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  • Linked List Design

    - by Jim Scott
    The other day in a local .NET group I attend the following question came up: "Is it a valid interview question to ask about Linked Lists when hiring someone for a .NET development position?" Not having a computer sciense degree and being a self taught developer my response was that I did not feel it was appropriate as I in 5 years of developer with .NET had never been exposed to linked lists and did not hear any compeling reason for a use for one. However the person commented that it is a very common interview question so I decided when I left that I would do some reasearch on linked lists and see what I might be missing. I have read a number of posts on stack overflow and various google searches and decided the best way to learn about them was to write my own .NET classes to see how they worked from the inside out. Here is my class structure Single Linked List Constructor public SingleLinkedList(object value) Public Properties public bool IsTail public bool IsHead public object Value public int Index public int Count private fields not exposed to a property private SingleNode firstNode; private SingleNode lastNode; private SingleNode currentNode; Methods public void MoveToFirst() public void MoveToLast() public void Next() public void MoveTo(int index) public void Add(object value) public void InsertAt(int index, object value) public void Remove(object value) public void RemoveAt(int index) Questions I have: What are typical methods you would expect in a linked list? What is typical behaviour when adding new records? For example if I have 4 nodes and I am currently positioned in the second node and perform Add() should it be added after or before the current node? Or should it be added to the end of the list? Some of the designs I have seen explaining things seem to expose outside of the LinkedList class the Node object. In my design you simply add, get, remove values and know nothing about any node object. Should the Head and Tail be placeholder objects that are only used to define the head/tail of the list? I require my Linked List be instantiated with a value which creates the first node of the list which is essentially the head and tail of the list. Would you change that ? What should the rules be when it comes to removing nodes. Should someone be able to remove all nodes? Here is my Double Linked List Constructor public DoubleLinkedList(object value) Properties public bool IsHead public bool IsTail public object Value public int Index public int Count Private fields not exposed via property private DoubleNode currentNode; Methods public void AddFirst(object value) public void AddLast(object value) public void AddBefore(object existingValue, object value) public void AddAfter(object existingValue, object value) public void Add(int index, object value) public void Add(object value) public void Remove(int index) public void Next() public void Previous() public void MoveTo(int index)

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  • _heapwalk reports _HEAPBADNODE, causes breakpoint or loops endlessly

    - by Stefan Hubert
    I use _heapwalk to gather statistics about the Process' standard heap. Under certain circumstances i observe unexpected behaviours like: _HEAPBADNODE is returned some breakpoint is triggered inside _heapwalk, telling me the heap might got corrupted access violation inside _heapWalk. I saw different behaviours on different Computers. On one Windows XP 32 bit machine everything looked fine, whereas on two Windows XP 64 bit machines i saw the mentioned symptoms. I saw this behaviour only if LowFragmentationHeap was enabled. I played around a bit. I walked the heap several times right one after another inside my program. First time doing nothing in between the subsequent calls to _heapWalk (everything fine). Then again, this time doing some stuff (for gathering statistics) in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk. Depending upon what I did there, I sometimes got the described symptoms. Here finally a question: What exactly is safe and what is not safe to do in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk during a complete heap walk run? Naturally, i shall not manipulate the heap. Therefore i doublechecked that i don't call new and delete. However, my observation is that function calls with some parameter passing causes my heap walk run to fail already. I subsequently added function calls and increasing number of parameters passed to these. My feeling was two function calls with two paramters being passed did not work anymore. However I would like to know why. Any ideas why this does not happen on some machines? Any ideas why this only happens if LowFragmentationHeap is enabled? Sample Code finally: #include <malloc.h> void staticMethodB( int a, int b ) { } void staticMethodA( int a, int b, int c) { staticMethodB( 3, 6); return; } ... _HEAPINFO hinfo; hinfo._pentry = NULL; while( ( heapstatus = _heapwalk( &hinfo ) ) == _HEAPOK ) { //doing nothing here works fine //however if i call functions here with parameters, this causes //_HEAPBADNODE or something else staticMethodA( 3,4,5); } switch( heapstatus ) { ... case _HEAPBADNODE: assert( false ); /*ERROR - bad node in heap */ break; ...

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  • How to get this Qt state machine to work?

    - by Ton van den Heuvel
    I have two widgets that can be checked, and a numeric entry field that should contain a value greater than zero. Whenever both widgets have been checked, and the numeric entry field contains a value greater than zero, a button should be enabled. I am struggling with defining a proper state machine for this situation. So far I have the following: QStateMachine *machine = new QStateMachine(this); QState *buttonDisabled = new QState(QState::ParallelStates); buttonDisabled->assignProperty(ui_->button, "enabled", false); QState *a = new QState(buttonDisabled); QState *aUnchecked = new QState(a); QFinalState *aChecked = new QFinalState(a); aUnchecked->addTransition(wa, SIGNAL(checked()), aChecked); a->setInitialState(aUnchecked); QState *b = new QState(buttonDisabled); QState *bUnchecked = new QState(b); QFinalState *bChecked = new QFinalState(b); employeeUnchecked->addTransition(wb, SIGNAL(checked()), bChecked); b->setInitialState(bUnchecked); QState *weight = new QState(registerButtonDisabled); QState *weightZero = new QState(weight); QFinalState *weightGreaterThanZero = new QFinalState(weight); weightZero->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(validWeight()), weightGreaterThanZero); weight->setInitialState(weightZero); QState *buttonEnabled = new QState(); buttonEnabled->assignProperty(ui_->registerButton, "enabled", true); buttonDisabled->addTransition(buttonDisabled, SIGNAL(finished()), buttonEnabled); buttonEnabled->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(invalidWeight()), weightZero); machine->addState(registerButtonDisabled); machine->addState(registerButtonEnabled); machine->setInitialState(registerButtonDisabled); machine->start(); The problem here is that the following transition: buttonEnabled->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(invalidWeight()), weightZero); causes all the child states in the registerButtonDisabled state to be reverted to their initial state. This is unwanted behaviour, as I want the a and b states to remain in the same state. How do I prevent this?

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  • Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

    - by davidhong
    I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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  • Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

    - by Alexander
    I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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  • Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

    - by ndg
    I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but falls down when editing multiple rows. The behaviour I'm seeing is that editing a row will work as expected until you try to edit another row. Upon editing another row, all previously edited rows will have their "desc" value set to the value of the currently selected row. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Hibernate + Spring : cascade deletion ignoring non-nullable constraints

    - by E.Benoît
    Hello, I seem to be having one weird problem with some Hibernate data classes. In a very specific case, deleting an object should fail due to existing, non-nullable relations - however it does not. The strangest part is that a few other classes related to the same definition behave appropriately. I'm using HSQLDB 1.8.0.10, Hibernate 3.5.0 (final) and Spring 3.0.2. The Hibernate properties are set so that batch updates are disabled. The class whose instances are being deleted is: @Entity( name = "users.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "credentials" , schema = "users" ) public class Credentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /* Some basic fields here */ /** Administrator credentials, if any */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public AdminCredentials adminCredentials; /** Active account data */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public Account activeAccount; /* Some more reverse relations here */ } (ModelBase is a class that simply declares a Long field named "id" as being automatically generated) The Account class, which is one for which constraints work, looks like this: @Entity( name = "users.Account" ) @Table( name = "accounts" , schema = "users" ) public class Account extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials the account is linked to */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } And here is the AdminCredentials class, for which the constraints are ignored. @Entity( name = "admin.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "admin_credentials" , schema = "admin" ) public class AdminCredentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials linked with an administrative account */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } The code that attempts to delete the Credentials instances is: try { if ( account.validationKey != null ) { this.hTemplate.delete( account.validationKey ); } this.hTemplate.delete( account.languageSetting ); this.hTemplate.delete( account ); } catch ( DataIntegrityViolationException e ) { return false; } Where hTemplate is a HibernateTemplate instance provided by Spring, its flush mode having been set to EAGER. In the conditions shown above, the deletion will fail if there is an Account instance that refers to the Credentials instance being deleted, which is the expected behaviour. However, an AdminCredentials instance will be ignored, the deletion will succeed, leaving an invalid AdminCredentials instance behind (trying to refresh that instance causes an error because the Credentials instance no longer exists). I have tried moving the AdminCredentials table from the admin DB schema to the users DB schema. Strangely enough, a deletion-related error is then triggered, but not in the deletion code - it is triggered at the next query involving the table, seemingly ignoring the flush mode setting. I've been trying to understand this for hours and I must admit I'm just as clueless now as I was then.

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  • Read email from incoming mail server(POP)

    - by nccsbim071
    Hi, I have used an open source code from codeproject to read email from incoming mail server(POP Server). The code can be found at following location: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/IP/Pop3MimeClient.aspx So far it works fine i can read emails. My objective of using this code was to retrieve emails from POP server and process them. My problem is: If i use gmails pop server "pop.gmail.com" and run the appplication. I get only those emails that i have not retrieved since the last time i run the application. but if i use my clients pop server everytime i run the application i get all the emails in the pop server. for example: If i use gmail pop server: pop.gmail.com I have three emails in the pop server. I haven't run the application. I am running the application for the first time. Application reads the email, this time i will get 3 all the three email. I run the application second time, my application will not read any emails this time because i have already read the 3 existing one. This is fine, this is what i want. Now i send email to pop.gmail.com. I run the application again for the third time, this time i will only get the email that has just arrived that is the fourth one. This is good behaviour, this is what i want. But if i use my clients pop server: No matter how many times i run the application, it reads all the emails in the mail box. This will create problem for me, because i am thinking of building a window service that will read emails from pop server and process them. This service will run continuously. I will process emails in the pop serve then sleep for let's say 1 minute and the process the emails again. If the application downloaded from codeproject reads all the emails all the time, my clients mailbox can have like thousands for email in this mail box, so this would not be feasible for me. Is there some settings that is to be made at my client's pop server that will allow my application to retrieve only those emails that i have not read since last time i run the service or any help Please help, thanks,

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  • Should I deal with files longer than MAX_PATH?

    - by John
    Just had an interesting case. My software reported back a failure caused by a path being longer than MAX_PATH. The path was just a plain old document in My Documents, e.g.: C:\Documents and Settings\Bill\Some Stupid FOlder Name\A really ridiculously long file thats really very very very..........very long.pdf Total length 269 characters (MAX_PATH==260). The user wasn't using a external hard drive or anything like that. This was a file on an Windows managed drive. So my question is this. Should I care? I'm not saying can I deal with the long paths, I'm asking should I. Yes I'm aware of the "\?\" unicode hack on some Win32 APIs, but it seems this hack is not without risk (as it's changing the behaviour of the way the APIs parse paths) and also isn't supported by all APIs . So anyway, let me just state my position/assertions: First presumably the only way the user was able to break this limit is if the app she used uses the special Unicode hack. It's a PDF file, so maybe the PDF tool she used uses this hack. I tried to reproduce this (by using the unicode hack) and experimented. What I found was that although the file appears in Explorer, I can do nothing with it. I can't open it, I can't choose "Properties" (Windows 7). Other common apps can't open the file (e.g. IE, Firefox, Notepad). Explorer will also not let me create files/dirs which are too long - it just refuses. Ditto for command line tool cmd.exe. So basically, one could look at it this way: a rouge tool has allowed the user to create a file which is not accessible by a lot of Windows (e.g. Explorer). I could take the view that I shouldn't have to deal with this. (As an aside, this isn't an vote of approval for a short max path length: I think 260 chars is a joke, I'm just saying that if Windows shell and some APIs can't handle 260 then why should I?). So, is this a fair view? Should I say "Not my problem"? Thanks! John

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  • Annoying Captcha >> How to programm a form that can SMELL difference between human and robot?

    - by Sam
    Hi folks. On the comment of my old form needing a CAPTHA, I felt I share my problem, perhaps you recognize it and find its time we had better solutions: FACTUAL PROBLEM I know most of my clients (typical age= 40~60) hate CAPTCHA things. Now, I myself always feel like a robot, when I have to sueeze my eyes and fill in the strange letters from the Capcha... Sometimes I fail! Go back etc. Turnoff. I mean comon its 2011, shouldnt the forms have better A.I. by now? MY NEW IDEA (please dont laugh) Ive thought about it and this is my idea's to tell difference between human and robot: My idea is to give credibility points. 100 points = human 0% = robot. require real human mouse movements require mousemovements that dont follow any mathematical pattern require non-instantaneous reading delays, between load and first input in form when typing in form, delays are measured between letters and words approve as human when typical human behaviour measured (deleting, rephrasing etc) dont allow instant pasting or all fields give points for real keyboard pressures retract points for credibility when hyperlinks in form Test wether fake email field (invisible by human) is populated (suggested by Tomalak) when more than 75% human cretibility, allow to be sent without captcha when less than 25% human crecibility, force captcha puzzle to be sure Could we write a A.I. PHP that replaces the human-annoying capthas, meanwhile stopping most spamservers filing in the data? Not only for the fun of it, but also actually to provide a 99% better alternative than CAPTHCA's. Imagine the userfriendlyness of your forms! Your site distinguishing itself from others, showing your audience your sites KNOWS the difference between a robot and a human. Imagine the advangage. I am trying to capture the essense of that distinguishing edge. PROGRAMMING QUESTION: 1) Are such things possible to programm? 2) If so how would you start such programm? 3) Are there already very good working solutions available elsewhere? 4) If it isn't so hard, your are welcome to share your answer/solutions below. 5) upon completion of hints and new ideas, could this page be the start of a new AI captcha, OR should I forget about it and just go with the flow, forget about the whole AI dream, and use captcha like everyone else.

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  • Delaying emails in PHP to avoid exceeding server limit

    - by Andrew P.
    Okay, so here's my problem: I have a list of members on a website, and periodically one of the admins my site (who are not very web or tech savvy) will send a newsletter to the memberlist. My current memberlist is well over 800 individuals long. So, I wrote an email script that sends the email to the full memberlist, with the members listed in the Bcc header. However, I've discovered that my host server has a limit of 300 emails per hour, which I apparently exceed even though the members are listed in the Bcc field. (I wasn't previously aware that the behaviour of Bcc was to send separate emails for each name on the list...) After some thought, I've come to the conclusion that my only solution is to have my script send only the email to only the first 300 emails, wait an hour, and send a second email to the next three hundred, wait another hour, and so on until I've sent the email to the whole member list. Looking around on the internet, I've seen some other solutions people have come up with for delaying emails in PHP. Sleep() is obviously not an option, because I can't just leave the script open and running for 3 or four hours. I've seen some people suggest cron jobs, but I'm not sure how feasible it would be to create three new cron jobs every time I send an email, use them once, and then delete them afterward. The final (and what I think is the smartest) solution I've seen, is to have a table in my database to temporarily store the emails to be delayed and sent later, and then create a cron job that checks this sql table every hour or so, compares the timestamp of the row to the current timestamp, and then sends the email if an hour has passed. So I'm asking you all which method you would recommend. Is there an easier solution that I've completely looked over (aside from getting a different hosting plan. ha!), or is there a cleaner way to do it than the database / cron job approach? tl;dr: I have 800 emails to send in an hour on a server that limits me to 300/hr. Using PHP, find a way to get around this problem in a way that the person sending the email needs only to click "send."

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  • .NET JIT Code Cache leaking?

    - by pitchfork
    We have a server component written in .Net 3.5. It runs as service on a Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition. It works great but after some time (days) we notice massive slowdowns and an increased working set. We expected some kind of memory leak and used WinDBG/SOS to analyze dumps of the process. Unfortunately the GC Heap doesn’t show any leak but we noticed that the JIT code heap has grown from 8MB after the start to more than 1GB after a few days. We don’t use any dynamic code generation techniques by our own. We use Linq2SQL which is known for dynamic code generation but we don’t know if it can cause such a problem. The main question is if there is any technique to analyze the dump and check where all this Host Code Heap blocks that are shown in the WinDBG dumps come from? [Update] In the mean time we did some more analysis and had Linq2SQL as probable suspect, especially since we do not use precompiled queries. The following example program creates exactly the same behaviour where more and more Host Code Heap blocks are created over time. using System; using System.Linq; using System.Threading; namespace LinqStressTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { for (int i = 0; i < 100; ++ i) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); while(runs < 1000000) { Thread.Sleep(5000); } } static void Worker(object state) { for (int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { using (var ctx = new DataClasses1DataContext()) { long id = rnd.Next(); var x = ctx.AccountNucleusInfos.Where(an => an.Account.SimPlayers.First().Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } var localruns = Interlocked.Add(ref runs, 1); System.Console.WriteLine("Action: " + localruns); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); } static Random rnd = new Random(); static long runs = 0; } } When we replace the Linq query with a precompiled one, the problem seems to disappear.

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  • ASP.Net Checkbox value at postback is wrong?

    - by Duracell
    We have a checkbox that is initially disabled and checked. It is then enabled on the client side through javascript. If the user then unchecks the box and presses the button to invoke a postback, the state of the checkbox remains as checked on the server side. This is obviously undesirable behaviour. Here is an example. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="testcb.aspx.cs" Inherits="ESC.testcb" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> function buttonClick() { var cb = document.getElementById('<%= CheckBox1.ClientID %>'); cb.disabled = false; cb.parentNode.disabled = false; } </script> <div> <asp:CheckBox ID="CheckBox1" runat="server" Checked="true" Enabled="false" /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="buttonClick(); return false;" /> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button2" OnClick="button2Click" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> And the Server-side code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace ESC { public partial class testcb : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void button2Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string h = ""; } } } So we break at the "string h" line and check the value of CheckBox1.Checked. It is true, even if it is unchecked on the form.

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  • Visual Studio soft-crashing when encountering XAML Errors in initialize.

    - by Aren
    I've been having some serious issues with Visual Studio 2010 as of late. It's been crashing in a peculiar way when I encounter certain types of XAML errors during the InitializeComponent() of a control/window. The program breaks and visual studio gears up like it's catching an exception (because it is) and then stops midway displaying a broken highlight in my XAML file with no details as to what is wrong. Example: There is not pop outs, or details Anywhere about what is wrong, only a callstack that points to my InitializeComponent() call. Now normally I'd just do some trial and error to fix this problem, and find out where i messed up, but the real problem isn't my code. Visual Studio is rendered completely useless at this point. It reports my application still in "Running" mode. The Stop/Break/Restart buttons on the toolbar or in the menus don't do anything (but grey out). Closing the application does not stop this behaviour, closing visual studio gets it stuck in a massive loop where it yells at me complaining every file open is not in the debug project, then repeats this process when i have exausted every open file. I have to force-close devenv.exe, and after this happening 3-4 times in a row it's a lot of wasted time (as my projects are usually pretty big and studio can be quite slow @ loading). To the point Has anyone else experienced this? How can I stop studio from locking up. Can I at LEAST get information out of this beast another way so i can fix my XAML error sooner rather than after 3-4 trial-and-error compiles yielding the same crash? Any & All help would be appreciated. Visual Studio 2010 version: 10.0.30319.1RTM Edit & Update FWIW, mostly the errors that cause this are XamlParseExceptions (I figured this out after i found what was wrong with my XAML). I think I need to be clearer though, Im not looking for the solution to my code problem, as these are usually typos / small things, I'm looking for a solution to VStudio getting all buggered up as a result. The particular error in the above image that 100% for sure caused this was a XamlParseException caused by forgetting a Value attribute on a data trigger. I've fixed that part but it still doesn't tell my why my studio becomes a lump of neutered program when a perfectly normal exception is thrown in the parsing of the XAML. Code that will cause this issue (at least for me) This is the base template WPF Application, with the following Window.xaml code. The problem is a missing Value="True" on the <DataTrigger ...> in the template. It generates a XamlParseException and Visual Studio Crashes as described above when debugging it. Final Notes The following solutions did not help me: Restarting Visual Studio Rebooting Reinstalling Visual Studio

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  • Nservicebus serization issue of derived types

    - by Tiju John
    Hi Guys, for the context setting, I am exchanging messages between my nServiceBus client and nSerivceBus server. its is the namespace xyz.Messages and and a class, Message : IMessage I have more messages that are in the other dlls, like xyz.Messages.Domain1, xyz.Messages.Domain2, xyz.Messages.Domain3. and messages that derive form that base message, Message. I have the endpoints defined as like : at client <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="xyz.Messages" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain1" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain2" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> at Server <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="xyz.Messages" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain1" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain2" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> and the bus initialized as IBus serviceBus = Configure.With() .SpringBuilder() .XmlSerializer() .MsmqTransport() .UnicastBus() .LoadMessageHandlers() .CreateBus() .Start(); now when i try sending instance of Message type or any type derived types of Message, it successfully sends the message over and at the server, i get the proper type. eg. Message message= new Message(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers Message type message = new MessageDerived1(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers MessageDerived1 type message = new MessageDerived2(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers MessageDerived2 type My problem arises when any type, say MessageDerived1, contains a member variable of type Message, and when i assign it to a derived type, the type is not properly transferred over the wire. It transfers only as Message type, not the derived type. public class MessageDerived2 : Message { public Message message; } MessageDerived2 messageDerived2= new MessageDerived2(); messageDerived2.message = new MessageDerived1(); message = messageDerived2; Bus.Send(message); // incorrect behaviour, transfers MessageDerived2 correctly, but looses type of MessageDerived2.Message (it deserializes as Message type, instead of MessageDerived1) any help is strongly appreciated. Thanks TJ

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  • References between Spring beans when using a NameSpaceHandler

    - by teabot
    I'm trying to use a Spring context namespace to build some existing configuration objects in an application. I have defined a context and pretty much have if working satisfactorily - however, I'd like one bean defined by my namespace to implicitly reference another: Consider the class named 'Node': public Class Node { private String aField; private Node nextNode; public Node(String aField, Node nextNode) { ... } Now in my Spring context I have something like so: <myns:container> <myns:node aField="nodeOne"/> <myns:node aField="nodeTwo"/> </myns:container> Now I'd like nodeOne.getNode() == nodeTwo to be true. So that nodeOne.getNode() and nodeTwo refer to the same bean instance. These are pretty much the relevant parts I have in my AbstractBeanDefinitionParser: public AbstractBeanDefinition parseInternal(Element element, ParserContext parserContext) { ... BeanDefinitionBuilder containerFactory = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(ContainerFactoryBean.class); List<BeanDefinition> containerNodes = Lists.newArrayList(); String previousNodeBeanName; // iterate backwards over the 'node' elements for (int i = nodeElements.size() - 1; i >= 0; --i) { BeanDefinitionBuilder node = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(Node.class); node.setScope(BeanDefinition.SCOPE_SINGLETON); String nodeField = nodeElements.getAttribute("aField"); node.addConstructorArgValue(nodeField); if (previousNodeBeanName != null) { node.addConstructorArgValue(new RuntimeBeanReference(previousNodeBeanName)); } else { node.addConstructorArgValue(null); } BeanDefinition nodeDefinition = node.getBeanDefinition(); previousNodeBeanName = "inner-node-" + nodeField; parserContext.getRegistry().registerBeanDefinition(previousNodeBeanName, nodeDefinition); containerNodes.add(node); } containerFactory.addPropertyValue("nodes", containerNodes); } When the application context is created my Node instances are created and recognized as singletons. Furthermore, the nextNode property is populated with a Node instance with the previous nodes configuration - however, it isn't the same instance. If I output a log message in Node's constructor I see two instances created for each node bean definition. I can think of a few workarounds myself but I'm keen to use the existing model. So can anyone tell me how I can pass these runtime bean references so that I get the correct singleton behaviour for my Node instances?

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  • Python constructor does weird things with optional parameters

    - by christangrant
    Can you help me understand of the behaviour and implications of the python __init__ constructor. It seems like when there is an optional parameter and you try and set an existing object to a new object the optional value of the existing object is preserved and copied. Ok that was confusing... so look at an example I concocted below. In the code below I am trying to make a tree structure with nodes and possibly many children . In the first class NodeBad, the constructor has two parameters, the value and any possible children. The second class NodeGood only takes the value of the node as a parameter. Both have an addchild method to add a child to a node. When creating a tree with the NodeGood class, it works as expected. However, when doing the same thing with the NodeBad class, it seems as though a child can only be added once! The code below will result in the following output: Good Tree 1 2 3 [< 3 >] Bad Tree 1 2 2 [< 2 >, < 3 >] Que Pasa? Here is the Example: #!/usr/bin/python class NodeBad: def __init__(self, value, c=[]): self.value = value self.children = c def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value class NodeGood: def __init__(self, value): self.value = value self.children = [] def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value if __name__ == '__main__': print 'Good Tree' ng = NodeGood(1) # Root Node rootgood = ng ng.addchild(NodeGood(2)) # 1nd Child ng = ng.children[0] ng.addchild(NodeGood(3)) # 2nd Child print rootgood.value print rootgood.children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children print 'Bad Tree' nb = NodeBad(1) # Root Node rootbad = nb nb.addchild(NodeBad(2)) # 1st Child nb = nb.children[0] nb.addchild(NodeBad(3)) # 2nd Child print rootbad.value print rootbad.children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children

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  • gcc/g++: error when compiling large file

    - by Alexander
    Hi, I have a auto-generated C++ source file, around 40 MB in size. It largely consists of push_back commands for some vectors and string constants that shall be pushed. When I try to compile this file, g++ exits and says that it couldn't reserve enough virtual memory (around 3 GB). Googling this problem, I found that using the command line switches --param ggc-min-expand=0 --param ggc-min-heapsize=4096 may solve the problem. They, however, only seem to work when optimization is turned on. 1) Is this really the solution that I am looking for? 2) Or is there a faster, better (compiling takes ages with these options acitvated) way to do this? Best wishes, Alexander Update: Thanks for all the good ideas. I tried most of them. Using an array instead of several push_back() operations reduced memory usage, but as the file that I was trying to compile was so big, it still crashed, only later. In a way, this behaviour is really interesting, as there is not much to optimize in such a setting -- what does the GCC do behind the scenes that costs so much memory? (I compiled with deactivating all optimizations as well and got the same results) The solution that I switched to now is reading in the original data from a binary object file that I created from the original file using objcopy. This is what I originally did not want to do, because creating the data structures in a higher-level language (in this case Perl) was more convenient than having to do this in C++. However, getting this running under Win32 was more complicated than expected. objcopy seems to generate files in the ELF format, and it seems that some of the problems I had disappeared when I manually set the output format to pe-i386. The symbols in the object file are by standard named after the file name, e.g. converting the file inbuilt_training_data.bin would result in these two symbols: binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start and binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_end. I found some tutorials on the web which claim that these symbols should be declared as extern char _binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start;, but this does not seem to be right -- only extern char binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start; worked for me.

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  • Raphael Scope Drag n drop multiple paper instances

    - by donald
    I have two Raphael paper instances. In both I want to drag and drop an element (circle). It is important for me to assign both these circles the same id. I expected no problem, as both are in different paper instances and therefore in different scope. What happens is, that somehow both elements react, when I have clicked both elements at least once. If I however give these elements different IDs everything works fine (each element only calls its "start", "drag" and "up" function if draged around). Is this intended behaviour of Raphael and do I have to assign different IDs to the elements in the different paper instances? Hopefully not and you can point me to the right direction :-) Thanks a lot for your Help in advance, Here comes the code: <!doctype html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <title>DragNDrop</title> <script src="raphael-min.js"></script> </head> <body> <h1>Paper1</h1> <div id="divPaper1" style ="height: 150px; width: 300px; border:thin solid red"></div> <h1>Paper2</h1> <div id="divPaper2" style ="height: 150px; width: 300px; border:thin solid red"></div> <script> start1 = function () { console.log("start1"); } drag1 = function () { console.log("move1"); } up1 = function () { console.log("up1"); } start2 = function () { console.log("start2"); } drag2 = function () { console.log("move2"); } up2 = function () { console.log("up2"); } var paper1 = Raphael("divPaper1", "100%", "100%"); var circle1 = paper1.circle(40, 40, 30); circle1.attr("fill", "yellow"); circle1.id = "circle"; //both circles get the same id circle1.drag(drag1, start1, up1); paper2 = Raphael("divPaper2", "100%", "100%"); var circle2 = paper2.circle(40, 40, 30); circle2.attr("fill", "red"); circle2.id = "circle"; //both circles get the same id circle2.drag(drag2, start2, up2); </script> </body>

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  • Choosing a distributed shared memory solution

    - by mindas
    I have a task to build a prototype for a massively scalable distributed shared memory (DSM) app. The prototype would only serve as a proof-of-concept, but I want to spend my time most effectively by picking the components which would be used in the real solution later on. The aim of this solution is to take data input from an external source, churn it and make the result available for a number of frontends. Those "frontends" would just take the data from the cache and serve it without extra processing. The amount of frontend hits on this data can literally be millions per second. The data itself is very volatile; it can (and does) change quite rapidly. However the frontends should see "old" data until the newest has been processed and cached. The processing and writing is done by a single (redundant) node while other nodes only read the data. In other words: no read-through behaviour. I was looking into solutions like memcached however this particular one doesn't fulfil all our requirements which are listed below: The solution must at least have Java client API which is reasonably well maintained as the rest of app is written in Java and we are seasoned Java developers; The solution must be totally elastic: it should be possible to add new nodes without restarting other nodes in the cluster; The solution must be able to handle failover. Yes, I realize this means some overhead, but the overall served data size isn't big (1G max) so this shouldn't be a problem. By "failover" I mean seamless execution without hardcoding/changing server IP address(es) like in memcached clients when a node goes down; Ideally it should be possible to specify the degree of data overlapping (e.g. how many copies of the same data should be stored in the DSM cluster); There is no need to permanently store all the data but there might be a need of post-processing of some of the data (e.g. serialization to the DB). Price. Obviously we prefer free/open source but we're happy to pay a reasonable amount if a solution is worth it. In any way, paid 24hr/day support contract is a must. The whole thing has to be hosted in our data centers so SaaS offerings like Amazon SimpleDB are out of scope. We would only consider this if no other options would be available. Ideally the solution would be strictly consistent (as in CAP); however, eventual consistence can be considered as an option. Thanks in advance for any ideas.

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  • Java getInputStreat SocketTimeoutException instead of NoRouteToHostException

    - by Jon
    I have an odd issue happening when trying to open multiple Input Streams (in separate threads) on Linux (RHEL). The behaviour works as expected on windows. I am kicking off 3 threads to open https connections to 3 different servers. All three are invalid IP addresses (in this test case), so I expect an NoRouteToHostException for each of them. The first two return these as expected, and quite quickly. (see stack trace below) However the third (and 4th when I tested it that way) do NOT give a no route exception. They wait for ages, and then give a SocketTimeoutException (see other stack trace below). This takes ages to come back, and does not accurately express the connection issue. The offending line of code is: reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); Has anyone seen something like this before? Are there multi-threading issues with sockets on REHL or some limit somewhere to how many can connect at once...or...something? Expected stack trace, as received for first two: java.net.NoRouteToHostException: No route to host at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234) Unexpected stack trace, as received on 3rd: java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234)

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  • Issues loading Jquery (Galleria) script from inside an i-frame (beginner javascript?)

    - by 103188530284789248582
    Hello, first of all - I'm not entirely new to javascript, but am not fluent in it as I am with html and css, and am especially new to jQuery... so please excuse me if this questions seems easy or obvious, but after days of google I still have no solution to the problem... using jQuery 1.4.2.min, jQuery-ui-1.8.1 .... the site in question: http://homecapture.ca/sets/project_index.html The scenario: I have a tabbed menu generated from an unordered list, when a menu item is clicked it reveals an iframe which links to the page containing an image gallery. I am using jQuery UI tabs for the tabbed menu, and the galleries to which I'm linking are jQuery Galleria pages, automatically generated with Jalbum. The problem: The galleria plug-in only works normally from inside of the containing iframe in Chrome, has inconsistent behaviour in IE8 (seems to work in my local copy, but won't load properly online), and is not loaded properly in Firefox. Instead of displaying a thumbnail area and the first large image, the Galleria page shows the first thumbnail only, then when it is clicked the image it links to, but if you right-click and go Back, the iframe content shows up as a properly rendered Galleria page. Jalbum generates more script in the < head of the page in addition to linking to jquery and the galleria plug-in. All of it seems to be in charge of the gallery navigation , and I have relocated it to the < body of the page, in an effort to make it load after the parent page scripts, and together with the gallery content. At this point I am not sure what else I could do to solve the problem, without digging around in all or some of the library and pluging .js files (which I am not knowledgeable enough to do without some pointers). Has anyone dealt with a similar issue? I'm seeing some solutions for manipulating iframe content from a parent page with jQuery on here, is that what I should be researching instead? Thanks in advance for all the help! ps. I tried posting some code, but it seems I do not have enough 'reputation' for things to work right on here either :)

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  • Accessing Content Page elements

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I am facing a strange problem.. may be i am overlooking something and not able to find the silly issue. Need your help! I have a Master page and a Content Page: <form id="AccountForm" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MenuHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <hr /> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> And my content page has some form elements: <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> First Name: <asp:TextBox ID="fName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Middle Name: <asp:TextBox ID="mName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Family Name: <asp:TextBox ID="lName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Birthday: <asp:TextBox ID="birthday" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Mobile Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="mobile" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Alternate Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="phone" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> I also have the code for submit button in the content page where i try to retrieve the values from the form elements and persist it into DB. Here is the SubmitButton_Click code: protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { log.Info("From Submit button: " + customerObject.first_name + " " + customerObject.family_name); if (fName != null) log.Info("First Name is not null"); log.Info("First Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Middle Name:" + mName.Text); log.Info("Family Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Mobile:" + mobile.Text); log.Info("Phone: " + phone.Text); log.Info("Address:" + bAddressL1.Text + bAddressL2.Text); Strangly.. i don't get any data that is filled into my text fields? Their objects are not null as well!! why is this behaviour happening? I am not trying to access elements in master page or other.. all the fields are in the content page.. only thing is there is no form element in the content page and the form element is in master page! Thanks in advance for your suggestions and answers. Abdel Raoof Olakara

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  • Eclipse RCP and JFace: Problems with Images in Context menu and TreeViewer

    - by Juri
    I'm working on an Eclipse RCP application. Today I experienced some troubles when displaying images in the context menu. What I wanted to do is to add a column to my table containing images of stars for representing a user rating. On Windows, this causes some problems, since the star images are squeezed up on the left corner of the table cell instead of expanding on the whole cell, but I'll solve that somehow. In addition I have a context menu on the table, with an entry called "rate" where again the different stars from 1 to 5 (representing the rating level) are shown, such that the user can click on it for choosing different ratings. That works fine on Windows. Now I switched to Linux (Ubuntu) to see how it works out there, and strangely, the stars in the table cell are layed out perfectly, while the stars on the context menu don't even show up. On the context menu I'm using an action class where I'm setting the image descriptor for the star images: public class RateAction extends Action { private final int fRating; private IStructuredSelection fSelection; public RateAction(int rating, IStructuredSelection selection) { super("", AS_CHECK_BOX); fRating = rating; fSelection = selection; setImageDescriptor(createImageDescriptor()); } /** * Creates the correct ImageDescriptor depending on the given rating * @return */ private ImageDescriptor createImageDescriptor() { ImageDescriptor imgDescriptor = null; switch (fRating) { case 0: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_0; case 1: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_1; case 2: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_2; case 3: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_3; case 4: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_4; case 5: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_5; default: break; } return imgDescriptor; } /* * @see org.eclipse.jface.action.Action#getText() */ @Override public String getText() { //return no text, since the images of the stars will be displayed return ""; } ... } Does somebody know why this strange behaviour appears? Thanks a lot. (For some strange reason, the images don't appear. Here are the direct URLs: http://img187.imageshack.us/img187/4427/starsratingho4.png http://img514.imageshack.us/img514/8673/contextmenuproblemgt1.png) //Edit: I did some tries and it seems as if the images just don't appear when using a Checkbox style for the context menu (see constructor of the RateAction). When I switched to a PushButton style, the images appeared, although not correctly scaled, but at least they were shown.

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  • Inserting contact with android and querying the result uri returns no entries

    - by th0m4d
    Im developing an application which is dealing with the android contacts API. I implemented methods to insert, update and query contacts. So far everything worked (writing and reading contacts). At one point in my project Im experiencing a strange behaviour. I insert a contact using batch mode. I receive the URI to the RawContact. I do this in a background thread. // use batchmode for contact insertion ArrayList ops = new ArrayList(); int rawContactInsertIndex = ops.size(); // create rawContact ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(RawContacts.CONTENT_URI) .withValue(RawContacts.ACCOUNT_TYPE, ConstantsContract.ACCOUNT_TYPE) .withValue(RawContacts.ACCOUNT_NAME, accountName).build()); ops.add(createInsertOperation().withValueBackReference(Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, rawContactInsertIndex) .withValue(Data.MIMETYPE, StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(StructuredName.DISPLAY_NAME, displayName).withValue(StructuredName.GIVEN_NAME, firstName) .withValue(StructuredName.FAMILY_NAME, lastName).build()); //other data values... ContentProviderResult[] results = context.getContentResolver().applyBatch(ContactsContract.AUTHORITY, ops); if (results.length 0) { result = results[0]; } Then i request and store the lookup uri RawContacts.getContactLookupUri(this.getContentResolver(), myContantRawContactUri); I am able to query the contact using the rawContactUri directly after inserting it (in the same thread). The lookup uri returns null. Uri rawContactUri = appUser.getRawContactUri(ctx); if (rawContactUri == null) { return null; } String lastPathSegment = rawContactUri.getLastPathSegment(); long rawContactId = Long.decode(lastPathSegment); if (rawContactUri != null) { contact = readContactWithID(rawContactId, ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID); In a different place in the project I want to query the contact i inserted by the stored lookup uri or raw contact uri. Both return no rows from the content provider. I tried it in the main thread and in another background thread. ctx.getContentResolver().query(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI, null, ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID + " = ? AND " + ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE + " = ?", new String[] { contactID + "", ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE }, null); My first thought was that it could be related to the context.getContentResolver(). But the android documentation states, that the ContentResolver objects scope is the application's package, so you have on ContentResolver for the whole app. Am I right? What am I doing wrong? Why does the same rawContactUri return the contact at one place and does not on another place? And why do I get a lookup uri from a raw contact, which is not working at all?

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