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  • decimal.TryParse() drops leading "1"

    - by Martin Harris
    Short and sweet version: On one machine out of around a hundred test machines decimal.TryParse() is converting "1.01" to 0.01 Okay, this is going to sound crazy but bare with me... We have a client applications that communicates with a webservice through JSON, and that service returns a decimal value as a string so we store it as a string in our model object: [DataMember(Name = "value")] public string Value { get; set; } When we display that value on screen it is formatted to a specific number of decimal places. So the process we use is string - decimal then decimal - string. The application is currently undergoing final testing and is running on more than 100 machines, where this all works fine. However on one machine if the decimal value has a leading '1' then it is replaced by a zero. I added simple logging to the code so it looks like this: Log("Original string value: {0}", value); decimal val; if (decimal.TryParse(value, out val)) { Log("Parsed decimal value: {0}", val); string output = val.ToString(format, CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.NumberFormat); Log("Formatted string value: {0}", output); return output; } On my machine - any every other client machine - the logfile output is: Original string value: 1.010000 Parsed decimal value: 1.010000 Formatted string value: 1.01 On the defective machine the output is: Original string value: 1.010000 Parsed decimal value: 0.010000 Formatted string value: 0.01 So it would appear that the decimal.TryParse method is at fault. Things we've tried: Uninstalling and reinstalling the client application Uninstalling and reinstalling .net 3.5 sp1 Comparing the defective machine's regional settings for numbers (using English (United Kingdom)) to those of a working machine - no differences. Has anyone seen anything like this or has any suggestions? I'm quickly running out of ideas... While I was typing this some more info came in: Passing a string value of "10000" to Convert.ToInt32() returns 0, so that also seems to drop the leading 1.

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  • Installer downloads wrong version of sql server compact edition

    - by MartinStettner
    I have a Visual Studio setup project which defines SQL Server 3.5 as prerequisite. I also set it up to download the required files from the source (i.e. Microsoft). My project uses Sql Server 3.5 SP1. If I create the installer on my development machine, everything works fine. When the installer is built on the build machine, it downloads the "old" 3.5 version (without SP1) which makes my application crash. (If I install SP1 on the test system manually, the application just works find...) I installed both Visual Studio 2008 SP1 and Sql Server 3.5 SP1 on the build machine. This seems to be some issue with the prerequisite packages but they look the same on the development and the build machines. Any idea what goes wrong here? EDIT Ok, I rechecked it and the package descriptions are'nt the sames. Oddly enough, the .msi file is the right one on the build machine but the old one on the development machine, so I guess if I tried to build an installer which includes the prerequisites, I'd get the wrong result on the dev machine and the right one on the build machine. Extended question: How are the prerequesite packages (under C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\Bootstrapper\Packages\SQL Server Compact Edition) meant to be updated to SP1? Is the SQL Server CE SP1 installer responsible for this?

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  • Login Problem Windows Authentication

    - by user109280
    Duplicate of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/881928/windows-authentication-trusted-connection-problem I logged in the Windows Server(Machine 1) as "abc\user1 ". Windows Server machine is in abc domain. MSSQL Server is in the "abc" domain on Machine 1 and have mixed mode.authentication. It has account "abc\user1 " and "abc\user2 ". Both has role of sysadmin and serveradmin. I logged in another machine(Machine 2) using "abc\user2 ". Same Domain. Run the ant which connect to MSSQL Server. URL is formed as follows. jdbc:sqlserver://%DB_IP%:%DB_PORT%;SelectMethod=cursor;integratedSecurity=true;DatabaseName=dbname; 1) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user2" credential for connection, then it works fine. since integratedSecurity=true. 2) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user1" credential for connection, then it doesn't fine, since integratedSecurity=true and take System Credentials i.e "abc\user2". Even if I make integratedSecurity=false , then also it doesn't connect using "abc\user1" What changes to URL I have make to work for "abc\user1" from Machine2 for connection. what properties to be added in url? OR Driver doesn't support to use another domain\User Credentials? What need to set on MSSQL Server ?? Deepak

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  • Unable to set password in IIS 8 for Domain User as ApplicationPool Identity

    - by Niels R.
    I'm trying to set a Domain User account as ApplicationPool Identity in IIS 8 (Windows 2012). When trying this using the IIS Management Console I always get an error: Value does not fall within the expected range. When trying to set the identity using appcmd.exe it fails on both the command setting the username and password or the command only setting the password. Setting the username is no problem. Trying to set both the username and password [FAIL]: >appcmd set config /section:applicationPools /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.identityType:SpecificUser /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.userName:DOMAIN\Username /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.password:P4ssW0rd Applied configuration changes to section "system.applicationHost/applicationPools" for "MACHINE/WEBROOT/APPHOST" at configuration commit path "MACHINE/WEBROOT/APPHOST" ERROR ( hresult:80070057, message:Failed to commit configuration changes. The parameter is incorrect. ) Trying to set only the username [SUCCESS]: >appcmd set config /section:applicationPools /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.identityType:SpecificUser /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.userName:DOMAIN\Username Applied configuration changes to section "system.applicationHost/applicationPools" for "MACHINE/WEBROOT/APPHOST" at configuration commit path "MACHINE/WEBROOT/APPHOST" Trying to set the password after successfully setting the username [FAIL]: >appcmd set config /section:applicationPools /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.identityType:SpecificUser /[name='AppPoolName'].processModel.password:P4ssW0rd Applied configuration changes to section "system.applicationHost/applicationPools" for "MACHINE/WEBROOT/APPHOST" at configuration commit path "MACHINE/WEBROOT/APPHOST" ERROR ( hresult:80070057, message:Failed to commit configuration changes. The parameter is incorrect. ) I added the Domain User to the IIS_IUSRS group and allowed it to "Log on as a service". Any suggestions what I might be doing wrong?

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  • Subversion Apache Ubuntu - Remote Access?

    - by Hollowsteps
    Okay, a couple days ago I built a bare bones kit into a machine. I've been running through tutorials to get it to work and right now I've gotten as far as making it available in my lan, hooray! However, I cannot access the repositories remotely. Any machine on the lan can easily access it through the hostname or, using 'outbound ip/hostname' or 'outbound ip/machine ip'. The machine can be pinged from a remote, non-lan machine and responds. I just can't get anyone into it outside of my lan. I've been trying to figure it out but I'm lost. I'm breaking a few rules and if any of these would be my problem, please indicate. I don't think I have a static IP (However I check my outbound IP whenever I do testing, is that not enough? It has stayed the same for 5+ days) I have not discussed this set-up with my service provider (Does Optimum Online block port 80? If so, can I just switch apache to listen on a different port?) I am in the DMZ of my router. This is what allowed it to be pinged remotely. For security reasons the machine that is in that zone is turned off most of the time until I can get it locked down. Any help would be appreciated, even if it's just a couple of words I could google to understand what I'm doing wrong. Tortoise SVN does not allow access remotely, but it does within the LAN as well.

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  • Performance variation

    - by Ree
    During my time spent working with multiple machines, I have noticed that performance of the same machine doing the same tasks in the same order differs and sometimes the difference is big enough to be noticeable. This applies to all the machines I've owned and/or maintained (old and modern). Some examples (many of them you may have noticed yourself) that sometimes are completed in different time frames: POST OS installation Hardware tests and operations (usually executed within a customized OS such as one of the many DOS variants), HDD tests and "low level" formats Software installation or other tasks (such as benchmarks) within a general purpose OS (Windows, Linux, etc) I can imagine this is caused by the fact that a machine is built with many components having to communicate as a whole and since the mechanical and electronic parts aren't perfect the overhead occurs. In the last example, I assume the OS complexity and concurrently running multiple processes has some additional effect as well. However, I'm wondering if this hardware imperfection and overhead is indeed that high to be humanly noticeable? Maybe there are other factors that are influencial as much or even more? So, in short - why? To emphasize: the difference is noticeable on the same machine performing the same tasks and this applies to ANY machine in my experience. I'm not comparing machine to machine performance.

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  • Force Windows Local Subnet Traffic through a Gateway

    - by Beerey
    Hi all, We are attempting to route all traffic from a certain machine to a gateway. This works ok for traffic destined for subnets outside of the machine's subnet. However, traffic to machines in the same subnet as the source machine goes through an On-Link gateway in Windows. This means that the default gateway is ignored, and traffic in a subnet (for example, 192.168.50.10 - 192.168.50.11) flows. Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 192.168.50.0 255.255.255.0 On-link 192.168.50.214 276 This route can be deleted from Windows, but when the machine is rebooted it always comes back. Adding a persistant static route to the gateway with a lower metric doesn't work, since it will still try the On-Link gateway after the persistant route fails. Adding each machine in a VLAN isn't an option due to the setup we have Adding a startup script to delete the gateway isn't a great option either, since users will have full admin access to the machine and might disable the script. We cannot transperantly intercept all network traffic on the subnet using Gratuitous ARPs or transparent proxying, since there are other machines on the subnet which use a different gateway The only way we have gotten it to work is by adding a persistant route to the gateway for the subnet traffic, and deleting the On-link route on reboot. The question is then. Is there a way to permanently remove this On-link route If not, is there a way to otherwise force even local subnet traffic to go through a gateway?

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  • Changing externally visible IP on a multi-IP router?

    - by AlternateZ
    I work at a public library and I'm trying to configure OCLC's EzProxy software. I've run into a problem and I think it's related to our network config. I'm punching above my weight here a little so I need some help. I think I'm trying to configure a 1:1 NAT, but not sure how or if our hardware supports it. The EzProxy machine is on an internet line which supports multiple external IPs. Our router is a Billion BiGuard30. There's another server on this line, let's say its IP is x.x.x.9. The EzProxy machine is x.x.x.11 I've set up port forwarding from x.x.x.11 on the http ports to the EzProxy machine. Trying to browse to x.x.x.11 from an external PC works fine - we get to the EzProxy page we are serving. However, if we go to something like WhatIsMyIP from the EzProxy machine, it says that its IP is x.x.x.9. This causes problems with our user authentication software. How do we make the rest of the internet see that the machine is x.x.x.11? There doesnt seem to be any "outbound port forwarding" on the Billion router, nor is there any "1:1 NAT" options in its config webpage. The EzProxy machine is running Ubuntu 12.04, if that helps.

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  • Cannot run logwatch due to Date::Manip issue

    - by Quintin Par
    I tried to run logwatch at follows [root@machine cron.daily]# ./0logwatch ERROR: Date::Manip unable to determine TimeZone. Execute the following command in a shell prompt: perldoc Date::Manip The section titled TIMEZONES describes valid TimeZones and where they can be defined. My date is as follows root@machine cron.daily]# date Thu Aug 23 06:25:21 GMT 2012 Now based on details in various forums I tried to fix this by setting /etc/timezone to “+0800” but it didn’t work My /etc/localtime points to /usr/share/zoneinfo/GMT and is managed by puppet How do I go about fixing this? I still want all my machines to be in GMT timezone. EDIT: Sadly, Both the changes are not working: [root@machine cron.daily]# cat /etc/TIMEZONE UTC Quanta’s [root@machine cron.daily]# cat ~/.bash_profile # .bash_profile # Get the aliases and functions if [ -f ~/.bashrc ]; then . ~/.bashrc fi # User specific environment and startup programs PATH=$PATH:$HOME/bin export TZ=GMT export PATH [root@machine cron.daily]# source ~/.bash_profile [root@machine cron.daily]# ./0logwatch ERROR: Date::Manip unable to determine TimeZone. Execute the following command in a shell prompt: perldoc Date::Manip The section titled TIMEZONES describes valid TimeZones and where they can be defined.

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  • Apache directory structure with multiple hosted languages.

    - by anomareh
    I just got a new work machine up and running and I'm trying to decide on how to set everything up directory wise. I've done some digging around and really haven't been able to find anything conclusive. I know it's a question with a variety of answers but I'm hoping there's some sort of general guidelines or best practices to go by. With that said, here are a few things specific to my situation. I will be doing actual development and testing on the same machine as the server. It is a single user machine in the sense that I will be the only one working on the machine. There will be multiple hosted languages, specifically PHP and RoR while possibly expanding later. I'd like the setup to translate well to a production environment. With those 3 things in mind there are a couple of things I've had in the back of mind. Seeing as it's a single user machine I haven't been able to decide whether or not I should be working on things out of my home directory or if they should be located outside of it. I'm feeling that outside of a user directory would be better as it would translate better to a production environment, but I'm also not sure if that will come with any permission annoyances or concerns seeing as I'll be working on the same machine. Hosting multiple languages seems like it may be a bit quirky. With PHP I've found you're generally just dumping the project somewhere in the document root where as something like a Rails app you have the entire project and you only want the public directory in the document root. Thanks for any insight, opinion, or just personal preference from experience anyone can offer.

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  • What does this ssh error mean?

    - by kevin
    This is my last resort. I've been trying to figure out the problem here for hours. Here's the deal: I have copied my private key from machine #1 onto machine #2. Machine #1 is able to connect via ssh to a server with my public key just fine, but machine #2 gives the following output, when trying to connect to the server: $ ssh -vvv -i /home/kevin/.ssh/kev_rsa [email protected] -p 22312 OpenSSH_5.3p1 Debian-3ubuntu6, OpenSSL 0.9.8k 25 Mar 2009 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: Applying options for * debug2: ssh_connect: needpriv 0 debug1: Connecting to 192.168.1.244 [192.168.1.244] port 22312. debug1: Connection established. debug3: Not a RSA1 key file /home/kevin/.ssh/kev_rsa. debug2: key_type_from_name: unknown key type '-----BEGIN' debug3: key_read: missing keytype debug3: key_read: missing whitespace debug3: key_read: missing whitespace debug3: key_read: missing whitespace debug3: key_read: missing whitespace ... Permission denied (publickey). There is obviously more debug output that I have omitted, and I can provide upon request. I am convinced however that it doesn't like my private key file. I also had a suspicion that it has to do with how I copied it from machine #1 to machine #2. I copy/pasted the text from the private key onto a flash drive. This might be the problem, however, when I duplicated this method on another working private key file, and did a diff on the original, to the copy/pasted one, they are identical. I've been struggling with this. If I could just get a little more information on why it doesn't like my key, I could fix it I'm sure. Anyone have any ideas on this? Is there some meta-data somewhere that tells ssh that a file is in fact an RSA key?

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  • Remote desktop connection to network printer

    - by andand
    I'm trying to print a document from a remote WinXP machine to a network printer I use on a local Win7 machine using Remote Desktop. The network printer does not appear in the list of those available on the WinXP box. In more detail, the local machine runs Windows 7 (no admin rights) and connects to a network printer managed by a print server (i.e. not using a local TCP/IP Port). I have access to a Windows XP host on a separate network which I access using Remote Desktop. I would like to have print requests from the remote XP box forwarded to the network printer I use on the Windows 7 machine. The XP machine cannot access the print server I use on the Win7 machine nor can it create a TCP/IP port to connect directly to the printer (network configuration issues). After having consulting the KB312135 I confirmed the "Printers" option was selected in the Remote Desktop Client, Local Resources Tab, yet the network printer does not appear on the list of available printers on the XP box. Is this a lost cause or is there something else I haven't managed to locate yet?

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  • Computer Comparison - which is "better"

    - by David Murdoch
    A company I work with recently replaced their old server and gave it to me. Their old server is a Dell PowerEdge 2600. I've been playing with the machine and even installed Windows Server 2008 on it...and it seems to run it pretty well. Here are the specs for the two machines: Dev Machine: AMD Athlon64 3000+ 2.38 GHz (overclocked from 1.8GHz [@ 280x8.5] - it is stable-ish) Memory (RAM): 1x1GB OCZ PC3200 (Dual-Channel) 300GB HD OS: Windows XP Pro (32bit) SuperPi 1M digit test: 40 seconds Dell PowerEdge 2600 Server: Intel Xeon CPU 2.8GHz 2.8GHz Memory (RAM): 512MBx2 (PC2700, not dual channel) 68GB HD (RAID 5) OS: Windows Server 2000 (32bit) SuperPi 1M digit test: 56 seconds [using 1 processor] (Themes and Aero-Flass UI turned off, of course) I use my computer to regularly run Photoshop CS5, Illustrator CS5, Flash CS5, 5 browsers (Chrome, FF, IE, Safari, Opera), iTunes, Visual Studio 2010, and Kaspersky Internet Security 2010 [sometimes simultaneously :-) ]. The SuperPi test has my dev machine coming in about 30% faster than the Server machine...though this could be due to the server running "Vista" with background processes prioritized. Do you think it would be realistic/advantageous for me to move from my dev machine to the Dell PowerEdge 2600? Is it possible to install additional DVD drives/burners on the server? Can I install my internal 300 GB hard drive on the server? Can I add some USB 2.0 ports? Note: I'll probably install Win XP Pro on the dev machine if I do switch. If not, are there any creative and useful way for me to take advantage of this server (with the goal of faster computing)?

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  • Public-to-Public IPSec tunnel: NAT confusion

    - by WuckaChucka
    I know this is possible -- and apparently fairly common with larger companies that don't/can't route private addresses for overlap reasons -- but I can't wrap my head around how to get this to work. I'm playing around with pfSense, Vyatta and a Cisco 5505 right now, hardware-wise. So here's my setup: WEST: Vyatta outside: 10.0.0.254/24 inside: 172.16.0.1/24 machine a: 172.16.0.200/24 EAST: Cisco 5505 outside: 10.0.0.210/24 inside: 192.168.10.1 machine b (webserver): 192.168.10.2 So what we're trying to do is this: route traffic across the tunnel from machine A to machine B without using private addresses. i.e. 172.16.0.200 makes a TCP request to 10.0.0.210:80, and as far as EAST is concerned, it sees a src IP of 10.0.0.254. On WEST, I have your typical many-to-one Source NAT to translate 172.16.0.0/24 to 10.0.0.254 and that's confirmed to be working. Also on WEST, I have the following IPSec config: Local IP: 10.0.0.254 Peer IP: 10.0.0.210 local subnet: 10.0.0.254/32 remote subnet: 10.0.0.210/32 I have the reversed configuration on EAST. What happens when I make a request from machine A to 10.0.0.210:80 is that the SNAT translates the private address of machine A to 10.0.0.254 and it's routed out (and discarded at the other end) without establishing the tunnel. What I'm assuming is happening is that the inside interface on WEST receives a packet from 172.16.0.200 and since this doesn't match the local subnet defined in the tunnel configuration, it's not processed by the IPSec engine and the tunnel is not established. How do you make this work? Seems like a chicken and egg thing with the NAT and IPSec and I just can't wrap my head around how this can be done: can I say, "if a packet is received on the inside interface with a destination of 10.0.0.210, translate it to 10.0.0.254 before the IPSec engine inspects it"?

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  • Replicated MongoDB server slower than simple shards

    - by displayName
    I tried to compare the performance of a sharded configuration against a sharded and replicated configuration. The sharded configuration consists of 8 shards each running on three different machines thereby constituting a total of 24 shards. All 8 of these shards run in the same partition on each machine. The sharded and replicated version is 8 shards again just like plain sharding, and all 8 mongods run on the same partition in each machine. But apart from this, each of these three machine now run additional 16 threads on another partition which serve as the secondary for the 8 mongods running on other machines. This is the way I prepared a sharded and replicated configuration with data chunks having replication factor of 3. Important point to note is that once the data has been loaded, it is not modified. So after primary and secondaries have synchronized then it doesn't matter which one i read from. To run the queries, I use an entirely different machine (let's call it config) which runs mongos and this machine's only purpose is to receive queries and run them on the cluster. Contrary to my expectations, plain sharding of 8 threads on each machine (total = 3 * 8 = 24) is performing better for queries than the sharded + replicated configuration. I have a script written to perform the query. So in order to time the scripts, I use time ./testScript and see the result. I tried changing the reading preference for replicated cluster by logging to mongo of config and run db.getMongo().setReadPref('secondary') and then exit the shell and run the queries like time ./testScript. The questions are: Where am i going wrong in the replication? Why is it slower than its plain sharding version? Does the db.getMongo().ReadPref('secondary') persist when i leave the shell and try to perform the query? All the four machines are running Linux and i have already increased the ulimit -n to 2048 from initial value of 1024 to allow more connections. The collections are properly distributed and all the mongods have equal number of chunks. Goes without saying that indices in both configurations are the same.

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  • Active Directory + IIS + SQL + ASP.NET

    - by Amira Elsayed Ismail
    I have sent the following question to stackoverflow website I have installed Windows server 2008 r2 on a virtual machine, Can I install Active directory with domain controller + IIS + SQL server on the same machine? I want to make web application and this web application will authenticate users from Active Directory, the web application should be published on the server IIS and the users should access it remotely from their home using domain name of my machine, Someone tell me that its very wrong to have IIS and Active directory on the same machine I got the following Answer You can't use ActiveDirectory over the internet. At least not without something like a VPN as a middle man. Their home computers will not be joined to the domain, so there is no pass-through authentication. Yes, it's a bad idea to put AD on the web server. Why is too complex to get into in an answer here. Suffice it to say that even if you did do this, it's probably would not work the way you are thinking it should. It's not impossible to do this. For instance, many of the Microsoft "Small Businesss" products put IIS, AD, and SQL Server on the same server. But, you kind of have to know what you're doing to configure it securely. Then I add the following comment Thanks for ur reply.so what you think about the best way to do this as I didn't do anything like that before should I install active directory on a machine and IIS on another machine ? and what about SQL should I add it to the same server of active directory ? I didn't mentioned also that it will be Microsoft dynamics server that will access some information about work and i have to read data from axapta also ? also what is VPN and how can I use it to let users access my web application anywhere ? Sorry for my long questions and thanks in advance so please if anyone can help I will be thankful

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  • How do I restore to a delta file (disk) on Vmware ESXi

    - by Oscar
    Using VMware Server ESXi (freebie version) I have a Virtual Machine (win 2k3 r2 server). When I first provisioned it I took a snapshot of it. I recently tried to clone the primary drive using my standard hardware-based method to grow a windows disk. (using knoppix, clone drive to a new drive, make it bootable, then I intended to extend the partition via diskpart from within windows). This process failed; I tried setting the cloned drive (via the vmware gui) to replace the original drive, boot and be done. This didn't work out so well. The machine never booted. I checked the boot order, the disk location and all the basics I usually do. As a failsafe, I then tried changing all the settings back so the machine would boot to the original drive and I could figure out (as I eventually did) a better way of growing the disk. However when I powered on the machine with the original drive, it reverted back to that initial snapshot I created; It lost all the changes since. I looked in the file system and found a few files, I think the keyfile here is one named "delta" and I'm assuming that's the disk I want, but I can't find a way to have the Virtual Machine actually use that drive/file. It isn't available to add when I go to add an existing drive. Do I need to somehow commit that delta to the original drive and then boot from it again? Can you point me in the right direction? I've since discovered the proper way of growing drives using "vmkfstools" but I need to get back to the original state of the machine to try this out. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Can't see more than the first few lines in an SSH connection

    - by hello
    I need some help for SSH buffer size. I have a vista machine at home and i have installed "Free SSHD" on it. I also have Dynamic DNS setup to access some of my home lab equipment which are connected to this vista machine. From my work machine which is an XP machine I connect to my home machine using Putty. Everything up to this point is working fine without any problem. The issue is I can't see more lines than the first few lines of the output. I press the space bar to get more output off the screen and the output scrolls up and it gets lost as the more output gets displayed on the screen. The Putty client i am using on my work machine has been setup with enough buffer size but the output still only displays few lines and as it moves up, the buffer gets empty automatically. I have searched the entire web and haven’t found any proper solution any where. Can someone please help here? Thanks.

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  • OpenVPN bridge network from routed clients

    - by gphilip
    I have the following setup: subnet 1 - 10.0.1.0/24 with a machine used as NAT and also running an OpenVPN client subnet 2 - 192.168.1/24 with an OpenVPN server (the server in subnet 1 connect here) subnet 3 - 10.0.2.0/24 that uses the NAT machine (subnet 1) to access the internet, so all non-local traffic is routed there to the eth0 interface The OpenVPN client creates the tun0 interface and appropriate routing so that I can access machines from 192.168.1/24 [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# telnet 192.168.1.186 8081 Trying 192.168.1.186... Connected to 192.168.1.186. Escape character is '^]'. [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 10.0.1.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 10.8.0.1 10.8.0.5 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 tun0 10.8.0.5 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 169.254.169.254 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.0.0 10.8.0.5 255.255.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 However, when I try the same from subnet 3, it can't reach that machine. [root@ip-10-0-2-61 ~]# telnet 192.168.1.186 8081 Trying 192.168.1.186... I suspect that it's because subnet 3 is routed to eth0 on the NAT machine in subnet 1 and it cannot jump to tun0. What's the easiest way to resolve it? I don't want to use iptables. I can't change the routing from machines in subnet 1 because it's done in AWS and so it works only with specific interfaces. Also, the NAT machine gets its IP with DHCP and so bridging is a bit complicated. IP forwarding is set on the NAT machine [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward 1 Thank you!

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  • How to do a Windows 7 Image restore to an external drive?

    - by Vaccano
    I have a system that I have done a Windows 7 Image restore on. I would like to migrate that image to a different hard drive. Is there a way to restore the image to an externally connected hard drive? For example: I have 3 hard drives: The first in the source machine (the one I want to copy). The second in a machine that I want to do the work. And the third is not in a machine. It is the target that I want to overwrite with the contents of the first. I boot up a 2nd machine and connect the 3rd hard drive externally (using some cool cables I have). I then use some cool feature of Windows 7 to replace what is on the 3rd hard drive with the windows 7 image of my 1st machine (that is on on my networked backup server). I need to know what the above mentioned "cool feature of windows 7" is, if there is one. And how to use it. Any ideas? Note: that I very much so don't want it to overwrite what is on the 2nd machine/hard drive.

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  • Why is REMOTE_ADDR only sometimes available as an Apache environment variable?

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    To avoid having to parse X-Forwarded-For in Varnish, I'm trying to just set a header on the SSL terminator (currently Apache) that stores the direct client IP in a header. On our development machine, this works: RequestHeader set X-Foo %{REMOTE_ADDR}e However, in staging it doesn't. Specifically, the header is empty, as illustrated by both varnishlog: 13 TxHeader b X-Foo: (null) (On the development machine, this shows the IP address as expected.) Similarly, logging REMOTE_ADDR shows that it only appears to be populated on the dev machine: # Config LogFormat "%{X-Forwarded-For}i %{REMOTE_ADDR}e" combined CustomLog "/var/log/httpd/access_log" combined # Log file, staging <my ip> - # Log file, development <my ip> <my ip> Since the dev machine is, well, a dev machine, it is different in a number of ways; however, I can't track down which difference is causing this. The versions of Apache are the same (2.2.22), and I don't see anything relevant in any of the standard config files or /etc/sysconfig/httpd. And the rest of the system is reasonably similar, since they're built off the same CentOS 5 base image. I can't even tell from the Apache documentation whether REMOTE_ADDR is expected to exist or not as an environment variable, but it clearly works on one machine, whether by fluke or design, and the inconsistency is driving me mad.

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  • Apache: Setting up local test server with subdomains

    - by RC
    Hi everyone, I have XAMPP running on my desktop machine, and I do all my work on it with no issue. http://localhost ---> points to public_html http://site1.localhost ---> points to site 1 http://site2.localhost ---> points to site 2 http://site3.localhost ---> points to site 3 Entering the above URLs in my web browser on the machine with Apache works great, and I can work on multiple sites within distinct subdomains. But what I want to do now is to transfer Apache and all the files to another Windows 7 machine within the LAN, but still be able to view the subdomains from my main development machine. With a vanilla XAMPP installation on the new hosting machine, entering the IP address of that machine (e.g. 192.168.1.10) into my development computer would send me to the main public_html folder. But how do I set up subdomains such that I can access it externally? For example, http://site1.devmachine Thanks for any help.

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  • Can't Ping - Wireless network of home

    - by Naunidh
    Hello, This may seem like other ping problem, but I have tried a lot before posting it here. I have a linksys WRT54G - firmware v8.00.8. I have two laptops one windows vista (192.168.1.99) and Windows Xp (192.168.1.13) connected on WiFi . The Router's IP address is 192.168.1.4, and default gateway is the ADSL modem (192.168.1.1) connected through wire. The problem is that laptops can not ping each other, they can ping the gateway and the linksys router, and both can access internet. Following has been tried (I am pinging from XP machine to Vista): I saw that arp entires for Vista machines were not being populated, so I added static ARP entries. 192.168.1.99 00-19-7e-70-d0-4e static I checked on ethereal that an ICMP packet for MAC address of Vista machine does go out from XP machine towards the Vista machine, but never reaches the Vista machine. So its get eaten by the Router? I added Vista machine to DMZ in my linksys router, so that all the ports are open (In case it was an issue). Firewalls , antivirus etc were turned off, echo was enabled explicitly on vista, file sharing, network discovery were turned on. Network type was set to private. Unchecked everything in Router;s firewall, even though they are only meant for WAN requests. Is there anything else that I should try. Thanks.

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  • Windows 7 system freezes: would like to know if they could be related to MrxSmb, Event ID 8003 errors

    - by lifegoeson
    First, this question centers around a home network. Is it okay to ask here? Or should I go to SuperUser? (I see less answers over there, but I'll go there if that would be more appropriate.) Network setup: 1 Machine running XP Pro 1 Machine running Win7 Ultimate Comcast router Linksys WRT610N Wireless router The Win7 machine goes into a total, unrecoverable system freeze frequently. I was tearing out my hair trying to ascertain a cause, but I noticed that it usually seems to correspond with performing operations on the shared folders on the XP machine. The last 2 occasions that the Win7 machine froze, I saw this entry for Event ID 8003 from source MrxSmb in the Event log of the XP machine: The master browser has received a server announcement from the computer WIN7_COMPUTER that believes that it is the master browser for the domain on transport NetBT_Tcpip_{320B32A7-FED9. The master browser is stopping or an election is being forced. My question is twofold: Could this cause a Win7 system freeze? If so, what could I configure differently on my network to stop these conflicts over who is the master browser? Thank you for your help!

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