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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • (mySQL) Unable to query 2 tables properly for data

    - by Devner
    I have 2 tables. One is 'page_links' and the other is 'rpp'. Table page_links is the superset of table rpp. The following is the schema of my tables: -- Table structure for table `page_links` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `page_links` ( `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `page_link` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `heading_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `page_links` -- INSERT INTO `page_links` (`page`, `page_link`, `heading_id`) VALUES ('a1.php', 'A1', 8), ('b1.php', 'B1', 8), ('c1.php', 'C1', 5), ('d1.php', 'D1', 5), ('e1.php', 'E1', 8), ('f1.php', 'F1', 8), ('g1.php', 'G1', 8), ('h1.php', 'H1', 1), ('i1.php', 'I1', 1), ('j1.php', 'J1', 8), ('k1.php', 'K1', 8), ('l1.php', 'L1', 8), ('m1.php', 'M1', 8), ('n1.php', 'N1', 8), ('o1.php', 'O1', 8), ('p1.php', 'P1', 4), ('q1.php', 'Q1', 5), ('r1.php', 'R1', 4); -- Table structure for table `rpp` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `rpp` ( `role_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `is_allowed` tinyint(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`role_id`,`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `rpp` -- INSERT INTO `rpp` (`role_id`, `page`, `is_allowed`) VALUES (3, 'a1.php', 1), (3, 'b1.php', 1), (3, 'c1.php', 1), (3, 'd1.php', 1), (3, 'e1.php', 1), (3, 'f1.php', 1), (3, 'h1.php', 1), (3, 'i1.php', 1), (3, 'l1.php', 1), (3, 'm1.php', 1), (3, 'n1.php', 1), (4, 'a1.php', 1), (4, 'b1.php', 1), (4, 'q1.php', 1), (5, 'r1.php', 1); WHAT I AM TRYING TO DO: I am trying to query both the above tables (in a single query) in such a way that all the pages from page_links are displayed along with the is_allowed value from rpp for a particular role. For example, I want to get the is_allowed value of all the pages from rpp for role_id = 3 and at the same time, list all the available pages from page_links. A clear example of my expected result would be: page is_allowed role_id ---------------------------------------- a1.php 1 3 b1.php 1 3 c1.php 1 3 d1.php 1 3 e1.php 1 3 f1.php 1 3 g1.php NULL NULL h1.php 1 3 i1.php 1 3 j1.php NULL NULL k1.php NULL NULL l1.php 1 3 m1.php 1 3 n1.php 1 3 o1.php NULL NULL p1.php NULL NULL q1.php NULL NULL r1.php NULL NULL One more example of my desired result could be achieved by doing a LEFT JOIN rpp ON page_links.page = rpp.page but we need to omit using role_id = 3 (or any value) to be able to get that. But I do want to specify the role_id as well and get the results. I need the query to be able to get this result. I would appreciate any replies that could help me with this. If you can suggest me any changes as well to the table(s) design to be able to achieve the desired result, that's good as well. Thanks in advance.

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  • extra white line under li items that have no border

    - by isabel018
    I have a problem with extra white lines showing up under my list items. It's not a border as I haven't set any borders, except the one under My Account, it's just to show that the white line is not a border. The one under it is -- a 4px border the same color as the background. This problem occurred after I had resolved a conflict between my Nivo Slider and the Woocommerce plugin on my WP site. I got both of them to work together, but then this other issue with the list cropped up. Any ideas as to what caused this and how to fix it? Here's my CSS if that helps: #header #navigation ul.nav > li.current_page_item > a { color: #D4145A;} #header #navigation ul.nav > li:hover a { border-width: 0px 0px 4px; border-style: none none solid; border-color: -moz-use-text-color -moz-use-text-color rgb(212, 20, 90); -moz-border-top-colors: none; -moz-border-right-colors: none; -moz-border-bottom-colors: none; -moz-border-left-colors: none; border-image: none; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% rgb(212, 20, 90);} and the HTML for it too: <nav id="navigation" class="col-full parent" role="navigation"> <ul id="main-nav" class="nav fl parent"> <li class="page_item"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-11"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-12"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-13 parent"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-15 current_page_item parent"> <a href=""></a> <ul class="children"></ul></li> </ul> </nav> Help please! I'm at my wits' end! Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Linking two models in a multi-model form

    - by Elliot
    Hey Guys, I have a nested multimodel form right now, using Users and Profiles. Users has_one profile, and Profile belongs_to Users. When the form is submitted, a new user is created, and a new profile is created, but they are not linked (this is the first obvious issue). The user's model has a profile_id row, and the profile's model has a user_id row. Here is the code for the form: <%= form_for(@user, :url => teams_path) do |f| %> <p><%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %></p> <p><%= f.label :password %><br /> <%= f.password_field :password %></p> <p><%= f.label :password_confirmation %><br /> <%= f.password_field :password_confirmation %></p> <%= f.hidden_field :role_id, :value => @role.id %></p> <%= f.hidden_field :company_id, :value => current_user.company_id %></p> <%= fields_for @user.profile do |profile_fields| %> <div class="field"> <%= profile_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= profile_fields.text_field :first_name %> </div> <div class="field"> <%= profile_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= profile_fields.text_field :last_name %> </div> <% end %> <p><%= f.submit "Sign up" %></p> <% end %> A second issue, is even though the username, and password are successfully created through the form for the user model, the hidden fields (role_id & company_id - which are also links to other models) are not created (even though they are part of the model) - the values are successfully shown in the HTML for those fields however. Any help would be great!

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • Align text box with menu control using boostrap

    - by JamesMitLondon
    Hi I am using bootstrap styles for my asp.net web application and I have a menu control at the top. I want to insert a search text box at the top right on the same line as the menu bar. Following is my code. Can anyone please suggest how to do this? Thanks. <div id="container"> <form runat="server" class="navbar-form navbar-left" role="search"> <div class = "navbar"> <div class="navbar-inner"> <div class="container"> <!-- .btn-navbar is used as the toggle for collapsed navbar content --> <a class="btn btn-navbar" data-target=".nav-collapse" data-toggle="collapse"> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> </a> <div class="nav-collapse collapse"> <asp:Menu ID="NavigationMenu" runat="server" EnableViewState="false" IncludeStyleBlock="false" Orientation="Horizontal" CssClass="navbar" StaticMenuStyle-CssClass="nav" StaticSelectedStyle-CssClass="active" DynamicMenuStyle-CssClass="dropdown-menu"> <Items> <asp:MenuItem Text="Home" ToolTip="Home"></asp:MenuItem> <asp:MenuItem Text="Music" ToolTip="Music"> <asp:MenuItem Text="Classical" ToolTip="Classical" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Rock" ToolTip="Rock" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Jazz" ToolTip="Jazz" /> </asp:MenuItem> <asp:MenuItem Text="Movies" ToolTip="Movies"> <asp:MenuItem Text="Action" ToolTip="Action" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Drama" ToolTip="Drama" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Musical" ToolTip="Musical" /> </asp:MenuItem> </Items> </asp:Menu> <div class="form-group"> <input type="text" class="form-control" placeholder="Search"/> <button type="submit" class="btn btn-default">Submit</button> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </form> </div> `

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • How to make item view render rich (html) text in PyQt?

    - by Giorgio Gelardi
    I'm trying to translate code from this thread in python: import sys from PyQt4.QtCore import * from PyQt4.QtGui import * __data__ = [ "Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua.", "Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat.", "Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur.", "Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum." ] def get_html_box(text): return '''<table border="0" width="100%"><tr width="100%" valign="top"> <td width="1%"><img src="softwarecenter.png"/></td> <td><table border="0" width="100%" height="100%"> <tr><td><b><a href="http://www.google.com">titolo</a></b></td></tr> <tr><td>{0}</td></tr><tr><td align="right">88/88/8888, 88:88</td></tr> </table></td></tr></table>'''.format(text) class HTMLDelegate(QStyledItemDelegate): def paint(self, painter, option, index): model = index.model() record = model.listdata[index.row()] doc = QTextDocument(self) doc.setHtml(get_html_box(record)) doc.setTextWidth(option.rect.width()) painter.save() ctx = QAbstractTextDocumentLayout.PaintContext() ctx.clip = QRectF(0, option.rect.top(), option.rect.width(), option.rect.height()) dl = doc.documentLayout() dl.draw(painter, ctx) painter.restore() def sizeHint(self, option, index): model = index.model() record = model.listdata[index.row()] doc = QTextDocument(self) doc.setHtml(get_html_box(record)) doc.setTextWidth(option.rect.width()) return QSize(doc.idealWidth(), doc.size().height()) class MyListModel(QAbstractListModel): def __init__(self, parent=None, *args): super(MyListModel, self).__init__(parent, *args) self.listdata = __data__ def rowCount(self, parent=QModelIndex()): return len(self.listdata) def data(self, index, role=Qt.DisplayRole): return index.isValid() and QVariant(self.listdata[index.row()]) or QVariant() class MyWindow(QWidget): def __init__(self, *args): super(MyWindow, self).__init__(*args) # listview self.lv = QListView() self.lv.setModel(MyListModel(self)) self.lv.setItemDelegate(HTMLDelegate(self)) self.lv.setResizeMode(QListView.Adjust) # layout layout = QVBoxLayout() layout.addWidget(self.lv) self.setLayout(layout) if __name__ == "__main__": app = QApplication(sys.argv) w = MyWindow() w.show() sys.exit(app.exec_()) Element's size and position are not calculated correctly I guess, perhaps because I haven't understand at all the style related parts from original code. Can someone help me?

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  • problem with JsonStore and JsonReader

    - by kalan
    Hello, In my ExtJS application I use EditorGridPanel to show data from server. var applicationsGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ region: 'west', layout: 'fit', title: '<img src="../../Content/img/app.png" /> ??????????', collapsible: true, margins: '0 0 5 5', split: true, width: '30%', listeners: { 'viewready': { fn: function() { applicationsGridStatusBar.setText('??????????: ' + applicationsStore.getTotalCount()); } } }, store: applicationsStore, loadMask: { msg: '????????...' }, sm: new Ext.grid.RowSelectionModel({ singleSelect: true, listeners: { 'rowselect': { fn: applicationsGrid_onRowSelect} } }), viewConfig: { forceFit: true }, tbar: [{ icon: '../../Content/img/add.gif', text: '????????' }, '-', { icon: '../../Content/img/delete.gif', text: '???????' }, '-'], bbar: applicationsGridStatusBar, columns: [{ header: '??????????', dataIndex: 'ApplicationName', tooltip: '???????????? ??????????', sortable: true, editor: { xtype: 'textfield', allowBlank: false } }, { header: '<img src="../../Content/img/user.png" />', dataIndex: 'UsersCount', align: 'center', fixed: true, width: 50, tooltip: '?????????? ????????????? ??????????', sortable: true }, { header: '<img src="../../Content/img/role.gif" />', dataIndex: 'RolesCount', align: 'center', fixed: true, width: 50, tooltip: '?????????? ????? ??????????', sortable: true}] }); When I use JsonStore without reader it works, but when I try to update any field it uses my 'create' url instead of 'update'. var applicationsStore = new Ext.data.JsonStore({ root: 'applications', totalProperty: 'total', idProperty: 'ApplicationId', messageProperty: 'message', fields: [{ name: 'ApplicationId' }, { name: 'ApplicationName', allowBlank: false }, { name: 'UsersCount', allowBlank: false }, { name: 'RolesCount', allowBlank: false}], id: 'app1234', proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ api: { create: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist1', read: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist', update: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist2', destroy: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist3' } }), autoSave: true, autoLoad: true, writer: new Ext.data.JsonWriter({ encode: false, listful: false, writeAllFields: false }) }); I believe that the problem is that I don't use reader, but when I use JsonReader grid stops showing any data at all. var applicationReader = new Ext.data.JsonReader({ root: 'applications', totalProperty: 'total', idProperty: 'ApplicationId', messageProperty: 'message', fields: [{ name: 'ApplicationId' }, { name: 'ApplicationName', allowBlank: false }, { name: 'UsersCount', allowBlank: false }, { name: 'RolesCount', allowBlank: false}] }); var applicationsStore = new Ext.data.JsonStore({ id: 'app1234', proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ api: { create: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist1', read: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist', update: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist2', destroy: '/api/applications/getapplicationslist3' } }), reader: applicationReader, autoSave: true, autoLoad: true, writer: new Ext.data.JsonWriter({ encode: false, listful: false, writeAllFields: false }) }); So, does anyone know what the problem might be and how to solve it. The data returned from my server is Json-formated and seams to be ok {"message":"test","total":2,"applications":[{"ApplicationId":"f82dc920-17e7-45b5-98ab-03416fdf52b2","ApplicationName":"Archivist","UsersCount":6,"RolesCount":3},{"ApplicationId":"054e2e78-e15f-4609-a9b2-81c04aa570c8","ApplicationName":"Test","UsersCount":1,"RolesCount":0}]}

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  • Multiple column subselect in mysql 5 (5.1.42)

    - by rubber boots
    This one seems to be a simple problem, but I can't make it work in a single select or nested select. Retrieve the authors and (if any) advisers of a paper (article) into one row. I order to explain the problem, here are the two data tables (pseudo) papers (id, title, c_year) persons (id, firstname, lastname) plus a link table w/one extra attribute (pseudo): paper_person_roles( paper_id person_id act_role ENUM ('AUTHOR', 'ADVISER') ) This is basically a list of written papers (table: papers) and a list of staff and/or students (table: persons) An article my have (1,N) authors. An article may have (0,N) advisers. A person can be in 'AUTHOR' or 'ADVISER' role (but not at the same time). The application eventually puts out table rows containing the following entries: TH: || Paper_ID | Author(s) | Title | Adviser(s) | TD: || 21334 |John Doe, Jeff Tucker|Why the moon looks yellow|Brown, Rayleigh| ... My first approach was like: select/extract a full list of articles into the application, eg.SELECT q.id, q.title FROM papers AS q ORDER BY q.c_year and save the results of the query into an array (in the application). After this step, loop over the array of the returned information and retrieve authors and advisers (if any), via prepared statement (? is the paper's id) from the link table like:APPLICATION_LOOP(paper_ids in array) SELECT p.lastname, p.firstname, r.act_role FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE p.id=r.person_id AND r.paper_id = ? # The application does further processing from here (pseudo): foreach record from resulting records if record.act_role eq 'AUTHOR' then join to author_column if record.act_role eq 'ADVISER' then join to avdiser_column end print id, author_column, title, adviser_column APPLICATION_LOOP This works so far and gives the desired output. Would it make sense to put the computation back into the DB? I'm not very proficient in nontrivial SQL and can't find a solution with a single (combined or nested) select call. I tried sth. like SELECT q.title (CONCAT_WS(' ', (SELECT p.firstname, p.lastname AS aunames FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE q.id=r.paper_id AND r.act_role='AUTHOR') ) ) AS aulist FROM papers AS q, persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r in several variations, but no luck ... Maybe there is some chance? Thanks in advance r.b.

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  • Retrieving the Selected value dynamically in JQuery

    - by Chakradhar
    i have this html, this is generated dynamically based on question number <fieldset id="selectfield"> <label class="select">What ur is Profession? </label> <br> <div class="ui-select"><a href="#" role="button" id="72+_select-button" aria-haspopup="true" aria-owns="72+_select-menu" data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-icon-right ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-hover-c ui-btn-up-c"><span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all" aria-hidden="true"><span class="ui-btn-text">Business</span><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-arrow-d ui-icon-shadow"></span></span></a> <select name="selectedObjects" id="72+_select" data-native-menu="false" tabindex="-1"> <option value="-1">--Select--</option> <option value="769">Salaried</option> <option selected="selected" value="770">Business</option> <option value="771">Self Emp</option> </select></div> </fieldset> click button is <div data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-hover-c ui-btn-up-c" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all" aria-hidden="true"><span class="ui-btn-text">Next</span></span> <input type="submit" id="72+_b" onclick="return SaveDropDown(this);" value="Next" class="ui-btn-hidden" aria-disabled="false"> </div> i have written this JS in SaveDropDown(this) function SaveDropDown(button) { var fieldsetName = getQuestionName(button.id)+'+_select'; var select = $(fieldsetName +"option:selected").val(); return false; } the questionname function is function getQuestionName(buttonid) { var splitstr = buttonid.split('+'); var fieldsetName = '#' + splitstr[0]; return fieldsetName; } but its returning the undefined how do i retrieve the select value dynamically. any help is appreciated.

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  • driver.findElement() with iframe and elements without ID

    - by user1864657
    Java Code: driver.switchTo().frame(0); WebElement elemText = driver.findElement(By.xpath("/html/body[contains(@class='forum')]")); //WebElement elemText = driver.findElement(By.xpath("//td[@id='cke_contents_vB_Editor_001_editor']/textarea")); elemText.sendKeys(message); elemText.submit(); forumLink = driver.getCurrentUrl(); HTML Code: <td id="cke_contents_vB_Editor_001_editor" class="cke_contents" style="height:1726px" role="presentation"> <iframe style="width:100%;height:100%" frameborder="0" title="Rich text editor, vB_Editor_001_editor, press ALT 0 for help." src="" tabindex="-1" allowtransparency="true"> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html dir="ltr" lang="en" contenteditable="true"> <head> <title data-cke-title="Rich text editor, vB_Editor_001_editor, press ALT 0 for help.">Rich text editor, vB_Editor_001_editor, press ALT 0 for help.</title> <base href="http://fairplay.garena.com/" data-cke-temp="1"> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="http://fairplay.garena.com/clientscript/vbulletin_css/style00008l/editor_contents.css"> <style type="text/css" data-cke-temp="1"> form{border: 1px dotted #FF0000;padding: 2px;} img.cke_hidden{background-image: url(http://fairplay.garena.com/clientscript/ckeditor/plugins/forms/images/hiddenfield.gif?t=B37D54V);background-position: center center;background-repeat: no-repeat;border: 1px solid #a9a9a9;width: 16px !important;height: 16px !important;} img.cke_iframe{background-image: url(http://fairplay.garena.com/clientscript/ckeditor/plugins/iframe/images/placeholder.png?t=B37D54V);background-position: center center;background-repeat: no-repeat;border: 1px solid #a9a9a9;width: 80px;height: 80px;} img.cke_anchor{background-image: url(http://fairplay.garena.com/clientscript/ckeplugins/vblink/images/anchor.gif?t=B37D54V);background-position: center center;background-repeat: no-repeat;border: 1px solid #a9a9a9;width: 18px !important;height: 18px !important;} a.cke_anchor{background-image: url(http://fairplay.garena.com/clientscript/ckeplugins/vblink/images/anchor.gif?t=B37D54V);background-position: left center;background-repeat: no-repeat;border: 1px solid #a9a9a9;padding-left: 18px;} </style> </head> <body class="forum" spellcheck="true"> </body> </html> </iframe> </td> Image: http://s9.postimage.org/nwyvq3san/Screen_Shot038.jpg I can't find a way to get elements inside a iframe and without id. Can you help me?

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  • Why does this vertical-align:middle fails in Jquery mobile

    - by SJ GJ
    Am trying to middle a set of icons to the middle of screen, below is the code: <div data-role="content" class="ui-content ui-body-a" style="vertical-align: middle" data-theme="a"> <fieldset class="ui-grid-a icon-set" style="vertical-align: middle" data-theme="b"> <div class="ui-block-a center" style="vertical-align: middle"> <a href="test"> <div> <img src="css/images/test5.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/> </div> <div> Login </div> </a> </div> <div class="ui-block-b center"> <a href="#settings" data-transition='slide'> <div> <img src="css/images/test4.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/></div> <div>Settings</div> </a> </div> <div class="ui-block-a center"> <a href="test"> <div> <img src="css/images/test2.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/></div> <div>Aboutus</div> </a> </div> <div class="ui-block-b center"> <a href="test"> <div> <img src="css/images/test1.png" style="width: 80px;height: 80px"/></div> <div>Contact Us</div> </a> </div> </fieldset> </div>

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  • A versioning workflow for multiple similar (but not identical) deployments

    - by rs77
    I'm currently employed at a small non-tech organisation and have been given the role of coding the organisations' website. While I have enjoyed the task and have learnt much with web dev I've encountered a few issues that I'm hoping someone will be able to help with me or at least point me in the right direction on. A little background: The site I work on has subdomains that each have their own separate WordPress installation on - as this has been the easiest "backend" admin panel for the type of user who will be responsible for updating content (etc). Within the organisation I work under the Marketing Manager (MM) and I code according to his style guide and wire frames. While we have been working with only one subdomain since the beginning of the year the project has been relatively simple and straightforward. However, lately the workflow is becoming a little more complicated as our original subdomain has been copied over to the other subdomains. Each of the new subdomains receives minor edits to their stylesheets (eg. different pictures for background, slightly different colours here and there, etc). The issue: At the moment managing all the different subdomains has been "bearable", but the straw that's braking the camel's back at the moment has been the slight reversions the MM has required now that the CEO has seen the final product. The problem I'm having with reversions in stylesheets is that the CEO will one week state that he likes change "X" and then as the MM and I continue to modify the site (to now "Z"), will another week state that he wants us to change "X" to "W" but keeping most of the changes made in "Y". What I'm looking for is something that allows for: tracking file changes reverting changes made (or reverting back to 'a' from 'e' but including changes 'b' & 'c') easily upload necessary files to their respective WP-theme installation Does anything out there come close to addressing these issues? If so, what? Thanks for any help! PS - I'm learning Git at the moment and it seems to do the "tracking file changes" quite nicely. Haven't learnt about the reverting changes bit yet, though. Maybe for my final point I'm thinking of creating a shell script to automatically upload the files to their folders. Does Git do this too though? Addendum (alexbbrown) I had a similar problem: I ran a custom version of mediawiki where I installed various extensions in the versioned core (with svn). Each of the extensions required an section in the confit file, but the confit file also needed local configuration for each of several deployments. I could have implemented it using includes, but they would not be versioned; and rebasing branches each time is a chore. +50 experience points for a good answer in git.

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  • How can I find a URL called [link] inside a block of HTML containing other URLs?

    - by DrTwox
    I'm writing a script to rewrite Reddit's RSS feeds. The script needs to find a URL named [link] inside a block of HTML that contains other URLs. The HTML is contained in an XML element called <description>. Here are two examples of the <description> element from I need to parse and the [link] I would need to get. First example: <description>submitted by &lt;a href=&#34;http://www.reddit.com/user/wildlyinaccurate&#34;&gt; wildlyinaccurate &lt;/a&gt; &lt;br/&gt; &lt;a href=&#34;http://wildlyinaccurate.com/a-hackers-guide-to-git&#34;&gt;[link]&lt;/a&gt; &lt;a href="http://www.reddit.com/r/programming/comments/26jvl7/a_hackers_guide_to_git/"&gt;[66 comments]&lt;/a&gt;</description> The [link] is: http://wildlyinaccurate.com/a-hackers-guide-to-git Second example: <description>&lt;!-- SC_OFF --&gt;&lt;div class=&#34;md&#34;&gt;&lt;p&gt;I work a support role at a company where I primarily fix issues our customers our experiencing with our software, which is a browser based application written primarily in javascript. I&amp;#39;ve been doing this for 2 years, but I want to take it to the next level (with the long term goal being that I become proficient enough to call myself a developer). I&amp;#39;ve been reading &amp;quot;Javascript The Definitive Guide&amp;quot; by O&amp;#39;Reilly but I was wondering if any of you more experienced users out there had some tips on taking it to the next level. Should I start incorporating some PHP and Jquery into my learning? Side projects on my spare time? Any good online resources? Etc. &lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;Thanks! &lt;/p&gt; &lt;/div&gt;&lt;!-- SC_ON --&gt; submitted by &lt;a href=&#34;http://www.reddit.com/user/56killa&#34;&gt; 56killa &lt;/a&gt; &lt;br/&gt; &lt;a href=&#34;http://www.reddit.com/r/javascript/comments/26nduc/i_want_to_become_more_experienced_with_javascript/&#34;&gt;[link]&lt;/a&gt; &lt;a href="http://www.reddit.com/r/javascript/comments/26nduc/i_want_to_become_more_experienced_with_javascript/"&gt;[4 comments]&lt;/a&gt;</description> The [link] is: http://www.reddit.com/r/javascript/comments/26nduc/i_want_to_become_more_experienced_with_javascript/

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  • My webpage ignores changes in CSS file

    - by Pavel
    No matter what I change in my .css file, the page remains the same - what's more, neither changing the link tag so that it points to another .css file nor deleting it completely makes no difference. Other changes in html code are applied. The sourcecode of the webpage shows everything as it should be. This behavior started when I redirected the link tag from previous file to the one I use now (plus there have been some changes in the tag while this problem occured, to test the behavior of my webpage); changes in neither file affect the page. For the first time when this happened, this was caused by copies of head tag in included chunks of code (for header, left menu etc. - their head part overrode the head part of the main page) and the problem was solved by removing these redundant heads from these files. But it happened again when I changed the link tag for the next time. I couldn't find any head parts in my included files, but the problem lasts (only solution I can see now is to delete the included files and copy the code directly to the file, but this would mean lots of redundant code). How can I solve this problem, so that my page response to changes in .css files without increasing redundancy? How to ensure that I can change the link to .css file just on one place with no such problems? Do I have to unload the CSS file somehow? I saw this problem both in Firefox and in Chrome. I use PSPad to write the code, just in case it would play role. EDIT: I have cleared browser cache now, and I changed the link to .css files from one to another before, but nothing helped. Now I accept the best answer saying the problem is in caching and I start a related question to find out how to solve the caching issue. If the other question's answers would say that in this case I can be sure that problem isn't in caching (very unlikely, but fail of ordinary methods of caching-problems-solving is unlikely too), I'd update this question and start searching for other possible problems, but now the message seems to be clear: when webpage ignores changes in .css files, caching is to blame.

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  • SQL Server 2008 R2 Enterprise won't install on Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise

    - by Carlos Paulino
    I've been trying to install SQL Server on a new Windows Server 2008. I have tried everything but I haven't been able to narrow down the problem. When the installation fails I get " Exit code (Decimal): -2068643839". The problem with this is that according to Microsoft this is a generic error code. I follow their guide to look into the detail.txt inside C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\100\Setup Bootstrap\Log\ But I can't find something that specifies the exact error. Any suggestions ? Thanks in advanced. I uploaded to detail.txt to http://www.megaupload.com/?d=0MV46SZH because it is to big to paste here. Below is the summary.txt ---------- Overall summary: Final result: SQL Server installation failed. To continue, investigate the reason for the failure, correct the problem, uninstall SQL Server, and then rerun SQL Server Setup. Exit code (Decimal): -2068643839 Exit facility code: 1203 Exit error code: 1 Exit message: SQL Server installation failed. To continue, investigate the reason for the failure, correct the problem, uninstall SQL Server, and then rerun SQL Server Setup. Start time: 2011-02-28 11:29:56 End time: 2011-02-28 11:34:45 Requested action: Install Machine Properties: Machine name: SA-SERVER Machine processor count: 8 OS version: Windows Server 2008 R2 OS service pack: Service Pack 1 OS region: United States OS language: English (United States) OS architecture: x64 Process architecture: 64 Bit OS clustered: No Product features discovered: Product Instance Instance ID Feature Language Edition Version Clustered Package properties: Description: SQL Server Database Services 2008 R2 ProductName: SQL Server 2008 R2 Type: RTM Version: 10 SPLevel: 0 Installation location: F:\x64\setup\ Installation edition: ENTERPRISE User Input Settings: ACTION: Install ADDCURRENTUSERASSQLADMIN: True AGTSVCACCOUNT: NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM AGTSVCPASSWORD: ***** AGTSVCSTARTUPTYPE: Manual ASBACKUPDIR: Backup ASCOLLATION: Latin1_General_CI_AS ASCONFIGDIR: Config ASDATADIR: Data ASDOMAINGROUP: <empty> ASLOGDIR: Log ASPROVIDERMSOLAP: 1 ASSVCACCOUNT: <empty> ASSVCPASSWORD: ***** ASSVCSTARTUPTYPE: Automatic ASSYSADMINACCOUNTS: <empty> ASTEMPDIR: Temp BROWSERSVCSTARTUPTYPE: Disabled CONFIGURATIONFILE: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\100\Setup Bootstrap\Log\20110228_112601\ConfigurationFile.ini CUSOURCE: ENABLERANU: False ENU: True ERRORREPORTING: False FARMACCOUNT: <empty> FARMADMINPORT: 0 FARMPASSWORD: ***** FEATURES: SQLENGINE,BIDS,CONN,IS,BC,SDK,SSMS,ADV_SSMS,SNAC_SDK,OCS FILESTREAMLEVEL: 0 FILESTREAMSHARENAME: <empty> FTSVCACCOUNT: <empty> FTSVCPASSWORD: ***** HELP: False IACCEPTSQLSERVERLICENSETERMS: False INDICATEPROGRESS: False INSTALLSHAREDDIR: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\ INSTALLSHAREDWOWDIR: C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SQL Server\ INSTALLSQLDATADIR: <empty> INSTANCEDIR: D:\SQLServer INSTANCEID: MSSQLSERVER INSTANCENAME: MSSQLSERVER ISSVCACCOUNT: NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM ISSVCPASSWORD: ***** ISSVCSTARTUPTYPE: Automatic NPENABLED: 0 PASSPHRASE: ***** PCUSOURCE: PID: ***** QUIET: False QUIETSIMPLE: False ROLE: AllFeatures_WithDefaults RSINSTALLMODE: FilesOnlyMode RSSVCACCOUNT: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE RSSVCPASSWORD: ***** RSSVCSTARTUPTYPE: Automatic SAPWD: ***** SECURITYMODE: SQL SQLBACKUPDIR: <empty> SQLCOLLATION: SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS SQLSVCACCOUNT: NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM SQLSVCPASSWORD: ***** SQLSVCSTARTUPTYPE: Automatic SQLSYSADMINACCOUNTS: SA-SERVER\Administrator SQLTEMPDBDIR: <empty> SQLTEMPDBLOGDIR: <empty> SQLUSERDBDIR: <empty> SQLUSERDBLOGDIR: <empty> SQMREPORTING: False TCPENABLED: 1 UIMODE: Normal X86: False Configuration file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\100\Setup Bootstrap\Log\20110228_112601\ConfigurationFile.ini Detailed results: Feature: Database Engine Services Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: SQL Client Connectivity SDK Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Integration Services Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Client Tools Connectivity Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Management Tools - Complete Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Management Tools - Basic Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Client Tools SDK Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Client Tools Backwards Compatibility Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Business Intelligence Development Studio Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Feature: Microsoft Sync Framework Status: Failed: see logs for details MSI status: Passed Configuration status: Passed Rules with failures: Global rules: Scenario specific rules: Rules report file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\100\Setup Bootstrap\Log\20110228_112601\SystemConfigurationCheck_Report.htm

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  • Ubuntu server random hangups.

    - by Ebbe
    Hello all. this is my first post to this forum which I found through the superb podcast "It Conversations" from StackOverFlow. I am quite in my role as server administrator for an exhibition center in London. Basically we have a central file and sql server to which roughly 40 stations connects to to upload/download data used/captured by a set of applications. Over the last weeks we have experienced a few random hangups to our applications, and as it always happen to multiple applications simultaneously I do not believe that the applications are the source of the problem. We also monitor the network using Dartware Intermapper which indicates that all switches and stations on the network has been reachable during the downtime. Thus, its all pointing to the server. I have been looking through all log files I can think of and the only thing so far that I have found suspicious is the following lines in the syslog which are from the time of one of the hangups: Feb 6 17:14:27 es named[5582]: client 127.0.0.1#33721: RFC 1918 response from Internet for 150.0.168.192.in-addr.arpa Feb 6 17:14:40 es named[5582]: client 127.0.0.1#32899: RFC 1918 response from Internet for 152.0.168.192.in-addr.arpa Feb 6 17:15:01 es /USR/SBIN/CRON[1956]: (es) CMD (/home/es/apps/es/bin/es_checksum.sh) Feb 6 17:16:06 es /USR/SBIN/CRON[2031]: (es) CMD (/home/es/apps/es/bin/es_checksum.sh) Feb 6 17:21:00 es named[5582]: *** POKED TIMER *** Feb 6 17:21:00 es last message repeated 2 times Feb 6 17:21:07 es named[5582]: client 127.0.0.1#44194: RFC 1918 response from Internet for 143.0.168.192.in-addr.arpa Feb 6 17:21:12 es named[5582]: client 127.0.0.1#59004: RFC 1918 response from Internet for 164.0.168.192.in-addr.arpa I find a few lines of interesting lines here: 1) "RFC 1918 response from Internet for 150.1.168.192.in-addr.arpa". I see this a lot in the syslog. And basically everytime I do a nslookup for any of the computers in the cluster I get a new similar line in the syslog. I understand from google that this has to do with reverse lookup problems. But I do not know how that could effect the systems. Lets say that one of these lines appear every time one of the userstations connects to the server, which may happen several times a second. Could this possible cause a hangup of the entire server? 2) POKED TIMER, I have googled this quite a lot, but not found an explaination that I can relate to. What does this mean? 3) The timestamps, it seems like the entire server has stopped responding for several minutes. Normally there are many printouts to the syslog per minute on this server. Furthermore the CRON job is set to run once every minute. Which according to the log, hasent happened here. OS: Ubuntu 8.04 Kernel: Linux 2.6.24-24-server x86_64 GNU/Linux. Hardware: Dell R710, RAID1, CPU: 2x XEON E5530. 16GB Memory. Average load is very low, and memory should not be a problem. Please let me know if you need any additional information. Best wishes, Ebbe

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  • How should I ask for help in getting my emails to stop bouncing?

    - by Gregg Williams
    For several months, people have been telling me that emails they sent to me have been bouncing back, marked as undeliverable. The bounce message would contain portions like this: Final-Recipient: rfc822;[email protected] Action: failed Status: 5.7.1 Diagnostic-Code: smtp;550 5.7.1 <[email protected]>... Recipient declines email from 69.64.159.2, <spamhaus-xbl>, Ref: http://www.spamhaus.org/query/bl?ip=69.64.159.2 Clicking the link on the last line, the destination page told me that "this IP address is infected with/emitting spamware/spamtrojan traffic and needs to be fixed." I could temporarily de-list this node by clicking a link on that page, but it would get back on the list and more emails to me to bounce. I own a domain, innerpaths.net, and I normally use [email protected] for my email. I have my domain registrar, namecheap.com, forward all email from innerpaths.net to the email account [email protected]. (BTW, I had this same problem at a former registrar. I changed registrars, hoping that would fix the problem. It didn't.) Trying to isolate the problem, I asked namecheap.com what I should do. Their answer, though substantial, left me scratching my head: We have received feedback from our upstream provider which informed us that the mail server that you are trying to email subscribes to a 3rd party blacklist service which they appear to be listed on at the present time and is causing destination mail server to reject the messages. Being blocked with one of these services can happen to anyone for many reasons and is something that is beyond our control. 3rd party blacklist services require companies whose mail servers they have blacklisted, pay fees in order to be removed from their lists. As we cannot pay fees to blacklist services which require them for removal, you should contact your email provider and have them whitelist our mail server IP address: 69.64.157.73. My best guess is that I should email my ISP, sonic.net, tell them what is going on and ask them to whitelist the IP address 69.64.157.73. (If not, please let me know.) But I want to know what is going on and how email works. I understand that there's a device at location 69.64.159.2 that is doing something bad that causes the "destination mail server [sonic.net's, I assume --gw] to reject the messages." I know that email is sent through multiple devices in a way that eventually gets it to its destination. Beyond that, here are my questions: 1) I thought the Internet "routed around damage." Why does email starting at namecheap.com always (or is it 'sometimes'?) go through 69.64.159.2? 2) Who is the "upstream provider" that the namecheap.com representative mentions, and what is their role? 3) How does having sonic.net's whitelisting namecheap.com's mail server prevent my email being bounced by 69.64.159.2? I've searched the Internet for answers but have found nothing useful. Thanks for whatever answers you can provide.

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  • Active Directory Time Synchronisation - Time-Service Event ID 50

    - by George
    I have an Active Directory domain with two DCs. The first DC in the forest/domain is Server 2012, the second is 2008 R2. The first DC holds the PDC Emulator role. I sporadically receive a warning from the Time-Service source, event ID 50: The time service detected a time difference of greater than %1 milliseconds for %2 seconds. The time difference might be caused by synchronization with low-accuracy time sources or by suboptimal network conditions. The time service is no longer synchronized and cannot provide the time to other clients or update the system clock. When a valid time stamp is received from a time service provider, the time service will correct itself. Time sync in the domain is configured with the second DC to synchronise using the /syncfromflags:DOMHIER flag. The first DC is configured to sync time using a /syncfromflags:MANUAL /reliable:YES, from a peerlist consisting of a number of UK based stratum 2 servers, such as ntp2d.mcc.ac.uk. I'm confused why I receive this event warning. It implies that my PDC emulator cannot synchronise time with a supposedly reliable external time source, and it quotes a time difference of 5 seconds for 900 seconds. It's worth also mentioning that I used to use a UK pool from ntp.org but I would receive the warning much more often. Since updating to a number of UK based academic time servers, it seems to be more reliable. Can someone with more experience shed some light on this - perhaps it is purely transient? Should I disregard the warning? Is my configuration sound? EDIT: I should add that the DCs are virtual, and installed on two separate VMware ESXi/vSphere physical hosts. I can also confirm that as per MDMarra's comment and best practice, VMware timesync is disabled, since: c:\Program Files\VMware\VMware Tools\VMwareToolboxCmd.exe timesync status returns Disabled. EDIT 2 Some strange new issue has cropped up. I've noticed a pattern. Originally, the event ID 50 warnings would occur at about 1230pm each day. This is interesting since our veeam backup happens at 12 midday. Since I made the changes discussed here, I now receive an event ID 51 instead of 50. The new warning says that: The time sample received from peer server.ac.uk differs from the local time by -40 seconds (Or approximately 40 seconds). This has happened two days in a row. Now I'm even more confused. Obviously the time never updates until I manually intervene. The issue seems to be related to virtualisation and veeam. Something may be occuring when veeam is backing up the PDCe. Any suggestions? UPDATE & SUMMARY msemack's excellent list of resources below (the accepted answer) provided enough information to correctly configure the time service in the domain. This should be the first port of call for any future people looking to verify their configuration. The final "40 second jump" issue I have resolved (there are no more warnings) through adjusting the VMware time sync settings as noted in the veeam knowledge base article here: http://www.veeam.com/kb1202 In any case, should any future reader use ESXi, veeam or not, the resources here are an excellent source of information on the time sync topic and msemack's answer is particularly invaluable.

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  • Samba4 [homes] share

    - by SambaDrivesMeCrazy
    I am having issues with the [homes] share. OS is Ubuntu 12.04. I've installed samba 4.0.3, bind9 dlz, ntp, winbind, everything but pam modules, and did all the tests from https://wiki.samba.org/index.php/Samba_AD_DC_HOWTO. Running getent passwd and getent user work just fine. Creating a simple share works just fine too. I can manage the users, GPOs, and DNS from the windows mmc snap-ins. I can join winxp,7,8 to the domain and log on perfectly. I can change my passwords from windows, etc..etc.. I could say that everything is fine and be happy :) buuuut, no, home directories do not work. Searching in here, and on our good friend google I gathered that a simple [homes] read only = no path = /storage-server/users/ and mapping the user's home folder in dsa.msc to \\server-001\username or \\server-001\homes should get me a home share I could map for my user homedir. But the snap-in give me an error saying that it cannot create the home folder because the network name has not been found (rough translation from portuguese). also, running root@server-001:/storage-server/users# smbclient //server-001/test -Utest%'12345678' -c 'ls' Domain=[MYDOMAIN] OS=[Unix] Server=[Samba 4.0.3] tree connect failed: NT_STATUS_BAD_NETWORK_NAME Server name is alright, if I go for a simple share on the same server it opens just fine. If I map the user homedir to this simple share it works. What I want is that I dont have to go and manually make a new folder on linux everytime I create a new user on windows. It looks like permissions but I cant find any documentation on this (yes I've tried the manpages, but its hard to tell with so many options on man smb.conf alone). My smb.conf right now looks like this (pretty simple I know) # Global parameters [global] workgroup = MYDOMAIN realm = MYDOMAIN.LAN netbios name = SERVER-001 server role = active directory domain controller server services = s3fs, rpc, nbt, wrepl, ldap, cldap, kdc, drepl, winbind, ntp_signd, kcc, dnsupdate [netlogon] path = /usr/local/samba/var/locks/sysvol/mydomain.lan/scripts read only = No [sysvol] path = /usr/local/samba/var/locks/sysvol read only = No [homes] read only = no path = /storage-server/users Folder permissions /storage-server drwxr-xr-x 6 root root 4096 Fev 15 15:17 storage-server /storage-server/users drwxrwxrwx 6 root root 4096 Fev 18 17:05 users/ Yes, I was desperate enough to set 777 on the users folder... not proud of it. Any pointers in the right direction would be very welcome. Edited to include: root@server-001:/# wbinfo --user-info=test MYDOMAIN\test:*:3000045:100:test:/home/MYDOMAIN/test:/bin/false root@server-001:/# wbinfo -n test S-1-5-21-1957592451-3401938807-633234758-1128 SID_USER (1) root@server-001:/# id test uid=3000045(MYDOMAIN\test) gid=100(users) grupos=100(users) root@server-001:/# wbinfo -U 3000045 S-1-5-21-1957592451-3401938807-633234758-1128 root@server-001:/# Edit 2: getent passwd | grep test MYDOMAIN\test:*:3000045:100:test:/home/MYDOMAIN/test:/bin/false I have no idea how to change that home folder to /storage-server/users/test so I just went and ln -s /storage-server/users /home/MYDOMAIN just in case. still, no changes, same errors. Edit 3 On log.smbd I get the following error when trying to set the test user home folder to \server-001\test [2013/02/20 14:22:08.446658, 2] ../source3/smbd/service.c:418(create_connection_session_info) user 'MYDOMAIN\Administrator' (from session setup) not permitted to access this share (test)

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  • How clean is deleting a computer object?

    - by Kevin
    Though quite skilled at software development, I'm a novice when it comes to Active Directory. I've noticed that AD seems to have a lot of stuff buried in the directory and schema which does not appear superficially when using simplified tools such as Active Directory Users and Computers. It kind of feels like the Windows registry, where COM classes have all kinds of intertwined references, many of which are purely by GUID, such that it's not enough to just search for anything referencing "GadgetXyz" by name in order to cleanly remove GadgetXyz. This occasionally leads to the uneasy feeling that I may have useless garbage building up in there which I have no idea how to weed out. For instance, I made the mistake a while back of trying to rename a DC, figuring I could just do it in the usual manner from Control Panel. I found references to the old name buried all over the place which made it impossible to reuse that name without considerable manual cleanup. Even long after I got it all working, I've stumbled upon the old name hidden away in LDAP. (There were no other DCs left in the picture at that time so I don't think it was a tombstone issue.) More specifically, I'm worried about the case of just outright deleting a computer from AD. I understand the cleanest way to do it is to log into the computer itself and tell it to leave the domain. (As an aside, doing this in Windows 8 seems to only disable the computer object and not delete it outright!) My concern is cases where this is not possible, for instance because it was on an already-deleted VM image. I can simply go into Active Directory Users and Computers, find the computer object, click it, and press Delete, and it seems to go away. My question is, is it totally, totally gone, or could this leave hanging references in any Active Directory nook or cranny I won't know to look in? (Excluding of course the expected tombstone records which expire after a set time.) If so, is there any good way to clean up the mess? Thank you for any insight! Kevin ps., It was over a year ago so I don't remember the exact details, but here's the gist of the DC renaming issue. I started with a single 2008 DC named ABC in a physical machine and wanted to end up instead with a DC of the same name running in a vSphere VM. Not wanting to mess with imaging the physical machine, my plan instead was: Rename ABC to XYZ. Fresh install 2008 on a VM, name it ABC, and join it to the domain. (I may have done the latter in the same step as promoting to DC; I don't recall.) dcpromo the new ABC as a 2nd DC, including GC. Make sure the new ABC replicated correctly from XYZ and then transfer the FSMO roles from XYZ to it. Once everything was confirmed to work with the new ABC alone, demote XYZ, remove the AD role, and remove it from the domain. Eventually I managed to do this but it was a much bumpier ride than expected. In particular, I got errors trying to join the new ABC to the domain. These included "The pre-windows 2000 name is already in use" and "No mapping between account names and security IDs was done." I eventually found that the computer object for XYZ had attributes that still referred to it as ABC. Among these were servicePrincipalName, msDS-AdditionalDnsHostName, and msDS-AdditionalSamAccountName. The latter I could not edit via Attribute Editor and instead had to run this against XYZ: NETDOM computername <simple-name> /add:<FQDN> There were some other hitches I don't remember exactly.

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  • Multiple Homed Windows 2008 Server / Windows 7 Client

    - by Daniel Scott
    I have a small Windows 2008 network, with some Windows 7 clients. The clients are both laptops with docking stations and I would like them to communicate with the Windows 2008 server (for filesharing) through the wired network whilst they're docked. Internet connectivity for all machines (clients and server) is via a Wireless LAN, so the wireless adapter in the Windows 7 clients stays active while they're docked. When the laptops are un-docked, it would be nice to still be able to contact the windows 2008 server for print sharing (and slower file sharing) - hence the server also being on the wireless LAN. The windows 2008 server is running Active Directory, DHCP and DNS. It controls DHCP leases on the wired network and holds the DNS records for "myserver.mycompany.local", which is what the filesharing clients connect to. Ideally I'd like the DNS records to return the wired IP first so that this is the address that the laptops will attempt initially - but there doesn't seem to be a way to do that? At present the server's IP on the wireless LAN comes out of an nslookup above the wired Lan IP. The multi-homing works perfectly - but in the wrong order! Switch on the wireless lan and ping myserver and it goes to the wireless IP. Disable the wireless on the client and do the same ping again and after a couple of seconds it starts pinging the wired address. Does anyone have any suggestions on how to make this work in a predictable order? - or even if it can work. Alternative 1? If it can't work, then would this work: Remove the wireless adapter from the server, put a wireless router/bridge on the wired network (set up to route to/from the wireless LAN's subnet), then configure the clients with two routes to the (now) single IP of the server with metrics favouring direct communication over the wired LAN first? Alternative 2? Should I instead single-home the laptops so all of their connectivity is via the wired-LAN while they're docked? (and route via the windows 2008 server - or a dedicated wireless bridge/router)? My concern here is that I'd like undocking to be seamless - and if the clients are in the middle of downloading something from the internet I wouldn't want whatever they're doing interupted as they switch IP addresses onto the Wireless network. Perhaps this isn't the case and I'm concerned over nothing? Any thoughts? :) UPDATE I seem to have cracked it (at least DNS entries come out in the order I hope for - and pinging the server with various combinations of wired, wireless and both interfaces enabled uses the IP I want) ... I set the binding order of the NICs on the Server (which is acting as Domain Controller, DHCP and DNS server) so that the Wired NIC is before the Wireless adapter. (Start -- type "Network Interfaces" -- Select "View Network Connections" -- Press Alt to show classic dropdown menus -- Advanced -- Advanced Settings) Now, an nslookup (from the client) of the server's hostname returns the Wired IP first, followed by the Wireless IP. The wired IP now seems to be used whenever it's contactable. Incidentally, the metrics on the wired and wireless routes (on the client) also favour the wired LAN (based on Windows' automatically assigned metrics) - but this was always the case, even when I was having trouble getting the wired IP to be "favoured". I'm not entirely sure if this is coincidence - or if a DNS server running on Windows, handing back IP addresses for itself does actually take the binding order of it's own network interfaces into account? It would be interesting to hear from someone who can confirm or deny that (or confirm that the binding order on the server plays a role for some other reason?)

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  • Failed Administrator login on WSO2 IS with external OpenLDAP

    - by Marco Rivadeneyra
    I have an installation of WSO2 Identity Server and I'm trying to make it work with an external OpenLDAP instance I have followed this guide: http://wso2.org/project/solutions/identity/3.2.3/docs/user-core/admin_guide.html#LDAP For the read-only mode. But when I try to log-in I get a failed login and the following error on the console: TID: [0] [WSO2 Identity Server] [2012-08-10 17:10:25,493] WARN {org.wso2.carbon.core.services.util.CarbonAuthenticationUtil} - Failed Administrator login attempt 'john[0]' at [2012-08-10 17:10:25,0493] from IP address 127.0.0.1 {org.wso2.carbon.core.services.util.CarbonAuthenticationUtil} Full log: http://pastebin.com/pHUGXBqv My configuration file looks as follows: <UserManager> <Realm> <Configuration> <AdminRole>admin</AdminRole> <AdminUser> <UserName>john</UserName> <Password>johnldap</Password> </AdminUser> <EveryOneRoleName>everyone</EveryOneRoleName> <!-- By default users in this role sees the registry root --> <ReadOnly>true</ReadOnly> <MaxUserNameListLength>500</MaxUserNameListLength> <Property name="url">jdbc:h2:repository/database/WSO2CARBON_DB</Property> <Property name="userName">wso2carbon</Property> <Property name="password">wso2carbon</Property> <Property name="driverName">org.h2.Driver</Property> <Property name="maxActive">50</Property> <Property name="maxWait">60000</Property> <Property name="minIdle">5</Property> </Configuration> <UserStoreManager class="org.wso2.carbon.user.core.ldap.LDAPUserStoreManager"> <Property name="ReadOnly">true</Property> <Property name="MaxUserNameListLength">100</Property> <Property name="ConnectionURL">ldap://192.168.81.144:389</Property> <Property name="ConnectionName">cn=admin,dc=example,dc=com</Property> <Property name="ConnectionPassword">admin</Property> <Property name="UserSearchBase">ou=People,dc=example,dc=com</Property> <Property name="UserNameListFilter">(objectClass=inetOrgPerson)</Property> <Property name="UserNameAttribute">uid</Property> <Property name="ReadLDAPGroups">false</Property> <Property name="GroupSearchBase">ou=Groups,dc=example,dc=com</Property> <Property name="GroupSearchFilter">(objectClass=groupOfNames)</Property> <Property name="GroupNameAttribute">uid</Property> <Property name="MembershipAttribute">member</Property> </UserStoreManager> <AuthorizationManager class="org.wso2.carbon.user.core.authorization.JDBCAuthorizationManager"></AuthorizationManager> </Realm> I followed this guide to configure my LDAP server up to Loggging: https://help.ubuntu.com/12.04/serverguide/openldap-server.html Could you suggest what might be wrong? The LDAP log is available at: http://pastebin.com/T9rFYEAW

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