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• server caching problem on ASP.NET MVC page

  - by Rita

  Hi I have server caching error on ASP.NET MVC Pages. The scenario is like this. I have two applications (1).External Website and (2).Internal Adminsite, both pointing to the same Database. There is one page called EditProfile Page on the External Website that registered customer can update his profile information like Firstname, Lastname and Address…etc. Similarly there is similar functionality on the Internal Adminsite on the page called CustomerProfile Page where the Site Admin can update all these fields. When the user updates the profile information from the Adminsite, those updates are not reflecting back to the Website. Now I tried restarting the Website on IIS and that din’t help. Again I tried both restarting the Website on IIS and opening a new browser, then those updates are reflecting back. I am wondering how I can come out of this caching problem without restarting the site and open a new browser window everytime? Are there any IIS settings that could help? This caching is happening only on couple of tables only and all the updates are showing up in the database. Appreciate your responses. Thanks

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• How to use Profile in asp.net?

  - by Phsika

  i try to learn asp.net Profile management. But i added below xml firstName,LastName and others. But i cannot write Profile. if i try to write Profile property. drow my editor Profile : Error 1 The name 'Profile' does not exist in the current context C:\Documents and Settings\ykaratoprak\Desktop\Security\WebApp_profile\WebApp_profile\Default.aspx.cs 18 13 WebApp_profile How can i do that? <authentication mode="Windows"/> <profile> <properties> <add name="FirstName"/> <add name="LastName"/> <add name="Age"/> <add name="City"/> </properties> </profile> protected void Button1_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { Profile.FirstName = TextBox1.Text; Profile.LastName = TextBox2.Text; Profile.Age = TextBox3.Text; Profile.City = TextBox4.Text; Label1.Text = "Profile stored successfully!<br />" + "<br />First Name: " + Profile.FirstName + "<br />Last Name: " + Profile.LastName + "<br />Age: " + Profile.Age + "<br />City: " + Profile.City; }

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• Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

  - by Glinkot

  Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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• Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

  - by Abdel Olakara

  Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

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• Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish Error

  - by SevenCentral

  I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• ASP.NET MVC Posted date field comes in as 1/1/0001

  - by engil

  Just started working with .NET and MVC(1). I'm having a problem wherein in my add action the entered date for some reason ends up as 1/1/0001 instead of what is entered thus causing a date overflow. In my model, this field ("Added") is is of type datetime and does not allow nulls. In my controller I have: public ActionResult Add() { Instance instance = new Instance() { Added = DateTime.Now, Active = true }; return View(instance); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(Instance instance) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { System.Diagnostics.Trace.Write("test"); instanceRepository.Add(instance); instanceRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = instance.InstanceID }); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(instance.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(instance); } And in my view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Added) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Added,String.Format("{0:g}",Model.Added))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Added) %> When I first go to Instances/Add the default value is set correctly, however as soon as I submit the date turns into 1/1/0001 (from my understanding this indicates that it was either null or in an unrecognizable format) When I debug and palce a watch on Request.Form I see the date coming in encoded ie Request.Form {Added=4%2f9%2f2010+8%3a24%3a39+AM} - is this an issue? I know its probably not enough information to make a conlusive determination on why this is failing, but if someone could provide some good debugging tips on how to determine where the submitted date is getting munged I'd really appreciate it.

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• Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

  - by Rupa

  Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• asp.net ajax + http module fails

  - by Sri Kumar

  Hi, I am trying my hands on asp.net+ajax+httpmodule. My Form <form id="LoginForm" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="LoginScriptMgr" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="LoginPanel" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginHeader" Text="Login" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtUserName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPassword" runat="server" TextMode="Password"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnLogin" Text="Login" runat="server" OnClick="Login" /> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginStatus" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> C# Code protected void Login(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblLoginStatus.Text = "Login Successful"; } Web.config <httpModules> <add name="TimeModule" type="MyWebPortal.App_Code.TimeModule,App_Code"/> </httpModules> HTTP Module public class TimeModule : IHttpModule { private HttpApplication oApps = null; public void Dispose() { } public void Init(System.Web.HttpApplication context) { oApps = context; context.PreSendRequestContent += new EventHandler (context_PreSendRequestContent); } void context_PreSendRequestContent(object sender, EventArgs e) { string message = "&lt;!-- This page is being processed at " + System.DateTime.Now.ToString() + " -->"; oApps.Context.Response.Output.Write(message); } } When i remove the TimeModule from Web.config my ajax works. If add the TimeModule then the label doesn't show the message "Login Successful". Removing the ajax panel and with httpmodule available the label shows the message. So, how ajax panel was related to httpmodules?

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• Looping through a file in VB.NET

  - by Ousman

  I am writing a VB.NET program and I'm trying to accomplish the following: Read and loop through a text file line by line Show the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is pressed The loop will then stop on any number that happened to be at the loop event and When a button is pressed again the loop will continue. Code Imports System.IO Public Class Form1 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, _ FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", _ MsgBoxStyle.Information, _ MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class Problem I'm able to read the text file but my label will only loop if I hit the start button. It goes to the next line, but I want it to continue to loop through the entire file until I hit a button telling it to stop.

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• Why does System.Net.Mail work in one part of my c#.net web app, but not in another?

  - by Marc

  I have a web application that is running on IIS within my company's domain, and is being accessed via intranet. I have this application sending out email based on some user actions. For example, its a scheduling application in part, so if a task is completed, an email is sent out notifying other users of that. The problem is, the email works flawlessly in some cases, and not at all in others. I have a login.aspx page which sends out report emails when the page is loaded (its loaded once a day via windows task scheduler) - this always seems to work perfectly. I have an update page which is supposed to send email when text is entered and the "Update" button is clicked - this operation will fail most of the time. Both of these tasks use the same static overloaded method I wrote to send email using System.Net.Mail. I have tried using gmail as my smtp server (instead of our internal one), and get the same results. I investigated whether having the local SMTP Service running makes any difference, and it doesn't seem to. Besides, since C# is server-side code, shouldn't it only matter whats running on the server, and not the client? Please help me figure out whats wrong! Where should I look? What can I try?

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• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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• VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

  - by Camilo Martin

  Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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• ASP.NET MVC Membership, Get new UserID

  - by Vishal Bharakhda

  I am trying to register a new user and also understand how to get the new userID so i can start creating my own user tables with a userID mapping to the asp.net membership user table. Below is my code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Register(string userName, string email, string position, string password, string confirmPassword) { ViewData["PasswordLength"] = MembershipService.MinPasswordLength; ViewData["position"] = new SelectList(GetDeveloperPositionList()); if (ValidateRegistration(userName, email, position, password, confirmPassword)) { // Attempt to register the user MembershipCreateStatus createStatus = MembershipService.CreateUser(userName, password, email); if (createStatus == MembershipCreateStatus.Success) { FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, false /* createPersistentCookie */); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("_FORM", ErrorCodeToString(createStatus)); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(); } I've done some research and many sites inform me to use Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; but this throws an error as Membership is NULL. I placed this line of code just above "return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home");" within the if statement. Please can someone advise me on this... Thanks in advance

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• How to implement a download for dynamic files in asp.net with masterpages

  - by Tim

  Hello, the title says it all. I have seen some similar questions on SO like this or this, but either i have overlooked something or my requirement is different, neither works. My situation is following: i have a Masterpage one of its contentpage is called MasterData.aspx MasterData has an asp.net ajax tabcontainer control with one usercontrol in every tabpanel these usercontrols(f.e. MD_Customer.ascx)hold the main content(like a normal page) they all have GridViews in it and i want to provide an Excel-Export-Button What i've tried is is to use an iframe like here. But the function that adds the iframe to the document gets never called and therefore i never see the save-as-dialog. Maybe this is caused by using a MasterPage. Does somebody has an idea on how to provide a button in an UpdatePanel that causes an async postback, so that i can generate a CSV dynamically in codebehind and write it to the response? Thank you in advance. aspx-markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdGridInfo" runat="server" > <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LblInfo" Font-Underline="false" runat="server" CssClass="content" ></asp:Label>&nbsp;&nbsp; <asp:ImageButton ToolTip="export to Excel" style="vertical-align:bottom" ID="BtnExcelExport" ImageUrl="~/images/excel2007logo.png" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and the BtnExportExcel codebehind handler(of course it cannot work to write the csv to the response of this page): Private Sub BtnExcelExport_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.ImageClickEventArgs) Handles BtnExcelExport.Click Dim csv As String = tableToCsv(DirectCast(Me.GridSource, DataTable)) Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=RuleConfigurationFile.csv") Response.ContentType = "application/octet-stream" Response.Write(csv) Response.End() End Sub

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• Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

  - by Herman

  Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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• Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish

  - by SevenCentral

  I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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• create and write to a text file in vb.net

  - by woolardz

  I'm creating a small vb.net application, and I'm trying trying to write a list of results from a listview to a text file. I've looked online and found the code to open the save file dialog and write the text file. When I click save on the save file dialog, I receive an IOException with the message "The process cannot access the file 'C:\thethe.txt' because it is being used by another process." The text file is created in the correct location, but is empty. The application quits at this line "Dim fs As New FileStream(saveFileDialog1.FileName, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Write)" Thanks in advance for any help. Private Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click Dim myStream As Stream Dim saveFileDialog1 As New SaveFileDialog() saveFileDialog1.Filter = "txt files (*.txt)|*.txt|All files (*.*)|*.*" saveFileDialog1.FilterIndex = 2 saveFileDialog1.RestoreDirectory = True If saveFileDialog1.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then myStream = saveFileDialog1.OpenFile() If (myStream IsNot Nothing) Then Dim fs As New FileStream(saveFileDialog1.FileName, FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Write) Dim m_streamWriter As New StreamWriter(fs) m_streamWriter.Flush() 'Write to the file using StreamWriter class m_streamWriter.BaseStream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin) 'write each row of the ListView out to a tab-delimited line in a file For i As Integer = 0 To Me.ListView1.Items.Count - 1 m_streamWriter.WriteLine(((ListView1.Items(i).Text & vbTab) + ListView1.Items(i).SubItems(0).ToString() & vbTab) + ListView1.Items(i).SubItems(1).ToString()) Next myStream.Close() End If End If End Sub

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• Retaining parameters in ASP.NET MVC

  - by MapDot

  Many MVC frameworks (e.g. PHP's Zend Framework) have a way of providing basic state management through URLs. The basic principle is this: Any parameters that were not explicitly modified or un-set get copied into every URL For instance, consider a listing with pagination. You'll have the order, direction and page number passed as URL parameters. You may also have a couple of filters. Changing the value of a filter should not alter the sort order. ASP.net MVC seems to remember your controller and action by default: <%: Html.RouteLink("Next", "MyRoute", new {id = next.ItemId}) %> This will not re-set your action or controller. However, it does seem to forget all other parameters. The same is true of ActionLink. Parameters that get set earlier on in your URL seem to get retained as well. Is there a way to make it retain more than that? For instance, this does not seem to affect any of the links being generated: RouteValues.RouteData.Values["showDeleted"] = true;

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• How can I serialize this .NET Collection item?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to xml serialize a POCO view data class into xml. It serializes, but incorrectly generates some xml. eg. (current result .. not the one I'm after) <ReviewListViewData> <reviews> <review>....</review> ... </reviews> </ReviewListViewData> I'm trying to get (notice how I've removed the bad root node?) ... <reviews> <review>....</review> ... </reviews> Class is defined as... public class ReviewListViewData { [XmlArray("reviews")] [XmlArrayItem("review")] public ReviewViewData[] Reviews { get; set; } } and here's a sample way it's called in an ASP.NET MVC ActionMethod :- var reviewListViewData = GetReviewListViewData(...); return XmlResult(reviewListViewData); // (XmlResult referenced from MVCContrib). anyone have any ideas, please?

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• ASP.NET server data persistence

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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• TreeView update bug in the VB.NET

  - by CFP

  Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again. EDIT 2: Posted a bug report at Microsoft Connect

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• ASP.Net MVC: Change Routes dynamically

  - by Frank

  Hi, usually, when I look at a ASP.Net MVC application, the Route table gets configured at startup and is not touched ever after. I have a couple of questions on that but they are closely related to each other: Is it possible to change the route table at runtime? How would/should I avoid threading issues? Is there maybe a better way to provide a dynamic URL? I know that IDs etc. can appear in the URL but can't see how this could be applicable in what I want to achieve. How can I avoid that, even though I have the default controller/action route defined, that default route doesn't work for a specific combination, e.g. the "Post" action on the "Comments" controller is not available through the default route? Background: Comment Spammers usually grab the posting URL from the website and then don't bother to go through the website anymore to do their automated spamming. If I regularly modify my post URL to some random one, spammers would have to go back to the site and find the correct post URL to try spamming. If that URL changes constantly I'd think that that could make the spammers' work more tedious, which should usually mean that they give up on the affected URL.

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• Javascript/Jquery pop-up window in Asp.Net MVC4

  - by Mark

  Below I have a "button" (just a span with an icon) that creates a pop-up view of a div in my application to allow users to compare information in seperate windows. However, I get and Asp.Net Error as follows: **Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Requested URL: /Home/[object Object]** Does anyone have an Idea of why this is happending? Below is my code: <div class="module_actions"> <div class="actions"> <span class="icon-expand2 pop-out"></span> </div> </div> <script> $(document).ajaxSuccess(function () { var Clone = $(".pop-out").click(function () { $(this).parents(".module").clone().appendTo("#NewWindow"); }); $(".pop-out").click(function popitup(url) { LeftPosition = (screen.width) ? (screen.width - 400) / 1 : 0; TopPosition = (screen.height) ? (screen.height - 700) / 1 : 0; var sheight = (screen.height) * 0.5; var swidth = (screen.width) * 0.5; settings = 'height=' + sheight + ',width=' + swidth + ',top=' + TopPosition + ',left=' + LeftPosition + ',scrollbars=yes,resizable=yes,toolbar=no,status=no,menu=no, directories=no,titlebar=no,location=no,addressbar=no' newwindow = window.open(url, '/Index', settings); if (window.focus) { newwindow.focus() } return false; }); });

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