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• Hard freeze on new computer

  - by mphair

  OCZ Gold 3x2GB 240-Pin DDR3 SDRAM PC312800 Palit NE5T240SFHD01 GeForce GT240 1GB 128-bit GDDR5 ASUS P7P55D-E LGA 1156 P55 SATA 6Gb/s USB 3.0 ATX Intel Motherboard Intel Core i7-860 Lynnfield 2.8GHz 8MB L3 Cache LGA 1156 95W Quad-Core Processor SAMSUNG 22X Optical drive (DVD+-R/RW) CORSAIR CMPSU-620HX 620W ATX12V V2.2 Windows 7 Ultimate x64 Brand new system (got it from newegg two days ago) and it booted up and installed windows and ran for a day just fine. Yesterday, I boot it up in the afternoon and run various games at full graphics for most of the day. I turn on WoW and play for a few hours and it hard stalls. No numlock switching, no mouse feedback but nothing going wrong on the screen. No BSOD. I wait a bit to see if the stall is just a temporary one, but then force shutdown the computer. Upon reboot, everything seems fine, windows sees that it didn't shut down properly but I go into normal boot and restart WoW. I'm able to load it up and start running around when it freezes again. This time when I restart, it doesn't even get to BIOS. It starts (power goes on) and it just hangs with no output to the monitors. I shut it off and went to bed. This morning, I turned it on and went into BIOS setup. I'm not terribly experienced with messing with BIOS settings but I checked over them the best I could. Everything seems fine so I boot into windows and browse the internet for a bit looking for a solution, hard freeze within 10 minutes. I restart and go into BIOS and check the CPU temperature, 40c. I'm kinda stumped here. Some people say it might be a memory issue, but why would it take so long for it to come up? Could it have been slowly accessing one memory stick at a time and then it just got to a bad one and that's what is causing it to fail? It seems odd that I don't get a BSOD from a hardware failure. Having the screen just halt with no input or output change seems like a software thing to me. Any thoughts?

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• New monitor connected to HDMI adaptor doesn't show output after booting

  - by Paul

  Hello out there in the multiple monitors’ world. I am a very old newbie in your world and need help. I just purchased a new Asus VH236H monitor and hooked it up the HDMI port of an ATI Radeon HD4300 / 4500 Series display adaptor. I left the old Princeton LCD19 (TMDS) hooked up to the DVI port of the same display adaptor. Both monitors displayed the boot sequence, after I fired good old Sarastro2 (Asus P5Q Pro Turbo – Dual Core E5300 – 2.60 GHz) up. The Asus lacked one half of a second behind the Princeton until the Windows 7 Ultimate SP 1 boot up was complete. Then the Asus displayed “HDMI NO SIGNAL” and went into hibernation. The Princeton stayed lit up as before. Both monitors are displayed on the “Screen Resolution Setup Display” and I plaid around with them for a while. The only thing I accomplished was to shove the desktop icons from the Princeton to the still hibernating Asus. The “Multiple displays:” is set to “Extend these displays”, the Orientation is “Landscape” and the Resolutions are set on both to the “recommended” one. Both monitors show that they work properly in the advanced Properties display. What am I doing wrong, what am I missing? Never mind the opinions about the different resolutions of the two monitors. I always can unhook the Princeton and give it to a Goodwill Store if I do not like the setup. I just would like to make it work. Any constructive help is very much appreciated, Thank you. Thank you Anees Bakrain Only the ATI Radeon HD 4300/4500 Series adapter is displayed in the Device Manager, for that reason I have to assume that the onboard display adaptor is not active. All 40 drivers of Sarastro2 are up to date and the HDMI cable can not be the problem because both monitors displayed the boot sequence up to the moment when Windows 7 was loaded completely. This was the moment, when the Asus monitor lost its signal. Both connectors, HDMI and DVI are connected and removing the DVI connector would not solve my problem of running both monitors simultaneously. However, your suggestions shifted my seventy one year old brain into the next gear. The only question remaining is; “Why the signals to the Asus monitor stop after the sequence is complete”. The ATI Radeon HD 4300/4500 Series adapter seems to be capable of sending simultaneous HDMI and DVI signals, what is done during the boot sequence. Why do the signals change after the boot sequence is complete is the key question or der springende Punkt? Is this a correct assumption slhck?

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• Repair BAD Sectors or Buy a new HDD?

  - by Nehal J. Wani

  I have a Seagate internal hard disk drive. I recently opened up my laptop [Dell Inspiron N5010] [Warranty has expired], cleaned it and it worked normally after waking up from hibernation. However, when I restarted it, it stuck on windows loading screen, then tried to boot from Dell recovery partition but failed. It gave the error: Windows has encounter a problem communicating with a device connected to your computer. This error can be caused by unplugging a removable storage device such as an external USB drive while the device is in use, or by faulty hardware such as a hard drive or CD-ROM drive that is failing. Make sure any removable storage is properly connected and then restart your computer If you continue to receive this error message, contact the hardware manufacturer. Status: 0xc00000e9 Info: An unexpected I/O error has occurred. While cleaning, I had mistakenly touched the round silvery thing at the bottom of the HDD. I don't know whether this has caused the problem or not. Since I have Fedora also installed in the same HDD, I can boot from it but it shows weird read errors when I ask it to mount Windows partitions. The disk utility also says that the Hard Disk has many bad sectors and needs to be replaced. I downloaded Seatools from Seagate website and used it. In the long test, I gave it permission to repair the first 100 errors which it did successfully. Now I am confused at what I should do. Internal Hard Disk Costs: a. Internal HDD 500GB Costs: Rs3518 b.1 External HDD 500GB Costs: Rs3472 b.2 External HDD 1TB Costs: Rs5500 c. Internal to External Converter Costs: Rs650 I have the following options: (i) Buy an External HDD, backup my data. Try to repair bad sectors of HDD. Then two cases arise: (a) My Internal HDD gets repaired [almost] (b) My internal HDD doesn't get repaired. Then I need to buy another internal HDD and replace the damaged one. OR break the seal of the external one and put it inside my laptop as internal. Breaking the case involves risks. (ii) Buy a Internal HDD and an Internal to External Converter Case [Not very reliable], backup my data. Try to repair bad sectors of HDD. Then two cases arise: (a) My Internal HDD gets repaired [almost] (b) My internal HDD doesn't get repaired. Then I need to just put in the new internal HDD I just bought. Experts, please guide me as to what will be the most VFM option? Also, if a HDD is failing, is it that I shouldn't read from it too otherwise there is a chance of other sectors failing? What I mean is, is it wrong to read from the HDD without taking backup first?

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• IE won't load PDF in a window created with window.open

  - by Dean

  Here's the problem, which only occurs in Internet Explorer (IE). I have a page that has links to several different types of files. Links from these files execute a Javascript function that opens a new window and loads the specific file. This works great, unless the file I need to open in the new window is a PDF in which case the window is blank, even though the URL is in the address field. Refreshing that window using F5 doesn't help. However, if I put the cursor in the address field and press <enter> the PDF loads right up. This problem only occurs in IE. I have seen it in IE 7 and 8 and am using Adobe Acrobat Reader 9. In Firefox (PC and Mac) everything works perfectly. In Chrome (Mac), the PDF is downloaded. In Safari (Mac) it works. In Opera (Mac) it prompts me to open or save. Basically, everything probably works fine, except for IE. I have searched for similar problems and have seen some posts where it was suggested to adjust some of the Internet Options on IE. I have tried this but it doesn't help, and the problem wasn't exactly the same anyway. Here's the Javascript function I use to open the new window. function newwin(url,w,h) { win = window.open(url,"temp","width="+w+",height="+h+",menubar=yes,toolbar=yes,location=yes,status=yes,scrollbars=auto,resizable=yes"); win.focus(); } You can see that I pass in the URL as well as the height, h, and width, w, of the window. I've used a function like this for years and as far as I know have never had a problem. I call the newwin() function using this. <a href="javascript:newwin('/path/document.pdf',400,300)">document.pdf</a> (Yes, I know there are other, better ways than using inline JS, and I've even tried some of them because I've run out of things to try, but nothing works.) So, if anyone has an idea as to what might be causing this problem, I'd love to hear it.

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• How to start new browser window in cpecified location whith cpecified size

  - by Pritorian

  Hi all! I create a new instance and trying to resize new instance of browser like this: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool GetWindowInfo(IntPtr hwnd, ref tagWINDOWINFO pwi); [System.Runtime.InteropServices.StructLayout(System.Runtime.InteropServices.LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct tagRECT { /// LONG->int public int left; /// LONG->int public int top; /// LONG->int public int right; /// LONG->int public int bottom; } [System.Runtime.InteropServices.StructLayout(System.Runtime.InteropServices.LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct tagWINDOWINFO { /// DWORD->unsigned int public uint cbSize; /// RECT->tagRECT public tagRECT rcWindow; /// RECT->tagRECT public tagRECT rcClient; /// DWORD->unsigned int public uint dwStyle; /// DWORD->unsigned int public uint dwExStyle; /// DWORD->unsigned int public uint dwWindowStatus; /// UINT->unsigned int public uint cxWindowBorders; /// UINT->unsigned int public uint cyWindowBorders; /// ATOM->WORD->unsigned short public ushort atomWindowType; /// WORD->unsigned short public ushort wCreatorVersion; } [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool MoveWindow(IntPtr hWnd, int X, int Y, int nWidth, int nHeight, bool bRepaint); [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool UpdateWindow(IntPtr hWnd); private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (System.Diagnostics.Process browserProc = new System.Diagnostics.Process()) { browserProc.StartInfo.FileName = webBrowser1.Url.ToString(); browserProc.StartInfo.WindowStyle = System.Diagnostics.ProcessWindowStyle.Minimized; int i= browserProc.Id; tagWINDOWINFO info = new tagWINDOWINFO(); info.cbSize = (uint)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.SizeOf(info); browserProc.Start(); GetWindowInfo(browserProc.MainWindowHandle, ref info); browserProc.WaitForInputIdle(); string str = browserProc.MainWindowTitle; MoveWindow(browserProc.MainWindowHandle, 100, 100, 100, 100, true); UpdateWindow(browserProc.MainWindowHandle); } } But I get an "No process is associated with this object". Could anyone help? Or mb other ideas how to run new browser window whith specified size and location?

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• Opening pop up in Joomla

  - by user258100

  I am trying to have people be able to open HTML widgets by clicking on a button in my Joomla page. All the widgets are different sizes. The code is entered as HTML in Jumi. Currently I have the action set to: "On click open in new window without browser navigation." The problem is this this always opens in a full screen size with the widget showing up in a corner. How do I control the size of this new window for each widget? Thanks

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• Create new etherpad using PHP and CURL

  - by Kyle Mathews

  I'm trying to write a simple PHP script which automatically sets up new etherpads (see http://etherpad.com/). They don't have an API (yet) for creating new pads so I'm trying to figure if I can do things another way. After playing around some, I found that if you append a random string to etherpad.com to a not-yet-created pad, it'll come back with a form asking if you want to create a new etherpad at that address. If you submit that form, a new pad will be created at that URL. My thought then was I could just create a PHP script using CURL that would duplicate that form and trick etherpad into creating a new pad at whatever URL I give it. I wrote the script but so far I can't get it working. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong? First, here's the HTML form on the etherpad creation page: ` <p><tt id="padurl">http://etherpad.com/lsdjfsljfa-fdj-lsdf</tt></p> <br/> <p>There is no EtherPad document here. Would you like to create one?</p> <input type="hidden" value="lsdjfsljfa-fdj-lsdf" name="padId"/> <input type="submit" value="Create Pad" id="createPad"/> ` Then here's my code which tries to submit the form using CURL $ch = curl_init(); //set POST variables $url = "http://etherpad.com/ep/pad/create?padId=ldjfal-djfa-ldkfjal"; $fields = array( 'padId'=>urlencode("ldjfal-djfa-ldkfjal"), ); $useragent="Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30)"; // set user agent curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $useragent); //url-ify the data for the POST foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value; } print_r($fields_string); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); print_r($result); //close connection curl_close($ch); When I run the script, PHP reports back that everything executed correctly but etherpad doesn't create my pad. Any clues what's going on?

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• Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

  - by ckittel

  Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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• Why can't I reclaim my dynamically allocated memory using the "delete" keyword?

  - by synaptik

  I have the following class: class Patient { public: Patient(int x); ~Patient(); private: int* RP; }; Patient::Patient(int x) { RP = new int [x]; } Patient::~Patient() { delete [] RP; } I create an instance of this class on the stack as follows: void f() { Patient p(10); } Now, when f() returns, I get a "double free or corruption" error, which signals to me that something is attempted to be deleted more than once. But I don't understand why that would be so. The space for the array is created on the heap, and just because the function from inside which the space was allocated returns, I wouldn't expect the space to be reclaimed. I thought that if I allocate space on the heap (using the new keyword), then the only way to reclaim that space is to use the delete keyword. Help! :)

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• Bad allocation exceptions in C++

  - by me1982

  Hello, In a school project of mine I was requested to create a program not using STL. In the program I use alot of Pointer* = new Something; if (Pointer == NULL) throw AllocationError(); My question is about allocation errors: 1. is there an autamtic exception thrown by new when allocation fails? 2. if so how can I catch it if I'm not using STL (#include "exception.h) 3. is using the NULL testing enugh? thank you. I'm using eclipseCDT(C++) with MinGW on windows 7.

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• new operator overwriting an existing object

  - by dvpdiner2

  I have a custom FastStack class, implemented as a fixed size array and an index into that array. In my copy constructor, I allocate the array and then assign each object from the copy's array into the new array. There's some refcounting in the objects on the stack, hence assignment is used rather than a simple copy. The problem is that when allocating the array, it sometimes overwrites part of the other stack's array. As can be expected, this leads to eventual segmentation faults when that data is dereferenced. class FastStack { private: int m_size, m_ptr; ObjectRef* m_stack; public: FastStack(int size) : m_size(size), m_ptr(-1) { m_stack = new ObjectRef[m_size]; } FastStack(const FastStack& copy) : m_size(copy.m_size), m_ptr(copy.m_ptr) { long a = (long)copy.m_stack[0]; m_stack = new ObjectRef[m_size]; if ((long)copy.m_stack[0] != a) fprintf(stderr, "\nWe have a serious problem!\n\n"); for (int i = 0; i <= m_ptr; i++) m_stack[i] = copy.m_stack[i]; } ~FastStack() { delete[] m_stack; } }; class ObjectRef { private: DataObj* m_obj; public: ObjectRef() : m_obj(0) { } ObjectRef(DataObj* obj) : m_obj(obj) { if (m_obj) m_obj->addRef(); } ObjectRef(const ObjectRef& obj) : m_obj(obj.m_obj) { if (m_obj) m_obj->addRef(); } ~ObjectRef() { if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); } ObjectRef& operator=(DataObj* obj) { if (obj) obj->addRef(); if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); m_obj = obj; return *this; } ObjectRef& operator=(const ObjectRef& obj) { if (obj.m_obj) obj.m_obj->addRef(); if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); m_obj = obj.m_obj; return *this; } }; I see that "We have a serious problem!" line shortly before a segfault, and stepping through it with gdb I can see that one of the ObjectRefs created by new has the same address as the other stack's array. My first instinct is to say that new should never be allocating memory that is already in use, but that clearly seems to be the case here and I am at a complete loss as to what can be done. Added: At the time that I see this happen, m_size = 2 and m_ptr = 0.

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• PHP class referencing confusion across multiple files

  - by DssTrainer

  I have an index.php file that has 3 includes <?php require_once('mod.php'); $mod = new Mod(); require_once('start.php'); require_once('tools.php'); ....some code.... ?> I need to be able to reference the $mod object inside the start.php and tools.php. How do I pass that object to be referenced by those 2 other require files? Basically the mod.php is a class that has an array list generated in its __construct(). I want to use that array list data inside the startup.php and tools.php file but not sure how to pass in the existing one without calling "new" inside both of those files separately which doesn't do what I need since it resets everything. Thanks!

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• overriding new ubuntu installation

  - by tkoomzaaskz

  I've got a ubuntu 11.10 which has lost its support in May 2013, now I'd like to reintall up to the most up-to-date LTS, which is 12.04. My question is regarding my current partitions and doing backups. Is there a safe way to backup my data on some local partitions instead of copying files into DVDs/external drives (this is very uncormortable in my situation). Following are system commands shoing my disk: $ lsblk NAME MAJ:MIN RM SIZE RO MOUNTPOINT sda 8:0 0 232,9G 0 +-sda1 8:1 0 48,8G 0 +-sda2 8:2 0 63G 0 +-sda3 8:3 0 1K 0 +-sda4 8:4 0 53,7G 0 / +-sda5 8:5 0 18,6G 0 +-sda6 8:6 0 25,5G 0 +-sda7 8:7 0 23,3G 0 [SWAP] sr0 11:0 1 1024M 0 and $ sudo fdisk -l [sudo] password for xyz: Disk /dev/sda: 250.1 GB, 250059350016 bytes glowic: 255, sektorów/sciezke: 63, cylindrów: 30401, w sumie sektorów: 488397168 Jednostka = sektorów, czyli 1 * 512 = 512 bajtów Rozmiar sektora (logiczny/fizyczny) w bajtach: 512 / 512 Rozmiar we/wy (minimalny/optymalny) w bajtach: 512 / 512 Identyfikator dysku: 0xc3ffc3ff Device Boot Beginning End Blocks ID System /dev/sda1 * 2048 102402047 51200000 7 HPFS/NTFS/exFAT /dev/sda2 215044096 347080703 66018304 7 HPFS/NTFS/exFAT /dev/sda3 347082750 488392064 70654657+ 5 Extended /dev/sda4 102402048 215042047 56320000 83 Linux /dev/sda5 395905923 434975939 19535008+ 83 Linux /dev/sda6 434976003 488392064 26708031 83 Linux /dev/sda7 347082752 395905023 24411136 82 Linux swap / Solaris In the beginning I had Windows Vista pre-installed with the machine when it was bought (damn!) and I installed linux (the one I have now). The windows-program in master boot record has been overriden by grub and now I can boot with both Windows and Linux. This is list of mounted devices: $ mount /dev/sda4 on / type ext4 (rw,errors=remount-ro,commit=0) proc on /proc type proc (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) sysfs on /sys type sysfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) fusectl on /sys/fs/fuse/connections type fusectl (rw) none on /sys/kernel/debug type debugfs (rw) none on /sys/kernel/security type securityfs (rw) udev on /dev type devtmpfs (rw,mode=0755) devpts on /dev/pts type devpts (rw,noexec,nosuid,gid=5,mode=0620) tmpfs on /run type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,size=10%,mode=0755) none on /run/lock type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev,size=5242880) none on /run/shm type tmpfs (rw,nosuid,nodev) binfmt_misc on /proc/sys/fs/binfmt_misc type binfmt_misc (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) gvfs-fuse-daemon on /home/tomasz/.gvfs type fuse.gvfs-fuse-daemon (rw,nosuid,nodev,user=tomasz) It's strange (I don't remember such thing) that my current linux uses only one partition (/dev/sda4). But, anyway, it seems like that. My final question is: am I able to use one of the existing linux partitions for a backup and install ubuntu 12.04 without removing neither windows nor ubuntu 11.04? I mean - will grub automatically accept both old windows vista and 2 linuxes (old 11.10 and "new" 12.04)? Is there any hidden operation done while installation that could harm my custom-backup-partition while installing? my fstab file: proc /proc proc nodev,noexec,nosuid 0 0 # / was on /dev/sda4 during installation UUID=d44e89f5-9da2-48eb-83b3-887652ec95d2 / ext4 errors=remount-ro 0 1 # swap was on /dev/sda7 during installation UUID=bbe50535-ba57-434a-9272-211d859f0e00 none swap sw 0 0 sda5 and sda6 are trash partitions created during unsuccessful linux installation (this was linux installation before my current installation), I didn't delete these partitions, but I have access to them (and I can use them as backup partitions). edit: second question is: why does lsblk show /dev/sda having 232,9G while fdisk shows that it has 250.1GB? Where does the difference come from?

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• nginx + php-fpm cycle redirection error on linode new vps

  - by chifliiiii

  I'm new to nginx, and I'm trying to make my first server run. I followed this guide as I'm trying to use it for a multisite wordpress site. After installing everything, I get a 500 Internal server error. If I check logs, I see this: 012/09/27 08:55:54 [error] 11565#0: *8 rewrite or internal redirection cycle while internally redirecting to "/index.html", client: xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, server: localhost, request: "GET /favicon.ico HTTP/1.1", host: "www.mydomain.com" 2012/09/27 08:59:32 [error] 11618#0: *1 rewrite or internal redirection cycle while internally redirecting to "/index.html", client: xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, server: localhost, request: "GET /phpmyadmin HTTP/1.1", host: "www.mydomain.com" My conf files are the following: nano /etc/nginx/sites-available/mydomain.com server { listen 80 default_server; server_name mydomain.com *.mydomain.com; root /srv/www/aciup.com/public; access_log /srv/www/mydomain.com/log/access.log; error_log /srv/www/mydomain.com/log/error.log; location / { index index.php; try_files $uri $uri/ /index.php?$args; } # Add trailing slash to */wp-admin requests. rewrite /wp-admin$ $scheme://$host$uri/ permanent; # Directives to send expires headers and turn off 404 error logging. location ~* \.(js|css|png|jpg|jpeg|gif|ico)$ { expires 24h; log_not_found off; } # this prevents hidden files (beginning with a period) from being served location ~ /\. { access_log off; log_not_found off; deny all; } # Pass uploaded files to wp-includes/ms-files.php. rewrite /files/$ /index.php last; if ($uri !~ wp-content/plugins) { rewrite /files/(.+)$ /wp-includes/ms-files.php?file=$1 last; } # Rewrite multisite '.../wp-.*' and '.../*.php'. if (!-e $request_filename) { rewrite ^/[_0-9a-zA-Z-]+(/wp-.*) $1 last; rewrite ^/[_0-9a-zA-Z-]+.*(/wp-admin/.*\.php)$ $1 last; rewrite ^/[_0-9a-zA-Z-]+(/.*\.php)$ $1 last; } location ~ \.php$ { client_max_body_size 25M; fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/php5-fpm.sock; fastcgi_index index.php; include /etc/nginx/fastcgi_params; } } nano /etc/nginx/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; worker_cpu_affinity 0001 0010 0100 1000; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 2048; } http { include /etc/nginx/mime.types; access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log; sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; keepalive_timeout 5; tcp_nodelay on; server_tokens off; gzip on; gzip_types text/plain text/css application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; gzip_disable "MSIE [1-6]\.(?!.*SV1)"; include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; include /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/*; } Any help will be appreciated.

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• Email from my new vps is marked as spam

  - by Chriswede

  I got a new vps from x10vps (x10hosting) and set up the domain via cloudflare. This is what the email looks like: Delivered-To: [email protected] Received: by 10.64.19.240 with SMTP id i16csp357708iee; Tue, 9 Oct 2012 01:29:48 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.50.57.130 with SMTP id i2mr908846igq.56.1349771387599; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:29:47 -0700 (PDT) Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from power.SOURCEAPE.COM ([198.91.90.116]) by mx.google.com with ESMTPS id v8si25630942ica.46.2012.10.09.01.29.46 (version=TLSv1/SSLv3 cipher=OTHER); Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:29:47 -0700 (PDT) Received-SPF: temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) client-ip=198.91.90.116; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) [email protected] Received: from nk11p03mm-asmtp010.mac.com ([17.158.232.169]:54276) by power.SOURCEAPE.COM with esmtp (Exim 4.80) (envelope-from <[email protected]>) id 1TLVBD-0004Ig-1Y for [email protected]; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 12:28:43 +0400 I then tried to enable SPF and DKIM and got following massage In order to ensure that SPF or DKIM takes effect, you must confirm that this server is an authoritative nameserver for chvw.de. If you need help, contact your hosting provider. Status: Enabled Warning: cPanel is unable to verify that this server is an authoritative nameserver for chvw.de. [?] and the email header now looks like this: Delivered-To: [email protected] Received: by 10.50.183.227 with SMTP id ep3csp14506igc; Tue, 9 Oct 2012 01:55:23 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.50.40.133 with SMTP id x5mr992934igk.32.1349772923717; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:55:23 -0700 (PDT) Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from power.SOURCEAPE.COM ([198.91.90.116]) by mx.google.com with ESMTPS id ng8si25688859icb.42.2012.10.09.01.55.23 (version=TLSv1/SSLv3 cipher=OTHER); Tue, 09 Oct 2012 01:55:23 -0700 (PDT) Received-SPF: temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) client-ip=198.91.90.116; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=temperror (google.com: error in processing during lookup of [email protected]: DNS timeout) [email protected]; dkim=neutral (bad format) [email protected] DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; q=dns/txt; c=relaxed/relaxed; d=chvw.de; s=default; h=Message-ID:Subject:To:From:Date:Content-Transfer-Encoding:Content-Type:MIME-Version; bh=iugsx3Lx0KnqjR7dj3wyQHnJ9pe/z3ntYEVk80k8rx4=; b=IrYsCtHdoPubXVOvLqxd7sLE/TyQTS5P3OrEg5SSUSKnQQcQ/fWWyBrmsrgkFSsw6jCmmRWMDR09vH5bQRpFPMA57B7pf8QRKhwXOWFBV+GnVUqICsfRjnNPvhx/lNp5; Received: from localhost ([127.0.0.1]:46539 helo=direct.chvw.de) by power.SOURCEAPE.COM with esmtpa (Exim 4.80) (envelope-from <[email protected]>) id 1TLVb0-0004dZ-Kd for [email protected]; Tue, 09 Oct 2012 12:55:22 +0400

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• Can we 301 redirect to a new page, but still publish the old content somewhere else?

  - by KBS

  We have a page on the site which ranks well for an SEO term (top 5) but contains old information. We have added a new page but Google doesn't rank it that well. Information on these pages is time sensitive. Old: example.com/2013-related-information.html New: example.com/2014-related-information.html Obvious solution is to delete old page and do a 301 redirect to the new page. Now, can we still keep the old page by giving it a new URL. example.com/2013-related-information.html is redirected to example.com/2014-related-information.html example.com/2014-related-information.html is recreated with a new address such as example.com/new-2013-related-information.html What we are trying to do is to send the user to the fresh page but still not destroying the record copy if someone wants to go and dig up the old information.

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• Entity Framework - adding new items via a navigation property

  - by Robert

  I have come across what appears to be very peculiar behaviour using entity framework 4.0. I have a User entity, which has a Company (A Company has many Users). If I do this, everything works as expected and I get a nice shiny new user in the database: var company = _model.Companies.First(); company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); However, if I do this, then I get nothing new in the database, and no exceptions thrown: var existingUser = _model.Users.First(); var company = existingUser.Company; company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); So it appears that if I add a User to the Company that is pulled directly from the model, then everything works fine. However if the User is added to a Company that is pulled as a navigation property of another object, then it doesn't work. Can someone tell me if this is expected behaviour, or if there is something I can do to make it so that it is? Thanks!

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• javascript new Date(0) class shows 16 hours?

  - by Jonah

  interval = new Date(0); return interval.getHours(); The above returns 16. I expect it to return 0. Any pointers? getMinutes() and getSeconds() return zero as expected. Thanks! I am trying to make a timer: function Timer(onUpdate) { this.initialTime = 0; this.timeStart = null; this.onUpdate = onUpdate this.getTotalTime = function() { timeEnd = new Date(); diff = timeEnd.getTime() - this.timeStart.getTime(); return diff + this.initialTime; }; this.formatTime = function() { interval = new Date(this.getTotalTime()); return this.zeroPad(interval.getHours(), 2) + ":" + this.zeroPad(interval.getMinutes(),2) + ":" + this.zeroPad(interval.getSeconds(),2); }; this.start = function() { this.timeStart = new Date(); this.onUpdate(this.formatTime()); var timerInstance = this; setTimeout(function() { timerInstance.updateTime(); }, 1000); }; this.updateTime = function() { this.onUpdate(this.formatTime()); var timerInstance = this; setTimeout(function() { timerInstance.updateTime(); }, 1000); }; this.zeroPad = function(num,count) { var numZeropad = num + ''; while(numZeropad.length < count) { numZeropad = "0" + numZeropad; } return numZeropad; } } It all works fine except for the 16 hour difference. Any ideas?

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• Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

  - by Rob

  I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

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• Add new language to existing Xcode project localization

  - by leolobato

  Hey guys, I'm working on an existing Xcode 3.2.2 Universal iPhone OS project which is already localized for 4 languages (EN, IT, DE and FR). We are now adding a new language (JA) into this project. Each existing .lproj folder (en.lproj, it.lproj, de.lproj and fr.lproj) has almost 60 files - including PNGs, HTMLs and the Localizable.strings file. Each one of those files appear as localized groups inside Groups & Files in Xcode. They're spread all over the tree. If I right-click one of those groups (say, Localizable.strings) inside Xcode, Get Info, click on "Add Localization" and type "ja" - as the Xcode docs suggest, nothing happens. From what I read in this newgroup, it's possibly because of the way those folders are named. If they were named like English.lproj and Italian.lproj, this was supposed to work. So, for me to actually import a new language localized file into the existing group, I have to: Right-click the localized group file. Choose "Add Existing File". Select the corresponding file inside the ja.lproj folder. I'm about to get a new ja.lproj folder with those 60 localized files and would love to import them in the project in a way that doesn't involve searching for every single file in Groups & Trees and performing those steps... for every one of those 60 files. Is that possible? Is there a right (or better) way to import a new language into this Xcode project?

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• WF performance with new 20,000 persisted workflow instances each month

  - by Nikola Stjelja

  Windows Workflow Foundation has a problem that is slow when doing WF instances persistace. I'm planning to do a project whose bussiness layer will be based on WF exposed WCF services. The project will have 20,000 new workflow instances created each month, each instance could take up to 2 months to finish. What I was lead to belive that given WF slownes when doing peristance my given problem would be unattainable given performance reasons. I have the following questions: Is this true? Will my performance be crap with that load(given WF persitance speed limitations) How can I solve the problem? We currently have two possible solutions: 1. Each new buisiness process request(e.g. Give me a new drivers license) will be a new WF instance, and the number of persistance operations will be limited by forwarding all status request operations to saved state values in a separate database. 2. Have only a small amount of Workflow Instances up at any give time, without any persistance ofso ever(only in case of system crashes etc.), by breaking each workflow stap in to a separate worklof and that workflow handling each business process request instance in the system that is at that current step(e.g. I'm submitting my driver license reques form, which is step one... we have 100 cases of that, and my step one workflow will handle every case simultaneusly). I'm very insterested in solution for that problem. If you want to discuss that problem pleas be free to mail me at [email protected]

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• How to append new elements to Xml from a stream

  - by Wololo

  I have a method which returns some xml in a memory stream private MemoryStream GetXml() { XmlWriterSettings settings = new XmlWriterSettings(); settings.Indent = true; using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { using (XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, settings)) { writer.WriteStartDocument(); writer.WriteStartElement("root"); writer.WriteStartElement("element"); writer.WriteString("content"); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndDocument(); writer.Flush(); } return memoryStream; } } In this example the format of the xml will be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <root> <element>content</element> </root> How can i insert a new element under the root e.g <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <root> <element>content</element> ----->New element here <------ </root> EDIT: Also please suggest the most efficient method as returning a memorystream may not be the best solution. The final xml will be passed to a custom HttpHandler so what are the best options for writing the output? context.Response.Write vs context.Response.OutputStream

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• Updating a Minimum spanning tree when a new edge is inserted

  - by Lynette

  Hello, I've been presented the following problem in University: Let G = (V, E) be an (undirected) graph with costs ce = 0 on the edges e € E. Assume you are given a minimum-cost spanning tree T in G. Now assume that a new edge is added to G, connecting two nodes v, tv € V with cost c. a) Give an efficient algorithm to test if T remains the minimum-cost spanning tree with the new edge added to G (but not to the tree T). Make your algorithm run in time O(|E|). Can you do it in O(|V|) time? Please note any assumptions you make about what data structure is used to represent the tree T and the graph G. b)Suppose T is no longer the minimum-cost spanning tree. Give a linear-time algorithm (time O(|E|)) to update the tree T to the new minimum-cost spanning tree. This is the solution I found: Let e1=(a,b) the new edge added Find in T the shortest path from a to b (BFS) if e1 is the most expensive edge in the cycle then T remains the MST else T is not the MST It seems to work but i can easily make this run in O(|V|) time, while the problem asks O(|E|) time. Am i missing something? By the way we are authorized to ask for help from anyone so I'm not cheating :D Thanks in advance

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• Error // Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] // when running 'rails server'

  - by madphill

  Background info: I'm using GIT to get a repository of a project with Ruby files in it. The project lives in my SITES folder under home directory on my Mac. I have Ruby: 1.8.7 I have just upgraded Rails to: 3.0.3 All I am trying to accomplish is to be able to render localhost.com:3000 in my browser of the GIT project i've already downloaded so I can work on it locally. I ran the command 'rails server' and was returned the message below:: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository Runtime options: -f, [--force] # Overwrite files that already exist -s, [--skip] # Skip files that already exist -p, [--pretend] # Run but do not make any changes -q, [--quiet] # Supress status output Rails options: -h, [--help] # Show this help message and quit -v, [--version] # Show Rails version number and quit Description: The 'rails new' command creates a new Rails application with a default directory structure and configuration at the path you specify. Example: rails new ~/Code/Ruby/weblog This generates a skeletal Rails installation in ~/Code/Ruby/weblog. See the README in the newly created application to get going.

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• Add new row in a databound form with a Oracle Sequence as the primary key

  - by Ranhiru

  I am connecting C# with Oracle 11g. I have a DataTable which i fill using an Oracle Data Adapter. OracleDataAdapter da; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da = new OracleDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Author", con); da.Fill(dt); I have few text boxes that I have databound to various rows in the data table. txtAuthorID.DataBindings.Add("Text", dt, "AUTHORID"); txtFirstName.DataBindings.Add("Text", dt, "FIRSTNAME"); txtLastName.DataBindings.Add("Text", dt, "LASTNAME"); txtAddress.DataBindings.Add("Text", dt, "ADDRESS"); txtTelephone.DataBindings.Add("Text", dt, "TELEPHONE"); txtEmailAddress.DataBindings.Add("Text", dt, "EMAIL"); I also have a DataGridView below the Text Boxes, showing the contents of the DataTable. dgvAuthor.DataSource = dt; Now when I want to add a new row, i do bm.AddNew(); where bm is defined in Form_Load as BindingManagerBase bm; bm = this.BindingContext[dt]; And when the save button is clicked after all the information is entered and validated, i do this.BindingContext[dt].EndCurrentEdit(); try { da.Update(dt); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } However the problem comes where when I usually enter a row to the database (using SQL Plus) , I use a my_pk_sequence.nextval for the primary key. But how do i specify that when i add a new row in this method? I catch this exception ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SYSMAN".AUTHOR.AUTHORID") which is obvious because nothing was specified for the primary key. How do get around this? Thanx a lot in advance :)

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