my client knows no HTML, coding it this way makes it un-helpful for him. And this mini-panel block is going to be used on a number of pages, and needs to be easily modified. I have been googling for about 45 minutes, and come up with nothing useful. EDIT: OR EVEN just put ONLY one image from an image field w/ multiple values in a panel region on a panel node?

    Read the article

  • OO - inheritance vs. decoration problem

    - by Karel J
    Hi all, I have an OOP-related question. I have an interface, say: class MyInterface { public int getValue(); } In my project, this interface is implemented by 7 implementations: class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { ... } ... class MyImplementation7 implements MyInterface { ... } These implementations are used by several different modules. For some modules, the behaviour of the MyInterface must be adjusted slightly. Let's that it must return the value of the implementator + 1 (for the sake of example). I solved this by creating a little decorator: class MyDifferentInterface implements MyInterface { private MyInterface i; public MyDifferentInterface(MyInterface i) { this.i = i; } public int getValue() { return i.getValue() + 1; } } This does the job. Here is my problem: one of the modules doesn't accept an MyInterface parameter, but MyImplementation4 directly. The reason for this is that this module needs specific behaviour of MyImplementation4, which are not covered by the interface MyInterface on itself. But, and here comes the difficulty, this module must also work on the modified version of MyImplementation4. That is, getValue() must return +1; What is the best way to solve this? I fail to come up with a solution which does not include lots of code duplicates. Please note that although the example above is pretty small and simple, the interface and the decorator is quite large and complicated. Thanks a lot all.

    Read the article

  • Java EE Website Planning Questions

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I'm a .NET programming who is soon moving to the Java EE world. I have plenty of experience with .NET web technologies, web services, WebForms and MVC. I am also very familiar with the Java language, and have written a few servlets and modified a couple of JSP pages, but I haven't touched EE yet. I'd like to set up a public website using Java EE so I can familiarize myself with whats current. I'm thinking just a technology playground at this point with no particular purpose in mind. What Java technologies are the current hotness for this sort of thing? (For example, if someone asked me what I'd recommend learning to set up a new .NET site, I'd say use ASP MVC instead of WebForms and recommend LINQ-to-SQL as a quick, simple and widely used ORM.) So, what I'd like to know is: Is there a recommended technology for the presentation layer? Is JSP considered a good approach, or is there anything cleaner/newer/more widespread? Is Hibernate still widely used for persistence? Is it obsolete? Is there anything better out there? (I've worked with NHibernate some, so I wouldn't be starting from scratch.) Is cheap Java EE web hosting available? What should I know being a .NET web developer moving to the Java world?

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

    - by Eric
    I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • How to post to a request using node.js

    - by Mr JSON
    I am trying to post some json to a URL. I saw various other questions about this on stackoverflow but none of them seemed to be clear or work. This is how far I got, I modified the example on the api docs: var http = require('http'); var google = http.createClient(80, 'server'); var request = google.request('POST', '/get_stuff', {'host': 'sever', 'content-type': 'application/json'}); request.write(JSON.stringify(some_json),encoding='utf8'); //possibly need to escape as well? request.end(); request.on('response', function (response) { console.log('STATUS: ' + response.statusCode); console.log('HEADERS: ' + JSON.stringify(response.headers)); response.setEncoding('utf8'); response.on('data', function (chunk) { console.log('BODY: ' + chunk); }); }); When I post this to the server I get an error telling me that it's not of the json format or that it's not utf8, which they should be. I tried to pull the request url but it is null. I am just starting with nodejs so please be nice.

    Read the article

  • How to transform a production to LL(1) for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

    Read the article

  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109  | Next Page >