Search Results

Search found 20569 results on 823 pages for 'pc settings'.

Page 107/823 | < Previous Page | 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114  | Next Page >

  • Is there a common way to access files, that works both on android and PC?

    - by m01
    Hi, I'm writing an application that will ship in two versions: Android and PC version. Is there a simple way to access files from the shared code? Using java.io is simple, but I don't know how to access android resources or assets using it. And I can't write methods that operate on FileInputStreams instead, because some files contain references to another ones, so I need a way to access them from the method code. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 on a 64-bit computer

    - by GetFree
    I read on Wikipedia that Windows 7 on a 64-bit PC needs twice as much RAM as on a 32-bit PC. I understand why is that: every number stored in memory takes 8 bytes rather than just 4. That, in simple terms, means that your amount of RAM is reduced to half when you use Windows 7 on a 64-bit computer. Now, I have a Intel Core 2 Duo Laptop with Windows Vista right now (2 GB of RAM). My question is: Since Core 2 is a 64-bit architecture, if I upgrade to Windows 7 will my laptop be working as if it had just 1 GB of RAM? Or... to say it in other words: Having a 64-bit PC with Windows 7 do you need twice as much RAM as you need on a 32-bit PC to have the same performance? If I am right, then I'd say it's a terrible business to have a 64-bit computer and Windows 7 on it (I hope I am mistaken, though). Follow-up: After some answers, I'm realizing it's not the same thing to have a 32-bit OS on a 64-bit PC than a 64-bit OS on a 64-bit PC. Apparently, the problem of Windows 7 requiring twice as much RAM on 64-bit architectures is when you have both the OS and PC supporting 64 bits. I'd like new answers to address this issue. Also, is it possible to have more that 4 GB of RAM on a 64-bit PC using a 32-bit version of Windows?

    Read the article

  • SSH Tunnel for Remote Desktop via Intermediary Server Part II

    - by Mihai Todor
    I asked previously how to configure 2 SSH tunnels using an intermediary server in order to run Remote Desktop through them and I managed to make it work. Now, I'm trying to do the same, using the same machines, but in reverse order. Here's the setup: Windows 7 PC in a private network, sitting behind a firewall. Public access Linux server, which has access to the PC. Windows 7 laptop, at home, on which I wish to do Remote Desktop from the PC. I use Putty on the laptop to create a reverse tunnel from it to the Linux server: R60666 localhost:3389. I use Putty on the PC to create a regular tunnel from it to the Linux server: L60666 localhost:60666. I SSH to the Linux sever and I run telnet localhost 60666 and it seems to produce the expected output, as described in the debugging tips that I received here. I try to connect Remote Desktop from the PC to the laptop: localhost:60666. It asks for my username and password, I click OK and it locks my current session on the laptop (so I see the welcome screen on the laptop instead of my desktop), it shows the "Welcome" message in the Remote Desktop screen and then it just goes black. It doesn't disconnect, it doesn't provide any error and I'm not able to perform any actions in the Remote Desktop screen. I tried the same setup with a Windows XP laptop and I'm experiencing the same symptoms. I also tried to use different ports than 60666, but nothing changed. Does anybody have any idea what I'm doing wrong? Update: As pointed out by @jwinders, I'm not able to run telnet PC 3389 from the Linux server directly. Since Windows Firewall has a rule to allow all connections on port 3389, I have no idea what is blocking it. Fortunately, I'm able to create a SSH tunnel from the Linux machine to the PC ssh 3389:localhost:3389 'domain\user'@PC.

    Read the article

  • How can I erase the traces of Folder Redirection from the Default Domain Policy

    - by bruor
    I've taken over from an IT outsourcer and have found a struggle now that we're starting a migration to windows 7. Someone decided that they would setup Folder redirection in the Default Domain Policy. I've since configured redirection in another policy at an OU level. No matter what I do, the windows 7 systems pick up the Default Domain Policy folder redirection settings only. I keep getting entries in the event log showing that the previously redirected folders "need to be redirected" with a status of 0x80000004. From what I can tell this just means that it's redirecting them locally. Is there a way I can wipe that section of the GPO clean so it's no longer there? I'm hesitant to try to reset the default domain policy to complete defaults. ***UPDATE 6-26 I found that the following condition occurred and was causing the grief here. I've already implemented the new policies for clients, and for some reason, XP was working great, 7 was refusing to process. The DDP was enforced. Because of this, and the fact that the folder redirection policies were set to redirect back to the local profile upon removal, it was forcing clients to pick up it's "redirect to local" settings. Requirements for to recreate the issue. -Create a new test OU and policy. -Create some folder redirection settings, set them to redirect to local upon removal -Remove settings on that GPO -Refresh your view of the GPO and check the settings. -You'll notice that the settings show "not configured" entries for folder redirection. -Enforce this GPO -Create another sub-OU -Create a GPO linked to this sub-ou and configure some folder redirection settings. -Watch as the enforced GPOs "not configured" setting overrides the policy you just defined. I've had to relink the DDP to all OU's that have "block inheritance" enabled, and disable the "enforced" option on the DDP as a workaround. I'd love to re-enable enforcement of the DDP, but until I can erase the traces of folder redirection settings from the DDP, I think I'm stuck.

    Read the article

  • Do all routers really must know all routes to every router?

    - by Philipili
    This is my complicated and long question. First let's talk about the context. Network topology: PC A --- RT A --- RT C --- RT B --- PC B (RT C has a WAN NIC connected to "the cloud") With this situation : PC A must send a packet to PC B Default routes direct packets to the cloud We haven't access to RT C's configuration RT C only knows how to join network A, not network B RT A knows about network B RT B knows about network A RT C's routing table: Destination NIC Gateway 0.0.0.0 WAN Cloud Network A LAN A RT A's WAN RT A's routing table: Destination NIC Gateway 0.0.0.0 WAN LAN A Network B WAN LAN A RT B's routing table: Destination NIC Gateway 0.0.0.0 WAN LAN B Network A WAN LAN B I would like to permit PC A and PC B to communicate, but I don't have access to RT C. Networks B and BC are new. Can PC A send a packet to RT B's WAN NIC (which is possible) and "ask RT B to direct the packet to PC B" ? I believe replacing RT B with a VPN server should do the trick, but I would like to know if it is possible to make it without establishing a new connection.

    Read the article

  • bind9 named.conf zones size limit

    - by mox601
    I am trying to set up a test environment on my local machine, and I am trying to start a DNS daemon that loads tha configuration from a named.conf.custom file. As long as the size of that file is like 3-4 zones, the bind9 daemon loads fine, but when i enter the config file i need (like 10000 lines long), bind can't startup and in the syslog i find this message: starting BIND 9.7.0-P1 -u bind Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: built with '--prefix=/usr' '--mandir=/usr/share/man' '--infodir=/usr/share/info' '--sysconfdir=/etc/bind' '--localstatedir=/var' '--enable-threads' '--enable-largefile' '--with-libtool' '--enable-shared' '--enable-static' '--with-openssl=/usr' '--with-gssapi=/usr' '--with-gnu-ld' '--with-dlz-postgres=no' '--with-dlz-mysql=no' '--with-dlz-bdb=yes' '--with-dlz-filesystem=yes' '--with-dlz-ldap=yes' '--with-dlz-stub=yes' '--with-geoip=/usr' '--enable-ipv6' 'CFLAGS=-fno-strict-aliasing -DDIG_SIGCHASE -O2' 'LDFLAGS=-Wl,-Bsymbolic-functions' 'CPPFLAGS=' Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: adjusted limit on open files from 1024 to 1048576 Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: found 1 CPU, using 1 worker thread Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: using up to 4096 sockets Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: loading configuration from '/etc/bind/named.conf' Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: /etc/bind/named.conf.saferinternet:1: unknown option 'zone' Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: loading configuration: failure Jun 14 17:06:06 cibionte-pc named[9785]: exiting (due to fatal error) Are there any limits on the file size bind9 is allowed to load?

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 on a 64-bit computer

    - by GetFree
    I read on Wikipedia that Windows 7 on a 64-bit PC needs twice as much RAM as on a 32-bit PC. I understand why is that: every number stored in memory takes 8 bytes rather than just 4. That, in simple terms, means that your amount of RAM is reduced to half when you use Windows 7 on a 64-bit computer. Now, I have a Intel Core 2 Duo Laptop with Windows Vista right now (2 GB of RAM). My question is: Since Core 2 is a 64-bit architecture, if I upgrade to Windows 7 will my laptop be working as if it had just 1 GB of RAM? Or... to say it in other words: Having a 64-bit PC with Windows 7 do you need twice as much RAM as you need on a 32-bit PC to have the same performance? If I am right, then I'd say it's a terrible business to have a 64-bit computer and Windows 7 on it (I hope I am mistaken, though). Follow-up: After some answers, I'm realizing it's not the same thing to have a 32-bit OS on a 64-bit PC than a 64-bit OS on a 64-bit PC. Apparently, the problem of Windows 7 requiring twice as much RAM on 64-bit architectures is when you have both the OS and PC supporting 64 bits. I'd like new answers to address this issue. Also, is it possible to have more that 4 GB of RAM on a 64-bit PC using a 32-bit version of Windows?

    Read the article

  • What could possibly cause my computer to power down at random times?

    - by geoffreydv
    I have recently bought a new Power Supply and a new graphics card. My PC ran smoothly for a few months now but since a couple of days I'm having a strange problem. I am trying to isolate the problem to a specific piece of hardware (because if it's either the Power Supply or the Graphics card they are still under warranty). The problem started when I was playing a game (diablo 3). My PC suddenly powered down. I was unable to turn it on again by pressing the power button. I unplugged the power cable for a few seconds and plugged it back in. This time the pc powered on but the indication light turned orange instead of white as it normally does. The fans were not spinning and I did not see anything on my screen. After trying a couple of times I gave up. Two days later I tried again and this time the PC did boot up as usual. Everything looked okay until I tested if the problem was resolved by starting Diablo again. After about two minutes it powered down again as it did the first time. If I don't run any games my PC does power down after about 3-5 hours. Another fact that might be relevant: One time the PC did not shut down immediatly, instead first my graphics "powered down" but the music I was playing kept on playing. After about 20 seconds the pc powered down completely as usual. What I also noticed is that when I boot instantly after a power down, the chance of another power down occuring is much higher. Does anyone have an idea what could be causing this kind of behaviour or has a certain tool to diagnose the specific hardware parts? Thanks Specs: Memory: 6GB Processor: Intel i5 OS: Windows 7 64 bit The PC is a Dell Studio XPS 8100 with a replaced PSU and Graphics card: PSU: Corsair CX500 (500 watt) Graphics card: AMD Radeon 6850

    Read the article

  • Jeditable Datepicker onblur problem

    - by Shobha Deepthi
    Hi, I am using inline editing using Jeditable and datepicker. I have a column in my table which displays Date as a hyperlink. When I click on this it shows me the datepicker. And when a particular date is selected its updated in the backend and the cell now is updated with the changed value. However, am having problem with onblur event while changing month or years. This event gets triggered when I click on "Prev" or "Next" buttons on the datepicker control. This causes an exception when the date is selected. This works fine as long as the date selected is in the current month. I tried all possible solutions listed here: stackoverflow.com/questions/2007205/jeditable-datepicker-causing-blur-when-changing-month If settimeout the control does not change back to a normal hyperlink on closing the datepicker or on a true onblur event. Here's my code, $.editable.addInputType('datepicker', { element : function(settings, original) { var input = $(''); if (settings.width != 'none') { input.width(settings.width); } if (settings.height != 'none') { input.height(settings.height); } input.attr('autocomplete','off'); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin : function(settings, original) { var form = this; settings.onblur = function(e) { t = setTimeout(function() { original.reset.apply(form, [settings, self]); }, 100); }; $(this).find('input').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'dd-M-y', closeAtTop: true, onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger('submit'); } }); }, submit : function(settings, original) { } }); $(function() { $('.edit_eta').editable('update_must_fix_eta.php', { id: 'bugid', name: 'eta', type: 'datepicker', event: 'click', select : true, width: '50px', onblur:'cancel', cssclass : 'editable', indicator : 'Updating ETA, please wait.', style : 'inherit', submitdata:{version:'4.2(4)',tag:'REL_4_2_4',qstr:1} }); }); I tried hacking jeditable.js as mentioned on this link: http://groups.google.com/group/jquery-dev/browse_thread/thread/265340ea692a2f47 Even this does not help. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • iPhone - openAL stops playing if I record with AVAudioRecorder

    - by Oscar Peli
    Hi there, this is an iPhone-related question: I use openAL to play some sound (I have to manage gain, pitch, etc.). I want to record what I'm playing and I use AVAudioRecorder but when I "prepareToRecord" openAL stops to play audio. What's the problem? Here is the record IBAction I use: - (IBAction) record: (id) sender { NSError *error; NSMutableDictionary *settings = [NSMutableDictionary dictionary]; [settings setValue: [NSNumber numberWithInt:kAudioFormatLinearPCM] forKey:AVFormatIDKey]; [settings setValue: [NSNumber numberWithFloat:8000.0] forKey:AVSampleRateKey]; [settings setValue: [NSNumber numberWithInt: 1] forKey:AVNumberOfChannelsKey]; [settings setValue: [NSNumber numberWithInt:16] forKey:AVLinearPCMBitDepthKey]; [settings setValue: [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO] forKey:AVLinearPCMIsBigEndianKey]; [settings setValue: [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO] forKey:AVLinearPCMIsFloatKey]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:FILEPATH]; self.recorder = [[AVAudioRecorder alloc] initWithURL:url settings:settings error:&error]; self.recorder.delegate = self; self.recorder.meteringEnabled = YES; [self.recorder prepareToRecord]; [self.recorder record]; } Thanks

    Read the article

  • "Public" nested classes or not

    - by Frederick
    Suppose I have a class 'Application'. In order to be initialised it takes certain settings in the constructor. Let's also assume that the number of settings is so many that it's compelling to place them in a class of their own. Compare the following two implementations of this scenario. Implementation 1: class Application { Application(ApplicationSettings settings) { //Do initialisation here } } class ApplicationSettings { //Settings related methods and properties here } Implementation 2: class Application { Application(Application.Settings settings) { //Do initialisation here } class Settings { //Settings related methods and properties here } } To me, the second approach is very much preferable. It is more readable because it strongly emphasises the relation between the two classes. When I write code to instantiate Application class anywhere, the second approach is going to look prettier. Now just imagine the Settings class itself in turn had some similarly "related" class and that class in turn did so too. Go only three such levels and the class naming gets out out of hand in the 'non-nested' case. If you nest, however, things still stay elegant. Despite the above, I've read people saying on StackOverflow that nested classes are justified only if they're not visible to the outside world; that is if they are used only for the internal implementation of the containing class. The commonly cited objection is bloating the size of containing class's source file, but partial classes is the perfect solution for that problem. My question is, why are we wary of the "publicly exposed" use of nested classes? Are there any other arguments against such use?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114  | Next Page >