Search Results

Search found 61651 results on 2467 pages for 'function object'.

Page 104/2467 | < Previous Page | 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111  | Next Page >

  • javascript scope problem when lambda function refers to a variable in enclosing loop

    - by Stefan Blixt
    First question on stackoverflow :) Hope I won't embarrass myself... I have a javascript function that loads a list of albums and then it creates a list item for each album. The list item should be clickable, so I call jQuery's click() with a function that does stuff. I do this in a loop. My problem is that all items seem to get the same click function, even though I try to make a new one that does different stuff in each iteration. Another possibility is that the iteration variable is global somehow, and the function refers to it. Code below. debug() is just an encapsulation of Firebug's console.debug(). function processAlbumList(data, c) { for (var album in data) { var newAlbum = $('<li class="albumLoader">' + data[album].title + '</li>').clone(); var clickAlbum = function() { debug("contents: " + album); }; debug("Album: " + album + "/" + data[album].title); $('.albumlist').append(newAlbum); $(newAlbum).click(clickAlbum); } } Here is a transcript of what it prints when the above function runs, after that are some debug lines caused by me clicking on different items. It always prints "10", which is the last value that the album variable takes (there are 10 albums). Album: 0/Live on radio.electro-music.com Album: 1/Doodles Album: 2/Misc Stuff Album: 3/Drawer Collection Album: 4/Misc Electronic Stuff Album: 5/Odds & Ends Album: 6/Tumbler Album: 7/Bakelit 32 Album: 8/Film Album: 9/Bakelit Album: 10/Slow Zoom/Atomic Heart contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 Any ideas? Driving me up the wall, this is. :) /Stefan

    Read the article

  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

    Read the article

  • JPA native query join returns object but dereference throws class cast exception

    - by masato-san
    I'm using JPQL Native query to join table and query result is stored in List<Object[]>. public String getJoinJpqlNativeQuery() { String final SQL_JOIN = "SELECT v1.bitbit, v1.numnum, v1.someTime, t1.username, t1.anotherNum FROM MasatosanTest t1 JOIN MasatoView v1 ON v1.username = t1.username;" System.out.println("get join jpql native query is being called ============================"); EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getDefaultManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(SQL_JOIN); out = query.getResultList(); System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); System.out.println(out.get(0)); String one = out.get(0).toString(); //LINE 77 where ClassCastException System.out.println(one); } catch(Exception e) { } finally { if(em != null) { em.close; } } } The problem is System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); outputs: return object ==========> [[true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020], [false, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, koga, 0.213]] System.out.println(out.get(0)) outputs: [true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020] So I assumed that I can assign return value of out.get(0) which should be String: String one = out.get(0).toString(); But I get weird ClassCastException. java.lang.ClassCastException: java.util.Vector cannot be cast to [Ljava.lang.Object; at local.test.jaxrs.MasatosanTestResource.getJoinJpqlNativeQuery (MasatosanTestResource.java:77) So what's really going on? Even Object[] foo = out.get(0); would throw an ClassCastException :(

    Read the article

  • Improving Performance on this Image Creation function

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am making use of GD2 and the image functions to take in a string and then convert that into an image using different fonts at different sizes. The function I use is below. Currently, its pretty quick but not quick enough. The function gets called about 20 times per user and the images generated are always new ones (different) so caching isn't going to help! I was hoping to get some ideas on how to make this function faster. Maybe supply more RAM to the script running? Anything else that is specific to this PHP function? Anything else that I can do to tweak performance of this function? function generate_image($save_path, $text, $font_path, $font_size){ $font = $font_path; /* * I have simplifed the line below, its actually a function that works out the size of the box * that is need for each image as the image size is different based on font type, font size etc */ $measure = array('width' => 300, 'height'=> 120); if($measure['width'] > 900){ $measure['width'] = 900; } $im = imagecreatetruecolor($measure['width'], $measure['height']); $white = imagecolorallocate($im, 255, 255, 255); $black = imagecolorallocate($im, 0, 0, 0); imagefilledrectangle($im, 0, 0, $measure['width'], $measure['height'], $white); imagettftext($im, $font_size, 0, $measure['left'], $measure['top'], $black, $font, ' '.$text); if(imagepng($im, $save_path)){ $status = true; }else{ $status = false; } imagedestroy($im); return $status; } Thanks all for any help

    Read the article

  • window.setInterval from inside an object

    - by Keith Rousseau
    I'm currently having an issue where I have a javascript object that is trying to use setInterval to call a private function inside of itself. However, it can't find the object when I try to call it. I have a feeling that it's because window.setInterval is trying to call into the object from outside but doesn't have a reference to the object. FWIW - I can't get it to work with the function being public either. The basic requirement is that I may need to have multiple instances of this object to track multiple uploads that are occurring at once. If you have a better design than the current one or can get the current one working then I'm all ears. The following code is meant to continuously ping a web service to get the status of my file upload: var FileUploader = function(uploadKey) { var intervalId; var UpdateProgress = function() { $.get('someWebService', {}, function(json) { alert('success'); }); }; return { BeginTrackProgress: function() { intervalId = window.setInterval('UpdateProgress()', 1500); }, EndTrackProgress: function() { clearInterval(intervalId); } }; }; This is how it is being called: var fileUploader = new FileUploader('myFileKey'); fileUploader.BeginTrackProgress();

    Read the article

  • Binding mousemove within mousedown function with jQuery

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am trying to bind a mousemove event to a div when the left mousebutton is down, and unbind when it is released. This code should be fairly self-explainatory. function handleMouseDown(e, sbar){ if (e.button == 0){ console.log(sbar); //firebug sbar.bind('mousemove', function(event){ handleMouseMove(event, sbar); }); } } function handleMouseUp(e, sbar){ sbar.unbind('mousemove'); } function handleMouseMove(e, sbar){ // not sure it this will work yet, but unimportant $(".position").html(e.pageX); } $(document).ready(function (){ var statusbar = $(".statusbar"); statusbar.mousedown(function(event){ handleMouseDown(event, this); }); statusbar.mouseup(function(event){ handleMouseUp(event, this); }); }); The important part of the HTML looks like this <div id="main"> <div class="statusbar"> <p class="position"></p> </div> </div> Firebug says that the bind methods are undefined on the variable sbar within handleMouseDown and handleMouseUp. The firebug console prints out <div class="statusbar"> for the line commented //firebug. I'm doing something wrong, probably when binding the mousedown and mouseup... but what?! I'm using jQuery v1.4.2, if that helps?

    Read the article

  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

    Read the article

  • How to write this function as a pL/pgSQl function ?

    - by morpheous
    I am trying to implement some business logic in a PL/pgSQL function. I have hacked together some pseudo code that explains the type of business logic I want to include in the function. Note: This function returns a table, so I can use it in a query like: SELECT A.col1, B.col1 FROM (SELECT * from some_table_returning_func(1, 1, 2, 3)) as A, tbl2 as B; The pseudocode of the pl/PgSQL function is below: CREATE FUNCTION some_table_returning_func(uid int, type_id int, filter_type_id int, filter_id int) RETURNS TABLE AS $$ DECLARE where_clause text := 'tbl1.id = ' + uid; ret TABLE; BEGIN switch (filter_type_id) { case 1: switch (filter_id) { case 1: where_clause += ' AND tbl1.item_id = tbl2.id AND tbl2.type_id = filter_id'; break; //other cases follow ... } break; //other cases follow ... } // where clause has been built, now run query based on the type ret = SELECT [COL1, ... COLN] WHERE where_clause; IF (type_id <> 1) THEN return ret; ELSE return select * from another_table_returning_func(ret,123); ENDIF; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; I have the following questions: How can I write the function correctly to (i.e. EXECUTE the query with the generated WHERE clause, and to return a table How can I write a PL/pgSQL function that accepts a table and an integer and returns a table (another_table_returning_func) ?

    Read the article

  • Passing an Ajax variable to a Codeigniter function

    - by Matt
    Hello, I think this is a simple one. I have a Codeigniter function which takes the inputs from a form and inserts them into a database. I want to Ajaxify the process. At the moment the first line of the function gets the id field from the form - I need to change this to get the id field from the Ajax post (which references a hidden field in the form containing the necessary value) instead. How do I do this please? My Codeigniter Controller function function add() { $product = $this->products_model->get($this->input->post('id')); $insert = array( 'id' => $this->input->post('id'), 'qty' => 1, 'price' => $product->price, 'size' => $product->size, 'name' => $product->name ); $this->cart->insert($insert); redirect('home'); } And the jQuery Ajax function $("#form").submit(function(){ var dataString = $("input#id") //alert (dataString);return false; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/home/add", data: dataString, success: function() { } }); return false; }); As always, many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

    Read the article

  • Javascript AJAX function not working properly

    - by Or W
    I have a function that sends a GET request to a php script and checks if the script returned any output. It works great, but when I try to add another function that checks for something similar, both of them fail. What am I missing? function checkUsername(usr,n) { var user = usr.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { usr.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=user&q="+user,true); xmlhttp.send(); } The above works perfectly, when adding this function, none of them work: function checkEmail(em,n) { var email = em.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { em.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=email&q="+email,true); xmlhttp.send(); }

    Read the article

  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

    Read the article

  • PHP Preserve scope when calling a function

    - by Joshua
    I have a function that includes a file based on the string that gets passed to it i.e. the action variable from the query string. I use this for filtering purposes etc so people can't include files they shouldn't be able to and if the file doesn't exist a default file is loaded instead. The problem is that when the function runs and includes the file scope, is lost because the include ran inside a function. This becomes a problem because I use a global configuration file, then I use specific configuration files for each module on the site. The way I'm doing it at the moment is defining the variables I want to be able to use as global and then adding them into the top of the filtering function. Is there any easier way to do this, i.e. by preserving scope when a function call is made or is there such a thing as PHP macros? Edit: Would it be better to use extract($_GLOBALS); inside my function call instead? Edit 2: For anyone that cared. I realised I was over thinking the problem altogether and that instead of using a function I should just use an include, duh! That way I can keep my scope and have my cake too.

    Read the article

  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

    Read the article

  • Associative Array / Object can't be read in functions

    - by Matrym
    At the very beginning of the javascript file, I have: var lbp = {}; lbp.defaults = { minLength: 40 }; I can successfully alert it afterwards, with: alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); But as soon as I put it inside a function, when I alert, I get "Undefined". What gives, and how do I avoid this? Is it absolutely necessary to pass this variable into each function, for example, by doing: function(lbp) { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); } I would have thought that defining it first, it would attain global scope and not be required to be passed in? Thanks in advance for enlightening me :) ==================================== EDIT: The problem seems like it might be my initialize function is itself defined within lbp. Is there any way to use this function var, and still use lbp vars inside it? lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; The full bit of code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> var lbp = { defaults: { minLength: 40 } }; lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; window.onload = lbp.initialize; </script>

    Read the article

  • Load PHP function with jQuery Ajax

    - by brandon14_99
    I have a file which is loaded at the top of my document, which is called Videos.php. Inside that file are several functions, such as getYoutubeVideos. On some pages, I need to call upon that function several times (up to 50), and it of course creates major lag on load times. So I have been trying to figure out how to call that function in, only when it is need (when someone clicks the show videos button). I have very little experience with jQuery's ajax abilities. I would like the ajax call to be made inside of something like this: jQuery('a[rel=VideoPreview1).click(function(){ jQuery ("a[rel=VideoPreview1]").hide(); jQuery ("a[rel=HideVideoPreview1]").show(); jQuery ("#VideoPreview1").show(); //AJAX STUFF HERE preventDefault(); }); Ok I have created this based on the responses, but it is still not working: jQuery Code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery.post("/Classes/Video.php", {action: "getYoutubeVideos", artist: "Train", track: "Hey, Soul Sister"}, function(data){ jQuery("#VideoPreview5").html(data); }, 'json'); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").show(); preventDefault(); }); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").hide(); preventDefault(); }); }); And the PHP code: $Action = isset($_POST['action']); $Artist = isset($_POST['artist']); $Track = isset($_POST['track']); if($Action == 'getYoutubeVideos') { echo 'where are the videos'; echo json_encode(getYoutubeVideos($Artist.' '.$Track, 1, 5, 'relevance')); }

    Read the article

  • Javascript function objects, this keyword points to wrong object

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I've got a problem concerning the javascript "this" keyword when used within a javascript functional object. I want to be able to create an object for handling a Modal popup (JQuery UI Dialog). The object is called CreateItemModal. Which i want to be able to instantiate and pass some config settings. One of the config settings. When the show method is called, the dialog will be shown, but the cancel button is not functioning because the this refers to the DOM object instead of the CreateItemModal object. How can I fix this, or is there a better approach to put seperate behaviour in seperate "classes" or "objects". I've tried several approaches, including passing the "this" object into the events, but this does not feel like a clean solution. See (simplified) code below: function CreateItemModal(config) { // initialize some variables including $wrapper }; CreateItemModal.prototype.show = function() { this.$wrapper.dialog({ buttons: { // this crashes because this is not the current object here Cancel: this.close } }); }; CreateItemModal.prototype.close = function() { this.config.$wrapper.dialog('close'); };

    Read the article

  • jQuery form zip code to state function

    - by Dakota R.
    I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

    Read the article

  • Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

    - by Jake M
    I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

    Read the article

  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

    Read the article

  • How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

    - by Guy Montag
    The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

    Read the article

  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

    Read the article

  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

    Read the article

  • Pass object or id

    - by Charles
    This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

    Read the article

  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111  | Next Page >