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  • INSERT OR IGNORE in a trigger

    - by dan04
    I have a database (for tracking email statistics) that has grown to hundreds of megabytes, and I've been looking for ways to reduce it. It seems that the main reason for the large file size is that the same strings tend to be repeated in thousands of rows. To avoid this problem, I plan to create another table for a string pool, like so: CREATE TABLE AddressLookup ( ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, Address TEXT UNIQUE ); CREATE TABLE EmailInfo ( MessageID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, ToAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID), FromAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID) /* Additional columns omitted for brevity. */ ); And for convenience, a view to join these tables: CREATE VIEW EmailView AS SELECT MessageID, A1.Address AS ToAddr, A2.Address AS FromAddr FROM EmailInfo LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A1 ON (ToAddrRef = A1.ID) LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A2 ON (FromAddrRef = A2.ID); In order to be able to use this view as if it were a regular table, I've made some triggers: CREATE TRIGGER trg_id_EmailView INSTEAD OF DELETE ON EmailView BEGIN DELETE FROM EmailInfo WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_ii_EmailView INSTEAD OF INSERT ON EmailView BEGIN INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.ToAddr); INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.FromAddr); INSERT INTO EmailInfo SELECT NEW.MessageID, A1.ID, A2.ID FROM AddressLookup A1, AddressLookup A2 WHERE A1.Address = NEW.ToAddr AND A2.Address = NEW.FromAddr; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_iu_EmailView INSTEAD OF UPDATE ON EmailView BEGIN UPDATE EmailInfo SET MessageID = NEW.MessageID WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; REPLACE INTO EmailView SELECT NEW.MessageID, NEW.ToAddr, NEW.FromAddr; END; The problem After: INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (1, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (2, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); The updated rows contain: MessageID ToAddr FromAddr --------- ------ -------- 1 NULL [email protected] 2 [email protected] [email protected] There's a NULL that shouldn't be there. The corresponding cell in the EmailInfo table contains an orphaned ToAddrRef value. If you do the INSERTs one at a time, you'll see that Alice's ID in the AddressLookup table changes! It appears that this behavior is documented: An ON CONFLICT clause may be specified as part of an UPDATE or INSERT action within the body of the trigger. However if an ON CONFLICT clause is specified as part of the statement causing the trigger to fire, then conflict handling policy of the outer statement is used instead. So the "REPLACE" in the top-level "INSERT OR REPLACE" statement is overriding the critical "INSERT OR IGNORE" in the trigger program. Is there a way I can make it work the way that I wanted?

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  • How to break a Hibernate session?

    - by Péter Török
    In the Hibernate reference, it is stated several times that All exceptions thrown by Hibernate are fatal. This means you have to roll back the database transaction and close the current Session. You aren’t allowed to continue working with a Session that threw an exception. One of our legacy apps uses a single session to update/insert many records from files into a DB table. Each recourd update/insert is done in a separate transaction, which is then duly committed (or rolled back in case an error occurred). Then for the next record a new transaction is opened etc. But the same session is used throughout the whole process, even if a HibernateException was caught in the middle. We are using Oracle 9i btw with Hibernate 3.24.sp1 on JBoss 4.2. Reading the above in the book, I realized that this design may fail. So I refactored the app to use a separate session for each record update. In a unit test with a mock session factory, I could prove that it is now requesting a new session for each record update. So far, so good. However, we found no way to reproduce the session failure while testing the whole app (would this be a stress test btw, or ...?). We thought of shutting down the listener of the DB but we realized that the app is keeping a bunch of connections open to the DB, and the listener would not affect those connections. (This is a web app, activated once every night by a scheduler, but it can also be activated via the browser.) Then we tried to kill some of those connections in the DB while the app was processing updates - this resulted in some failed updates, but then the app happily continued. Apparently Hibernate is clever enough to reopen broken connections under the hood without breaking the whole session. So this might not be a critical issue, as our app seems to be robust enough even in its original form. However, the issue keeps bugging me. I would like to know: Under what circumstances does the Hibernate session really become unusable after a HibernateException was thrown? How to reproduce this in a test? (What's the proper term for such a test?)

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  • Jboss logging issue

    - by balaji
    I'm Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web

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  • Where is the method call in the EXE file?

    - by Victor Hurdugaci
    Introduction After watching this video from LIDNUG, about .NET code protection http://secureteam.net/lidnug_recording/Untitled.swf (especially from 46:30 to 57:30), I would to locate the call to a MessageBox.Show in an EXE I created. The only logic in my "TrialApp.exe" is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("This is trial app"); } } Compiled on the Release configuration: http://rapidshare.com/files/392503054/TrialApp.exe.html What I do to locate the call Run the application in WinDBG and break after the message box appears. Get the CLR stack with !clrstack: 0040e840 5e21350b [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e840] System.Windows.Forms.SafeNativeMethods.MessageBox(System.Runtime.InteropServices.HandleRef, System.String, System.String, Int32) 0040e894 5e21350b System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.ShowCore(System.Windows.Forms.IWin32Window, System.String, System.String, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxButtons, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxIcon, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxDefaultButton, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxOptions, Boolean) 0040e898 002701f0 [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e898] 0040e934 002701f0 TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Get the MethodDesc structure (using the address of Form1_Load) !ip2md 002701f0 MethodDesc: 001762f8 Method Name: TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Class: 00171678 MethodTable: 00176354 mdToken: 06000005 Module: 00172e9c IsJitted: yes CodeAddr: 002701d0 Transparency: Critical Source file: D:\temp\TrialApp\TrialApp\Form1.cs @ 22 Dump the IL of this method (by MethodDesc) !dumpil 001762f8 IL_0000: ldstr "This is trial app" IL_0005: call System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox::Show IL_000a: pop IL_000b: ret So, as the video mentioned, the call to to Show is 5 bytes from the beginning of the method implementation. Now I open CFFExplorer (just like in the video) and get the RVA of the Form1_Load method: 00002083. After this, I go to Address Converter (again in CFF Explorer) and navigate to offset 00002083. There we have: 32 72 01 00 00 70 28 16 00 00 0A 26 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 In the video is mentioned that the first 12 bytes are for the method header so I skip them 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 5 bytes from the beginning of the implementation should be the opcode for method call (28). Unfortunately, is not there. 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 Questions: What am I doing wrong? Why there is no method call at that position in the file? Or maybe the video is missing some information... Why the guy in that video replaces the call with 9 zeros?

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  • C++ Unlocking a std::mutex before calling std::unique_lock wait

    - by Sant Kadog
    I have a multithreaded application (using std::thread) with a manager (class Tree) that executes some piece of code on different subtrees (embedded struct SubTree) in parallel. The basic idea is that each instance of SubTree has a deque that store objects. If the deque is empty, the thread waits until a new element is inserted in the deque or the termination criteria is reached. One subtree can generate objects and push them in the deque of another subtree. For convenience, all my std::mutex, std::locks and std::variable_condition are stored in a struct called "locks". The class Tree creates some threads that run the following method (first attempt) : void Tree::launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::lock_guard<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem is that "deque_lock" is still locked while the thread is waiting. Hence no object can be added in the deque of the current thread by a concurrent one. So I turned the lock_guard into a unique_lock and managed the lock/unlock manually : void launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::unique_lock<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { deque_lock.unlock() ; // unlock the access to the deque to enable the other threads to add objects // DATA RACE : nothing must happen to the unprotected deque here !!!!!! // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem now, is that there is a data race, and I would like to make sure that the "wait" instruction is performed directly after the "deque_lock.unlock()" one. Would anyone know a way to create such a critical instruction sequence with the standard library ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Multiprogramming in Django, writing to the Database

    - by Marcus Whybrow
    Introduction I have the following code which checks to see if a similar model exists in the database, and if it does not it creates the new model: class BookProfile(): # ... def save(self, *args, **kwargs): uniqueConstraint = {'book_instance': self.book_instance, 'collection': self.collection} # Test for other objects with identical values profiles = BookProfile.objects.filter(Q(**uniqueConstraint) & ~Q(pk=self.pk)) # If none are found create the object, else fail. if len(profiles) == 0: super(BookProfile, self).save(*args, **kwargs) else: raise ValidationError('A Book Profile for that book instance in that collection already exists') I first build my constraints, then search for a model with those values which I am enforcing must be unique Q(**uniqueConstraint). In addition I ensure that if the save method is updating and not inserting, that we do not find this object when looking for other similar objects ~Q(pk=self.pk). I should mention that I ham implementing soft delete (with a modified objects manager which only shows non-deleted objects) which is why I must check for myself rather then relying on unique_together errors. Problem Right thats the introduction out of the way. My problem is that when multiple identical objects are saved in quick (or as near as simultaneous) succession, sometimes both get added even though the first being added should prevent the second. I have tested the code in the shell and it succeeds every time I run it. Thus my assumption is if say we have two objects being added Object A and Object B. Object A runs its check upon save() being called. Then the process saving Object B gets some time on the processor. Object B runs that same test, but Object A has not yet been added so Object B is added to the database. Then Object A regains control of the processor, and has allready run its test, even though identical Object B is in the database, it adds it regardless. My Thoughts The reason I fear multiprogramming could be involved is that each Object A and Object is being added through an API save view, so a request to the view is made for each save, thus not a single request with multiple sequential saves on objects. It might be the case that Apache is creating a process for each request, and thus causing the problems I think I am seeing. As you would expect, the problem only occurs sometimes, which is characteristic of multiprogramming or multiprocessing errors. If this is the case, is there a way to make the test and set parts of the save() method a critical section, so that a process switch cannot happen between the test and the set?

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  • Why SQL2008 debugger would NOT step into a certain child stored procedure

    - by John Galt
    I'm encountering differences in T-SQL with SQL2008 (vs. SQL2000) that are leading me to dead-ends. I've verified that the technique of sharing #TEMP tables between a caller which CREATES the #TEMP and the child sProc which references it remain valid in SQL2008 See recent SO question. My core problem remains a critical "child" stored procedure that works fine in SQL2000 but fails in SQL2008 (i.e. a FROM clause in the child sProc is coded as: SELECT * FROM #AREAS A) despite #AREAS being created by the calling parent. Rather than post snippets of the code now, here is another symptom that may help you suggest something. I fired up the new debugger in SQL Mgmt Studio: EXEC dbo.AMS1 @S1='06',@C1='037',@StartDate='01/01/2008',@EndDate='07/31/2008',@Type=1,@ACReq = 1,@Output = 0,@NumofLines = 30,@SourceTable = 'P',@LoanPurposeCatg='P' This is a very large sProc and the key snippet that is weird is the following: **create table #Areas ( State char(2) , County char(3) , ZipCode char(5) NULL , CityName varchar(28) NULL , PData varchar(3) NULL , RData varchar(3) NULL , SMSA_CD varchar(10) NULL , TypeCounty varchar(50) , StateAbbr char(2) ) EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 -- this child populates #Areas @SMSA = @SMSA , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @SourceTable = @SourceTable , @CustomID = @CustomID , @UserName = @UserName , @CityName = @CityName , @Debug=0 EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC -- this child cannot reference #Areas @StartDate = @StartDate , @EndDate = @EndDate , @SMSA_CD = @SMSA_CD , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @CityName = @CityName , @CustomID = @CustomID , @Debug=0 -- continuation of the parent sProc** I can step through the execution of the parent stored procedure. When I get to the first child sproc above, I can either STEP INTO dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 or STEP OVER its execution. When I arrive at the invocation of the 2nd child sProc - dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC - I try to STEP INTO it (because that is where the problem statement is) and STEP INTO is ignored (i.e. treated like STEP OVER instead; yet I KNOW I pressed F11 not F10). It WAS executed however, because when control is returned to the statement after the EXECUTE, I click Continue to finish execution and the results windows shows the errors in the dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC (i.e. the 2nd child) stored procedure. Is there a way to "pre-load" an sProc with the goal of setting a breakpoint on its entry so that I can pursue execution inside it? In summary, I wonder if the inability to step into a given child sproc might be related to the same inability of this particular child to reference a #temp created by its parent (caller).

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • XmlHttpRequest bug?

    - by valdo
    Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

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  • translating specifications into query predicates

    - by Jeroen
    I'm trying to find a nice and elegant way to query database content based on DDD "specifications". In domain driven design, a specification is used to check if some object, also known as the candidate, is compliant to a (domain specific) requirement. For example, the specification 'IsTaskDone' goes like: class IsTaskDone extends Specification<Task> { boolean isSatisfiedBy(Task candidate) { return candidate.isDone(); } } The above specification can be used for many purposes, e.g. it can be used to validate if a task has been completed, or to filter all completed tasks from a collection. However, I want to re-use this, nice, domain related specification to query on the database. Of course, the easiest solution would be to retrieve all entities of our desired type from the database, and filter that list in-memory by looping and removing non-matching entities. But clearly that would not be optimal for performance, especially when the entity count in our db increases. Proposal So my idea is to create a 'ConversionManager' that translates my specification into a persistence technique specific criteria, think of the JPA predicate class. The services looks as follows: public interface JpaSpecificationConversionManager { <T> Predicate getPredicateFor(Specification<T> specification, Root<T> root, CriteriaQuery<?> cq, CriteriaBuilder cb); JpaSpecificationConversionManager registerConverter(JpaSpecificationConverter<?, ?> converter); } By using our manager, the users can register their own conversion logic, isolating the domain related specification from persistence specific logic. To minimize the configuration of our manager, I want to use annotations on my converter classes, allowing the manager to automatically register those converters. JPA repository implementations could then use my manager, via dependency injection, to offer a find by specification method. Providing a find by specification should drastically reduce the number of methods on our repository interface. In theory, this all sounds decent, but I feel like I'm missing something critical. What do you guys think of my proposal, does it comply to the DDD way of thinking? Or is there already a framework that does something identical to what I just described?

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  • Jboss logging issue - pl check this

    - by balaji
    I’m Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web Please help..

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  • how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

    - by andora
    I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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  • Looking for Reachability (2.0) Use Case Validation

    - by user350243
    There is so much info out there on using Apple's Reachability example, and so much is conflicting. I'm trying to find out of I'm using it (Reachability 2.0) correctly below. My App use case is this: If an internet connection is available through any means (wifi, LAN, Edge, 3G, etc.) a UIButton ("See More") is visible on various views. If no connection, the button is not visible. The "See More" part is NOT critical in any way to the app, it's just an add-on feature. "See More" could be visible or not anytime during the application lifecycle as connection is established or lost. Here's how I did it - Is this correct and/or is there a better way? Any help is Greatly Appreciated! lq // AppDelegate.h #import "RootViewController.h" @class Reachability; @interface AppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; UINavigationController *navigationController; RootViewController *rootViewController; Reachability* hostReach; // NOT USED: Reachability* internetReach; // NOT USED: Reachability* wifiReach; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UINavigationController *navigationController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet RootViewController *rootViewController; @end // AppDelegate.m #import "AppDelegate.h" #import "Reachability.h" #define kHostName @"www.somewebsite.com" @implementation AppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize navigationController; @synthesize rootViewController; - (void) updateInterfaceWithReachability: (Reachability*) curReach { if(curReach == hostReach) { NetworkStatus netStatus = [curReach currentReachabilityStatus]; BOOL connectionRequired = [curReach connectionRequired]; // Set a Reachability BOOL value flag in rootViewController // to be referenced when opening various views if ((netStatus != ReachableViaWiFi) && (netStatus != ReachableViaWWAN)) { rootViewController.bConnection = (BOOL *)0; } else { rootViewController.bConnection = (BOOL *)1; } } } - (void) reachabilityChanged: (NSNotification* )note { Reachability* curReach = [note object]; NSParameterAssert([curReach isKindOfClass: [Reachability class]]); [self updateInterfaceWithReachability: curReach]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // NOTE: #DEFINE in Reachability.h: // #define kReachabilityChangedNotification @"kNetworkReachabilityChangedNotification" [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver: self selector: @selector(reachabilityChanged:) name: kReachabilityChangedNotification object: nil]; hostReach = [[Reachability reachabilityWithHostName: kHostName] retain]; [hostReach startNotifer]; [self updateInterfaceWithReachability: hostReach]; [window addSubview:[navigationController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void)dealloc { [navigationController release]; [rootViewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

    - by Justin L.
    I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

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  • Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

    - by MJB
    I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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  • Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner? (While still retaining continuity)

    - by Justin L.
    I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript? EDIT: I'm sorry I wasn't clear at the start, but I would like a solution that allows both the chord line and the lyric line to be "selectable" and continuous.

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  • What's the fastest lookup algorithm for a key, pair data structure (i.e, a map)?

    - by truncheon
    In the following example a std::map structure is filled with 26 values from A - Z (for key) and 0 – 26 for value. The time taken (on my system) to lookup the last entry (10000000 times) is roughly 250 ms for the vector, and 125 ms for the map. (I compiled using release mode, with O3 option turned on for g++ 4.4) But if for some odd reason I wanted better performance than the std::map, what data structures and functions would I need to consider using? I apologize if the answer seems obvious to you, but I haven't had much experience in the performance critical aspects of C++ programming. #include <ctime> #include <map> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct mystruct { char key; int value; mystruct(char k = 0, int v = 0) : key(k), value(v) { } }; int find(const std::vector<mystruct>& ref, char key) { for (std::vector<mystruct>::const_iterator i = ref.begin(); i != ref.end(); ++i) if (i->key == key) return i->value; return -1; } int main() { std::map<char, int> mymap; std::vector<mystruct> myvec; for (int i = 'a'; i < 'a' + 26; ++i) { mymap[i] = i - 'a'; myvec.push_back(mystruct(i, i - 'a')); } int pre = clock(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; ++i) { find(myvec, 'z'); } std::cout << "linear scan: milli " << clock() - pre << "\n"; pre = clock(); for (int i = 0; i < 10000000; ++i) { mymap['z']; } std::cout << "map scan: milli " << clock() - pre << "\n"; return 0; }

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  • Why Swift is 100 times slower than C in this image processing test?

    - by xiaobai
    Like many other developers I have been very excited at the new Swift language from Apple. Apple has boasted its speed is faster than Objective C and can be used to write operating system. And from what I learned so far, it's a very type-safe language and able to have precisely control over the exact data type (like integer length). So it does look like having good potential handling performance critical tasks, like image processing, right? That's what I thought before I carried out a quick test. The result really surprised me. Here is a much simplified image alpha blending code snippet in C: test.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> #include <string.h> uint8_t pixels[640*480]; uint8_t alpha[640*480]; uint8_t blended[640*480]; void blend(uint8_t* px, uint8_t* al, uint8_t* result, int size) { for(int i=0; i<size; i++) { result[i] = (uint8_t)(((uint16_t)px[i]) *al[i] /255); } } int main(void) { memset(pixels, 128, 640*480); memset(alpha, 128, 640*480); memset(blended, 255, 640*480); // Test 10 frames for(int i=0; i<10; i++) { blend(pixels, alpha, blended, 640*480); } return 0; } I compiled it on my Macbook Air 2011 with the following command: gcc -O3 test.c -o test The 10 frame processing time is about 0.01s. In other words, it takes the C code 1ms to process one frame: $ time ./test real 0m0.010s user 0m0.006s sys 0m0.003s Then I have a Swift version of the same code: test.swift: let pixels = UInt8[](count: 640*480, repeatedValue: 128) let alpha = UInt8[](count: 640*480, repeatedValue: 128) let blended = UInt8[](count: 640*480, repeatedValue: 255) func blend(px: UInt8[], al: UInt8[], result: UInt8[], size: Int) { for(var i=0; i<size; i++) { var b = (UInt16)(px[i]) * (UInt16)(al[i]) result[i] = (UInt8)(b/255) } } for i in 0..10 { blend(pixels, alpha, blended, 640*480) } The build command line is: xcrun swift -O3 test.swift -o test Here I use the same O3 level optimization flag to make the comparison hopefully fair. However, the resulting speed is 100 time slower: $ time ./test real 0m1.172s user 0m1.146s sys 0m0.006s In other words, it takes Swift ~120ms to processing one frame which takes C just 1 ms. I also verified the memory initialization time in both test code are very small compared to the blend processing function time. What happened?

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  • Can't start managed server in Oracle Weblogic 10.3.2

    - by Neuquino
    I installed Oracle SOA Suite 11g. I start the NodeManager successfully. I start the AdminServer successfully. When I go to start the soa serve (soa_server1) I get this output: NMProcess: <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <WARNING> <Exception while starting server 'soa_server1'> NMProcess: java.io.IOException: Server failed to start up. See server output log for more details. NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.ServerManager.start(ServerManager.java:331) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleStart(Handler.java:541) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleCommand(Handler.java:116) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.run(Handler.java:70) NMProcess: at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) NMProcess: NMProcess: Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler handleStart NMProcess: WARNING: Exception while starting server 'soa_server1' NMProcess: java.io.IOException: Server failed to start up. See server output log for more details. NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.ServerManager.start(ServerManager.java:331) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleStart(Handler.java:541) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleCommand(Handler.java:116) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.run(Handler.java:70) NMProcess: at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) Error Starting server soa_server1: weblogic.nodemanager.NMException: Exception while starting server 'soa_server1' In the log file I've got this: Enter username to boot WebLogic server:Enter password to boot WebLogic server: There are 1 nested errors: weblogic.management.ManagementException: Booting as admin server, but servername, soa_server1, does not match the admin server name, AdminServer at weblogic.management.provider.internal.RuntimeAccessService.start(RuntimeAccessService.java:67) at weblogic.t3.srvr.ServerServicesManager.startService(ServerServicesManager.java:461) at weblogic.t3.srvr.ServerServicesManager.startInStandbyState(ServerServicesManager.java:166) at weblogic.t3.srvr.T3Srvr.initializeStandby(T3Srvr.java:749) at weblogic.t3.srvr.T3Srvr.startup(T3Srvr.java:488) at weblogic.t3.srvr.T3Srvr.run(T3Srvr.java:446) at weblogic.Server.main(Server.java:67) > <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM ART> <Notice> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000365> <Server state changed to FAILED> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM ART> <Error> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000383> <A critical service failed. The server will shut itself down> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM ART> <Notice> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000365> <Server state changed to FORCE_SHUTTING_DOWN> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <FINEST> <NodeManager> <Waiting for the process to die: 31144> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <INFO> <NodeManager> <Server failed during startup so will not be restarted> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <FINEST> <NodeManager> <runMonitor returned, setting finished=true and notifying waiters> Do you have any clue of what is happening? If you need more info, just ask for it. thanks in advance

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  • Standard Oracle Fusion Middleware Installation fails on SOA ManagedServer start due to classpath pro

    - by Neuquino
    Hi, Trying to install Oracle Fusion Middleware 11gR2 on windows (same thing happens on Linux). I have followed the guidelines provided in the http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E12839_01/install.1111/e14318/toc.htm Installing the weblogic (11g) Oracle 11g databse installation Running the RCU utility to create schema Installed and copied relevant files for Java Bridge Configure the Fusion Middleware But i found that the SOA server is not getting up in the enterprise manager its showing as down. When i checked the logs iam getting the following error: oracle.jrf.wls.JRFStartup java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: oracle.jrf.wls.JRFStartup at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:247) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.invokeClass(ClassDeploymentManager.java:253) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.access$000(ClassDeploymentManager.java:54) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager$1.run(ClassDeploymentManager.java:205) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:18:48 PM CEST> <Critical> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000286> <Failed to invoke startup class "SOAStartupClass", java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: oracle.bpel.services.common.util.GenerateBPMCryptoKey java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: oracle.bpel.services.common.util.GenerateBPMCryptoKey at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:247) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.invokeClass(ClassDeploymentManager.java:253) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.access$000(ClassDeploymentManager.java:54) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager$1.run(ClassDeploymentManager.java:205) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:19:27 PM CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149205> <Failed to initialize the application 'SocketAdapter' due to error weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.socket.SocketConnectionFactory' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory.weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.socket.SocketConnectionFactory' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory at weblogic.connector.deploy.ConnectorModule.prepare(ConnectorModule.java:228) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.prepare(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:93) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$1.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:387) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.prepare(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:58) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:19:27 PM CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149205> <Failed to initialize the application 'MQSeriesAdapter' due to error weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.mq.ConnectionFactoryImpl' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory.weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.mq.ConnectionFactoryImpl' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory at weblogic.connector.deploy.ConnectorModule.prepare(ConnectorModule.java:228) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.prepare(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:93) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$1.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:387) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.prepare(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:58) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:19:27 PM CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149205> <Failed to initialize the application 'OracleAppsAdapter' due to error weblogic.application.ModuleException: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/exception/PCResourceException.weblogic.application.ModuleException: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/exception/PCResourceException at weblogic.connector.deploy.ConnectorModule.prepare(ConnectorModule.java:238) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.prepare(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:93) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$1.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:387) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.prepare(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:58) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/exception/PCResourceException at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredMethods0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredMethods(Class.java:2427) at java.lang.Class.privateGetPublicMethods(Class.java:2547) at java.lang.Class.getMethods(Class.java:1410) at weblogic.connector.external.impl.RAComplianceChecker.checkOverrides(RAComplianceChecker.java:972) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace Can any one please tell me if i have missed any steps? thanks and regards, Naveen

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  • Splitting a raidctl mirror safely

    - by milkfilk
    I have a Sun T5220 server with the onboard LSI card and two disks that were in a RAID 1 mirror. The data is not important right now but we had a failed disk and are trying to understand how to do this for real if we had to recover from a failure. The initial situation looked like this: # raidctl -l c1t0d0 Volume Size Stripe Status Cache RAID Sub Size Level Disk ---------------------------------------------------------------- c1t0d0 136.6G N/A DEGRADED OFF RAID1 0.1.0 136.6G GOOD N/A 136.6G FAILED Green light on the 0.0.0 disk. Find / lights up the 0.1.0 disk. So I know I have a bad drive and which one it is. Server still boots obviously. First, we tried putting a new disk in. This disk came from an unknown source. Format would not see it, cfgadm -al would not see it so raidctl -l would not see it. I figure it's bad. We tried another disk from another spare server: # raidctl -c c1t1d0 c1t0d0 (where t1 is my good disk - 0.1.0) Disk has occupied space. Also the different syntax options don't change anything: # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" -r 1 1 Disk has occupied space. # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" 1 Disk has occupied space. Ok. Maybe this is because the disk from the spare server had a RAID 1 on it already. Aha, I can see another volume in raidctl: # raidctl -l Controller: 1 Volume:c1t1d0 (this is my server's root mirror) Volume:c1t132d0 (this is the foreign root mirror) Disk: 0.0.0 Disk: 0.1.0 ... No problem. I don't care about the data, I'll just delete the foreign mirror. # raidctl -d c1t132d0 (warning about data deletion but it works) At this point, /usr/bin/ binaries freak out. By that I mean, ls -l /usr/bin/which shows 1.4k but cat /usr/bin/which gives me a newline. Great, I just blew away the binaries (ie: binaries in mem still work)? I bounce the box. It all comes back fine. WTF. Anyway, back to recreating my mirror. # raidctl -l Controller: 1 Volume:c1t1d0 (this is my server's root mirror) Disk: 0.0.0 Disk: 0.1.0 ... Man says that you can delete a mirror and it will split it. Ok, I'll delete the root mirror. # raidctl -d c1t0d0 Array in use. (this might not be the exact error) I googled this and found of course you can't do this (even with -f) while booted off the mirror. Ok. I boot cdrom -s and deleted the volume. Now I have one disk that has a type of "LSI-Logical-Volume" on c1t1d0 (where my data is) and a brand new "Hitachi 146GB" on c1t0d0 (what I'm trying to mirror to): (booted off the CD) # raidctl -c c1t1d0 c1t0d0 (man says it's source destination for mirroring) Illegal Array Layout. # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" -r 1 1 (alt syntax per man) Illegal Array Layout. # raidctl -C "0.1.0 0.0.0" 1 (assumes raid1, no help) Illegal Array Layout. Same size disks, same manufacturer but I did delete the volume instead of throwing in a blank disk and waiting for it to resync. Maybe this was a critical error. I tried selecting the type in format for my good disk to be a plain 146gb disk but it resets the partition table which I'm pretty sure would wipe the data (bad if this was production). Am I boned? Anyone have experience with breaking and resyncing a mirror? There's nothing on Google about "Illegal Array Layout" so here's my contrib to the search gods.

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  • Standard Oracle Fusion Middleware Installation fails on SOA ManagedServer start

    - by Neuquino
    Hi, Trying to install Oracle Fusion Middleware 11gR2 on windows (same thing happens on Linux). I have followed the guidelines provided in the http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E12839_01/install.1111/e14318/toc.htm Installing the weblogic (11g) Oracle 11g databse installation Running the RCU utility to create schema Installed and copied relevant files for Java Bridge Configure the Fusion Middleware But i found that the SOA server is not getting up in the enterprise manager its showing as down. When i checked the logs iam getting the following error: oracle.jrf.wls.JRFStartup java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: oracle.jrf.wls.JRFStartup at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:247) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.invokeClass(ClassDeploymentManager.java:253) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.access$000(ClassDeploymentManager.java:54) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager$1.run(ClassDeploymentManager.java:205) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:18:48 PM CEST> <Critical> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000286> <Failed to invoke startup class "SOAStartupClass", java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: oracle.bpel.services.common.util.GenerateBPMCryptoKey java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: oracle.bpel.services.common.util.GenerateBPMCryptoKey at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:247) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.invokeClass(ClassDeploymentManager.java:253) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager.access$000(ClassDeploymentManager.java:54) at weblogic.management.deploy.classdeployment.ClassDeploymentManager$1.run(ClassDeploymentManager.java:205) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:19:27 PM CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149205> <Failed to initialize the application 'SocketAdapter' due to error weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.socket.SocketConnectionFactory' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory.weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.socket.SocketConnectionFactory' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory at weblogic.connector.deploy.ConnectorModule.prepare(ConnectorModule.java:228) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.prepare(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:93) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$1.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:387) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.prepare(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:58) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:19:27 PM CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149205> <Failed to initialize the application 'MQSeriesAdapter' due to error weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.mq.ConnectionFactoryImpl' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory.weblogic.application.ModuleException: The ra.xml <connectionfactory-impl-class> class 'oracle.tip.adapter.mq.ConnectionFactoryImpl' could not be loaded from the resource adapter archive/application because of the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/OracleConnectionFactory at weblogic.connector.deploy.ConnectorModule.prepare(ConnectorModule.java:228) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.prepare(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:93) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$1.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:387) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.prepare(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:58) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace <Jul 7, 2009 4:19:27 PM CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149205> <Failed to initialize the application 'OracleAppsAdapter' due to error weblogic.application.ModuleException: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/exception/PCResourceException.weblogic.application.ModuleException: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/exception/PCResourceException at weblogic.connector.deploy.ConnectorModule.prepare(ConnectorModule.java:238) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.prepare(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:93) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$1.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:387) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.prepare(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:58) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: oracle/tip/adapter/api/exception/PCResourceException at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredMethods0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredMethods(Class.java:2427) at java.lang.Class.privateGetPublicMethods(Class.java:2547) at java.lang.Class.getMethods(Class.java:1410) at weblogic.connector.external.impl.RAComplianceChecker.checkOverrides(RAComplianceChecker.java:972) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace Can any one please tell me if i have missed any steps? thanks and regards, Naveen

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  • nginx: How can I set proxy_* directives only for matching URIs?

    - by Artem Russakovskii
    I've been at this for hours and I can't figure out a clean solution. Basically, I have an nginx proxy setup, which works really well, but I'd like to handle a few urls more manually. Specifically, there are 2-3 locations for which I'd like to set proxy_ignore_headers to Set-Cookie to force nginx to cache them (nginx doesn't cache responses with Set-Cookie as per http://wiki.nginx.org/HttpProxyModule#proxy_ignore_headers). So for these locations, all I'd like to do is set proxy_ignore_headers Set-Cookie; I've tried everything I could think of outside of setting up and duplicating every config value, but nothing works. I tried: Nesting location directives, hoping the inner location which matches on my files would just set this value and inherit the rest, but that wasn't the case - it seemed to ignore anything set in the outer location, most notably proxy_pass and I end up with a 404). Specifying the proxy_cache_valid directive in an if block that matches on $request_uri, but nginx complains that it's not allowed ("proxy_cache_valid" directive is not allowed here). Specifying a variable equal to "Set-Cookie" in an if block, and then trying to set proxy_cache_valid to that variable later, but nginx isn't allowing variables for this case and throws up. It should be so simple - modifying/appending a single directive for some requests, and yet I haven't been able to make nginx do that. What am I missing here? Is there at least a way to wrap common directives in a reusable block and have multiple location blocks refer to it, after adding their own unique bits? Thank you. Just for reference, the main location / block is included below, together with my failed proxy_ignore_headers directive for a specific URI. location / { # Setup var defaults set $no_cache ""; # If non GET/HEAD, don't cache & mark user as uncacheable for 1 second via cookie if ($request_method !~ ^(GET|HEAD)$) { set $no_cache "1"; } if ($http_user_agent ~* '(iphone|ipod|ipad|aspen|incognito|webmate|android|dream|cupcake|froyo|blackberry|webos|s8000|bada)') { set $mobile_request '1'; set $no_cache "1"; } # feed crawlers, don't want these to get stuck with a cached version, especially if it caches a 302 back to themselves (infinite loop) if ($http_user_agent ~* '(FeedBurner|FeedValidator|MediafedMetrics)') { set $no_cache "1"; } # Drop no cache cookie if need be # (for some reason, add_header fails if included in prior if-block) if ($no_cache = "1") { add_header Set-Cookie "_mcnc=1; Max-Age=17; Path=/"; add_header X-Microcachable "0"; } # Bypass cache if no-cache cookie is set, these are absolutely critical for Wordpress installations that don't use JS comments if ($http_cookie ~* "(_mcnc|comment_author_|wordpress_(?!test_cookie)|wp-postpass_)") { set $no_cache "1"; } if ($request_uri ~* wpsf-(img|js)\.php) { proxy_ignore_headers Set-Cookie; } # Bypass cache if flag is set proxy_no_cache $no_cache; proxy_cache_bypass $no_cache; # under no circumstances should there ever be a retry of a POST request, or any other request for that matter proxy_next_upstream off; proxy_read_timeout 86400s; # Point nginx to the real app/web server proxy_pass http://localhost; # Set cache zone proxy_cache microcache; # Set cache key to include identifying components proxy_cache_key $scheme$host$request_method$request_uri$mobile_request; # Only cache valid HTTP 200 responses for this long proxy_cache_valid 200 15s; #proxy_cache_min_uses 3; # Serve from cache if currently refreshing proxy_cache_use_stale updating timeout; # Send appropriate headers through proxy_set_header Host $host; # no need for this proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; # no need for this proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-For $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; # Set files larger than 1M to stream rather than cache proxy_max_temp_file_size 1M; access_log /var/log/nginx/androidpolice-microcache.log custom; }

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  • Custom fail2ban Filter

    - by Michael Robinson
    In my quest to block excessive failed phpMyAdmin login attempts with fail2ban, I've created a script that logs said failed attempts to a file: /var/log/phpmyadmin_auth.log Custom log The format of the /var/log/phpmyadmin_auth.log file is: phpMyadmin login failed with username: root; ip: 192.168.1.50; url: http://somedomain.com/phpmyadmin/index.php phpMyadmin login failed with username: ; ip: 192.168.1.50; url: http://192.168.1.48/phpmyadmin/index.php Custom filter [Definition] # Count all bans in the logfile failregex = phpMyadmin login failed with username: .*; ip: <HOST>; phpMyAdmin jail [phpmyadmin] enabled = true port = http,https filter = phpmyadmin action = sendmail-whois[name=HTTP] logpath = /var/log/phpmyadmin_auth.log maxretry = 6 The fail2ban log contains: 2012-10-04 10:52:22,756 fail2ban.server : INFO Stopping all jails 2012-10-04 10:52:23,091 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'ssh-iptables' stopped 2012-10-04 10:52:23,866 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'fail2ban' stopped 2012-10-04 10:52:23,994 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'ssh' stopped 2012-10-04 10:52:23,994 fail2ban.server : INFO Exiting Fail2ban 2012-10-04 10:52:24,253 fail2ban.server : INFO Changed logging target to /var/log/fail2ban.log for Fail2ban v0.8.6 2012-10-04 10:52:24,253 fail2ban.jail : INFO Creating new jail 'ssh' 2012-10-04 10:52:24,253 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'ssh' uses poller 2012-10-04 10:52:24,260 fail2ban.filter : INFO Added logfile = /var/log/auth.log 2012-10-04 10:52:24,260 fail2ban.filter : INFO Set maxRetry = 6 2012-10-04 10:52:24,261 fail2ban.filter : INFO Set findtime = 600 2012-10-04 10:52:24,261 fail2ban.actions: INFO Set banTime = 600 2012-10-04 10:52:24,279 fail2ban.jail : INFO Creating new jail 'ssh-iptables' 2012-10-04 10:52:24,279 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'ssh-iptables' uses poller 2012-10-04 10:52:24,279 fail2ban.filter : INFO Added logfile = /var/log/auth.log 2012-10-04 10:52:24,280 fail2ban.filter : INFO Set maxRetry = 5 2012-10-04 10:52:24,280 fail2ban.filter : INFO Set findtime = 600 2012-10-04 10:52:24,280 fail2ban.actions: INFO Set banTime = 600 2012-10-04 10:52:24,287 fail2ban.jail : INFO Creating new jail 'fail2ban' 2012-10-04 10:52:24,287 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'fail2ban' uses poller 2012-10-04 10:52:24,287 fail2ban.filter : INFO Added logfile = /var/log/fail2ban.log 2012-10-04 10:52:24,287 fail2ban.filter : INFO Set maxRetry = 3 2012-10-04 10:52:24,288 fail2ban.filter : INFO Set findtime = 604800 2012-10-04 10:52:24,288 fail2ban.actions: INFO Set banTime = 604800 2012-10-04 10:52:24,292 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'ssh' started 2012-10-04 10:52:24,293 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'ssh-iptables' started 2012-10-04 10:52:24,297 fail2ban.jail : INFO Jail 'fail2ban' started When I issue: sudo service fail2ban restart fail2ban emails me to say ssh has restarted, but I receive no such email about my phpmyadmin jail. Repeated failed logins to phpMyAdmin does not cause an email to be sent. Have I missed some critical setup? Is my filter's regular expression wrong? Update: added changes from default installation Starting with a clean fail2ban installation: cp /etc/fail2ban/jail.conf /etc/fail2ban/jail.local Change email address to my own, action to: action = %(action_mwl)s Append the following to jail.local [phpmyadmin] enabled = true port = http,https filter = phpmyadmin action = sendmail-whois[name=HTTP] logpath = /var/log/phpmyadmin_auth.log maxretry = 4 Add the following to /etc/fail2ban/filter.d/phpmyadmin.conf # phpmyadmin configuration file # # Author: Michael Robinson # [Definition] # Option: failregex # Notes.: regex to match the password failures messages in the logfile. The # host must be matched by a group named "host". The tag "<HOST>" can # be used for standard IP/hostname matching and is only an alias for # (?:::f{4,6}:)?(?P<host>\S+) # Values: TEXT # # Count all bans in the logfile failregex = phpMyadmin login failed with username: .*; ip: <HOST>; # Option: ignoreregex # Notes.: regex to ignore. If this regex matches, the line is ignored. # Values: TEXT # # Ignore our own bans, to keep our counts exact. # In your config, name your jail 'fail2ban', or change this line! ignoreregex = Restart fail2ban sudo service fail2ban restart PS: I like eggs

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