Search Results

Search found 3420 results on 137 pages for 'david walker'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 104/137 | < Previous Page | 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111  | Next Page >

  • How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

    - by David Garcia
    So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

    Read the article

  • How do I force jquery to center an element when it snaps to another container using the draggable method?

    - by David
    Here's my script. I want some square-shaped draggable objects (in this case just td boxes with numbers in them) to be able to snap to some empty table cells and snap to the center of those cells (empty td boxes), not the top or bottom of those cells, which is what is seems to do by default. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".inputs div").draggable( { snap: ".spaces" } ); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Has jQuery core development been slowing down?

    - by David Murdoch
    So, I regularly head over to jQuery's Commit History on GitHub just to read through the new code committed to jQuery core. But there hasn't been anything new committed since April 24th. I've already read through jQuery core a few times and I'm pretty familiar with it which is why I like reading the commits. I just like to see what changed, why it was changed, etc. Why has there been a slow down in jQuery commits on GitHub? Anyone else have some recommendations for where I can go to view good javascript code being developed? My motive for reading jQuery's commit history is similar to the reasons I browse through accepted answers here on stackoverflow - to learn from people smarter than me. With that said, I am interested in the answer to this questions title, but I am more interested in finding a substitute to reading the jQuery commits.

    Read the article

  • A simple question about type coercion in C++

    - by David
    Given a function prototype, and a type definition: int my_function(unsigned short x); typedef unsigned short blatherskite; Is the following situation defined by standard: int main(int argc, char** argv) { int result; blatherskite b; b=3; result = my_function(b); } Do I get type coercion predictably via the function prototype?

    Read the article

  • What is this: main:for(...){...} doing?

    - by David Murdoch
    I pulled up the NWmatcher source code for some light morning reading and noticed this odd bit of code I'd never seen in javascript before: main:for(/*irrelevant loop stuff*/){/*...*/} This snippet can be found in the compileGroup method on line 441 (nwmatcher-1.1.1) return new Function('c,s,d,h', 'var k,e,r,n,C,N,T,X=0,x=0;main:for(k=0,r=[];e=N=c[k];k++){' + SKIP_COMMENTS + source + '}return r;' ); Now I figured out what main: is doing on my own. If you have a loop within a loop and want to skip to the next iteration of the outer loop (without completing the inner OR the outer loop) you can execute continue main. Example: // This is obviously not the optimal way to find primes... function getPrimes(max) { var primes = [2], //seed sqrt = Math.sqrt, i = 3, j, s; outer: for (; i <= max; s = sqrt(i += 2)) { j = 3; while (j <= s) { if (i % j === 0) { // if we get here j += 2 and primes.push(i) are // not executed for the current iteration of i continue outer; } j += 2; } primes.push(i); } return primes; } What is this called? Are there any browsers that don't support it? Are there other uses for it other than continue?

    Read the article

  • Create event for another owner using Facebook Graph API

    - by David
    Hi, I'm at the moment working on a web page where the users who visit it should have the possibility to create an event in my web page's name. There is a Page on Facebook for the web page which should be the owner of the user created event. Is this possible? All users are authenticated using Facebook Connect, but since the event won't be created in their name I don't know if that's so much of help. The Python SDK will be used since the event shall be implemented server side. / D

    Read the article

  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

    Read the article

  • Flash: Correctly handling click-and-drag outside the browser?

    - by David Wolever
    What's the correct way to detect, from Flash, when someone has started a drag within the browser (eg, a MOUSE_DOWN event), dragged the mouse outside the browser window, released the button, then moved the mouse back over the browser? For example (assuming StackOverflow was a Flash application): I've tried the "obvious" thing, checking event.buttonDown in the MOUSE_MOVE handler, but even though the mouse button is up, event.buttonDown is true in step 2 (above). So, is there any other way to check the "real" status of the mouse button? Or any other way to handle this situation?

    Read the article

  • [Symfony] Admin generator and i18n

    - by David
    I have read lots of questions about i18n, but I haven't found any about performance. I have a simple backend app listing the contents of an ads table. These ads have a category, that is translated in some languages (it's defined as i18n in the Doctrine schema). So, when I add a "table_method" in my generator.yml to include de Category table, it reduces the number of queries, but there are yet some of them referencing i18n translation tables. So, if I add the category Translation table to the query, it reduces even more the queries BUT it increases the processing time considerably. Why this time penalty? Just because of the translation table? And why isn't the filter using this method to avoid so many translation queries as well? I mean, if I want to filter by category, it is making one query per category to include the translation table. Why??

    Read the article

  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

    Read the article

  • Flex: Bottom-left align components?

    - by David Wolever
    As the title suggests, is there any way to bottom-left align components? An <HBox .../> nested in a <Canvas .../> doesn't work because the elements in the HBox are top-aligned instead of bottom aligned. For example, I'd like my components to be aligned like this: +-------------+ <-- container | components | | | V | | V +--+ | | +-+ | | | | +-+ +--+ | +-------------+

    Read the article

  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

    Read the article

  • Why are these lines being skipped? (java)

    - by David
    Here's the relevant bit of the source code: class Dice { String name ; int x ; int[] sum ; ... public Dice (String name) { this.name = name ; this.x = 0 ; this.sum = new int[7] ; } ... public static void main (String[] arg) { Dice a1 = new Dice ("a1") ; printValues (a1) ; } public static void printDice (Dice Dice) { System.out.println (Dice.name) ; System.out.println ("value: "+Dice.x) ; printValues (Dice) ; } public static void printValues (Dice Dice) { for (int i = 0; i<Dice.sum.length; i++) System.out.println ("#of "+i+"'s: "+Dice.sum[i]) ; } } Here is the output: #of 0's: 0 #of 1's: 0 #of 2's: 0 #of 3's: 0 #of 4's: 0 #of 5's: 0 #of 6's: 0 Why didn't these two lines execute inside printDice: System.out.println (Dice.name) ; System.out.println ("value: "+Dice.x) ; if they had then i would expect to see "a1" and "Value: 0" printed at the top of the rows of #of's

    Read the article

  • Whats wrong with this method?

    - by David
    Here's the method: public static String CPUcolor () { System.out.println ("What color am I?") ; String s = getIns() ; System.out.println ("are you sure I'm "+s+"? (Y/N)") ; String a = getIns() ; while (!((a.equals ("y")) || (a.equals ("Y")) || (a.equals ("n")) || (a.equals ("N")))) { System.out.println ("try again") ; a = getIns () ; } if (a.equals ("n") || a.equals("N")) {CPUcolor() ;} System.out.println ("I am "+s) ; return s ; } here is a possible output of this method (y's and n's are user inputs): What color am I? red are you sure I'm red? (Y/N) N What color am I? blue are you sure I'm blue? (Y/N) N What color am I? Yellow are you sure I'm Yellow? (Y/N) y I am Yellow I am blue I am red Why is it that the line's "I am blue" and "I am Blue" printed? Why are they printed in reverse order with red, the first entered, printed last?

    Read the article

  • database row/ record pointers

    - by David
    Hi I don't know the correct words for what I'm trying to find out about and as such having a hard time googling. I want to know whether its possible with databases (technology independent but would be interested to hear whether its possible with Oracle, MySQL and Postgres) to point to specific rows instead of executing my query again. So I might initially execute a query find some rows of interest and then wish to avoid searching for them again by having a list of pointers or some other metadata which indicates the location on a database which I can go to straight away the next time I want those results. I realise there is caching on databases, but I want to keep these "pointers" else where and as such caching doesn't ultimately solve this problem. Is this just an index and I store the index and look up by this? most of my current tables don't have indexes and I don't want the speed decrease that sometimes comes with indexes. So whats the magic term I've been trying to put into google? Cheers

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • How can I determine when an InnoDB table was last changed?

    - by David M
    I've had success in the past storing the (heavily) processed results of a database query in memcached, using the last update time of the underlying tables(s) as part of the cache key. For MyISAM tables, that last changed time is available in SHOW TABLE STATUS. Unfortunately, that's usually NULL for InnoDB tables. In MySQL 4.1, the ctime for an InnoDB in its SHOW TABLE STATUS line was usually its actual last update time, but that doesn't seem to be true for MySQL 5.1. There is a DATETIME field in the table, but it only shows when a row has been modified - it cannot show the deletion time of a row that's not there anymore! So, I really cannot use MAX(update_time). Here's the really tricky part. I have a number of replicas that I do reads from. Can I figure out the state of the table that doesn't rely on when the changes have actually been applied? My conclusion after working on this for a while is that it's not going to be possible to get this information as cheaply as I'd like. I'm probably going to cache data until the time that I expect the table to change (it's updated once a day), and let the query cache help out where it can.

    Read the article

  • Non-SQL API for SQL Server?

    - by David Lively
    Is there any sort of non-SQL API for talking to SQL Server? I'm curious if there is a more direct way to retrieve table or view data. (I don't have a problem with SQL, just curious if any of the layer between the SQL parser and the underlying data store is exposed.)

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111  | Next Page >