Search Results

Search found 3534 results on 142 pages for 'sets'.

Page 108/142 | < Previous Page | 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115  | Next Page >

  • emacs: How to intelligently handle buffer-modified when setting text properties?

    - by Cheeso
    The documentation on Text Properties says: Since text properties are considered part of the contents of the buffer (or string), and can affect how a buffer looks on the screen, any change in buffer text properties marks the buffer as modified. First, I don't understand that policy. Can anyone explain? The text props are not actually saved in the file, when the buffer is saved. So why mark the buffer as modified? For me, buffer-modified indicates "some changes have not yet been saved." but understanding the policy is just for my own amusement. More importantly, is there an already-established way that, in code, I can change syntax text properties on the text in a buffer, while keeping the buffer-modified flag set to whatever it was, prior to those changes? I'm thinking of something like save-excursion. It would be pretty easy to write, but this seems like a common case and I'd like to use the standard function, if possible. For more on the scenario - I have a mode that does a full text scan and sets syntax-tabe properties on the text. After opening a buffer, the scan runs, but it results in a buffer with buffer-modified set to t . As always, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Designing a chain of states

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to model a kind of FSM(Finite State Machine). I have a sequence of states (let's say, from StateA to StateZ). This sequence is called a Chain and is implemented internally as a List. I will add states by the order I want them to run. My purpose is to be able to make a sequence of actions in my computer (for example, mouse clicks). (I know this has been done a zillion times). So a state is defined as a: boolean Precondition() <- Checks to see if for this state, some condition is true. For example, if I want to click in the Record button of a program, in this method I would check if the program's process is running or not. If it is, go to the next state in the chain list, otherwise, go to what was defined as the fail state (generally is the first state of them all). IState GetNextState() <- Returns the next state to evaluate. If Precondition() was sucessful, it should yield the next state in the chain otherwise it should yield the fail state. Run() Simply checks the Precondition() and sets the internal data so GetNextState() works as expected. So, a naive approach to this would be something like this: Chain chain = new Chain(); //chain.AddState(new State(Precondition, FailState, NextState) <- Method structure chain.AddState(new State(new WinampIsOpenCondition(), null, new <problem here, I want to referr to a state that still wasn't defined!>); The big problem is that I want to make a reference to a State that at this point still wasn't defined. I could circumvent the problem by using strings when refrering to states and using an internal hashtable, but isn't there a clearer alternative? I could just pass only the pre-condition and failure states in the constructor, having the chain just before execution put in each state the correct next state in a public property but that seems kind of awkward.

    Read the article

  • Deleting elements from stl set while iterating through it does not invalidate the iterators.

    - by pedromanoel
    I need to go through a set and remove elements that meet a predefined criteria. This is the test code I wrote: #include <set> #include <algorithm> void printElement(int value) { std::cout << value << " "; } int main() { int initNum[] = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }; std::set<int> numbers(initNum, initNum + 10); // print '0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9' std::for_each(numbers.begin(), numbers.end(), printElement); std::set<int>::iterator it = numbers.begin(); // iterate through the set and erase all even numbers for (; it != numbers.end(); ++it) { int n = *it; if (n % 2 == 0) { // wouldn't invalidate the iterator? numbers.erase(it); } } // print '1 3 5 7 9' std::for_each(numbers.begin(), numbers.end(), printElement); return 0; } At first, I thought that erasing an element from the set while iterating through it would invalidate the iterator, and the increment at the for loop would have undefined behavior. Even though, I executed this test code and all went well, and I can't explain why. My question: Is this the defined behavior for std sets or is this implementation specific? I am using gcc 4.3.3 on ubuntu 10.04 (32-bit version), by the way. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to handle window closed in the middle of a long running operation gracefully?

    - by Marek
    We have the following method called directly from the UI thread: void DoLengthyProcessing() { DoStuff(); var items = DoMoreStuff(); //do even more stuff - 200 lines of code trimmed this.someControl.PrepareForBigThing(); //someControl is a big user control //additional 100 lines of code that access this.someControl this.someControl.Finish(items); } Many of the called methods call Application.DoEvents() (and they do so many times) (do not ask me why, this is black magic written by black magic programmers and it can not be changed because everyone is scared what the impact would be) and there is also an operation running on a background thread involved in the processing. As a result, the window is not fully nonresponsive and can be closed manually during the processing. The Dispose method of the form "releases" the someControl variable by setting it to null. As a result, in case the user closes the window during the lengthy process, a null reference exception is thrown. How to handle this gracefully without just catching and logging the exception caused by disposal? Assigning the someControl instance to a temporary variable in the beginning of the method - but the control contains many subcontrols with similar disposal scheme - sets them to null and this causes null reference exceptions in other place put if (this.IsDisposed) return; calls before every access of the someControl variable. - making the already nasty long method even longer and unreadable. in Closing event, just indicate that we should close and only hide the window. Dispose it at the end of the lengthy operation. This is not very viable because there are many other methods involved (think 20K LOC for a single control) that would need to handle this mechanism as well. How to most effectively handle window disposal (by user action) in the middle of this kind of processing?

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET Data Services Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.

    - by idahosaedokpayi
    I am experimenting with ADO.NET and I am seeing this error on the second attempt to browse the service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> <error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata"> <code /> <message xml:lang="en-US">Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.</message> </error> The first attempt is normal. I am working with an exactly identical service on an internal development network and it is fine. I am including my connection string: <add name="J4Entities" connectionString="metadata=res://*;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MNSTSQL01N;Initial Catalog=J4;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient"/> and my Data service class: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; public class Data : DataService< J4Model.J4Entities > { // This method is called only once to initialize service-wide policies. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { // TODO: set rules to indicate which entity sets and service operations are visible, updatable, etc. // Examples: config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); // config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("MyServiceOperation", ServiceOperationRights.All); } } Is there something obvious I am not doing?

    Read the article

  • what exactly is this.id ?

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I was doing some dynamic effect on DIV using JQuery when I found that the returned value of this.id varied from function to function. I got two sets of simple parent-child DIV tags like this: <DIV ID="row"> <DIV ID="c1"> <Input type="radio" name="testing" id="testing" VALUE="1">testing1 </DIV> </DIV> <DIV ID="row"> <DIV ID="c2"> <Input type="radio" name="testing" id="testing" VALUE="2">testing2 </DIV> </DIV> Code 1. $('#row DIV').mouseover(function(){ radio_btns.each(function() { $('#row DIV).addClass('testing'); // worked }); }); Code 2. $('#row DIV').mouseover(function(){ var childDivID = this.id; radio_btns.each(function() { $('#'+childDivID).parent('DIV').addClass('testing'); // didn't work }); }); I don't understand why only the first code couldn work and highlighted all the "row" DIV, but the first code failed to do so?

    Read the article

  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter site in subdirectory, htaccess file maybe interfering with htaccess file in main directory?

    - by patricksayshi
    In my CodeIgniter site, navigating to any page but the index gives me this error: No input file specified. Googling around, it seems like the cause must have something to do with my .htaccess situation. The way this is set up, and maybe this can eventually change, is that my CI site is in a subdirectory of the main domain. The CI site and main domain each have their own .htaccess files. The CI htacess file is located in the applications folder: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /SubDomain/index.php?$1 [L] </IfModule> And here's the main htaccess file is two levels up from the CI one, reading thusly: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{SERVER_PORT} 80 rewriterule ^(.*)$ https://www.MainDomain.org/$1 [r=301,nc] I am afraid these two sets of re-write rules are conflicting with each other and I really have no idea what to do about it. I can alter either htaccess file and would really like to get them working together in peace and harmony. It's also possible, however, that this has nothing whatsoever to do with htaccess. Also, it's hosted on GoDaddy.

    Read the article

  • How to Avoid Server Error 414 for Very Long QueryString Values

    - by Registered User
    I had a project that required posting a 2.5 million character QueryString to a web page. The server itself only parsed URI's that were 5,400 characters or less. After trying several different sets of code for WebRequest/WebResponse, WebClient, and Sockets, I finally found the following code that solved my problem: HttpWebRequest webReq; HttpWebResponse webResp = null; string Response = ""; Stream reqStream = null; webReq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strURL); Byte[] bytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("xml_doc=" + HttpUtility.UrlEncode(strQueryString)); webReq.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; webReq.Method = "POST"; webReq.ContentLength = bytes.Length; reqStream = webReq.GetRequestStream(); reqStream.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); reqStream.Close(); webResp = (HttpWebResponse)webReq.GetResponse(); if (webResp.StatusCode == HttpStatusCode.OK) { StreamReader loResponseStream = new StreamReader(webResp.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8); Response = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd(); } webResp.Close(); reqStream = null; webResp = null; webReq = null;

    Read the article

  • Adding date to multiple fields via datepicker

    - by Andy
    i have a form in drupal with jquery based date module. there are multiple fields with date picker enabled. i want to set the value of all of them (they all have class .date-popup-init) to the value of the first field (#edit-field, the 'from' date) when that field is set. my code so far: <script type="text/javascript"> var DatePicked = function() { var firstdate = $("#edit-field"); var updater = firstdate.datepicker("getDate"); $(".date-popup-init").each(function(){ $(this).datepicker("setDate", updater); }); } $(function() { $("#edit-field").datepicker({ onSelect: DatePicked }); }); </script> this seems to randomly work; it sets the date of some fields to the value of #edit-field, seemingly different fields each time. also, the form adds more datepicker-enabled fields via ajax. is there any way to ensure that all these new fields, when they load, pick up the value of #edit-field as well? disclaimer: last night was my first attempt at javascript of any kind. i have a basic idea now. the above was cobbled through countless google examples.

    Read the article

  • When is 'focus' called in 'autocomplete'

    - by user470184
    The 'focus' documentation from http://jqueryui.com/demos/autocomplete/ states : focusType:autocompletefocus Before focus is moved to an item (not selecting), ui.item refers to the focused item. The default action of focus is to replace the text field's value with the value of the focused item, though only if the focus event was triggered by a keyboard interaction. Canceling this event prevents the value from being updated, but does not prevent the menu item from being focused. Code examples Supply a callback function to handle the focus event as an init option. $( ".selector" ).autocomplete({ focus: function(event, ui) { ... } }); Bind to the focus event by type: autocompletefocus. $( ".selector" ).bind( "autocompletefocus", function(event, ui) { ... }); Using below code sets an attribute called 'mytag' with value 'tester' on all of the autocomplete elements even though I have not selected the elements. Why is the attribute 'focus' not added just when one of the drop downs is focused, instead of being added when page is loaded ? $("#myDiv").autocomplete({ source: availableTags, focus: function(event, ui) { $(".ui-autocomplete li").attr("mytag", "tester"); } });

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to achieve MAX(As,Ad) openGL blending?

    - by Jeff B
    I am working on a game where I want to create shadows under a series of sprites on a grid. The shadows are larger than the sprites themselves and the sprites are animated (i.e. move and rotate). I cannot simply render them into the sprite png, or the shadows will overlap adjacent sprites. I also cannot simply put shadows on a lower layer by themselves, because when they overlap, they will create dark bands at their intersection. These sprites are animated, so it is not feasible to render these en masse. Basically, I want the sprites' shadows to blend together such that they max out at a set opacity. Example: I believe this is equivalent to an openGL blending of (Rs,Gs,Bs,Max(As,Ds)), where I don't really care about R,G, and B, as it will always be the same color in src and dst. However, this is not a valid openGL blending mode. Is there an easy way to accomplish this, especially in cocos2d-iphone? I would be able to approximate this by making the shadow sprites opaque, then applying them both to a parent sprite, and making the parent sprite 40% opacity. However, the way cocos2d works, this only sets the opacity of each child to 40%, rather than the combined sprite image, which results in the same stripe.

    Read the article

  • pthread_join from a signal handler

    - by liv2hak
    I have a capture program which in addition do capturing data and writing it into a file also prints some statistics.The function that prints the statistics static void* report(void) { /*Print statistics*/ } is called roughly every second using an ALARM that expires every second.So The program is like void capture_program() { pthread_t report_thread while(!exit_now) { if(pthread_create(&report_thread,NULL,report,NULL)){ fprintf(stderr,"Error creating reporting thread! \n"); } /* Capturing code -------------- -------------- */ if(doreport) usleep(5); } } void *report(void *param) { while(true) { if(doreport) { doreport = 0 //access some register from hardware usleep(5) } } } The expiry of the timer sets the doreport flag.If this flag is set report() is called which clears the flag.I am using usleep to alternate between two threads in the program.This seems to work fine. I also have a signal handler to handle SIGINT (i.e CTRL+C) static void anysig(int sig) { if (sig != SIGINT) dagutil_set_signal_handler(SIG_DFL); /* Tell the main loop to exit */ exit_now = 1; return; } My question: 1) Is it safe to call pthread_join from inside the signal handler? 2) Should I use exit_now flag for the report thread as well?

    Read the article

  • Seeking C Union clarity

    - by mustISignUp
    typedef union { float flts[4]; struct { GLfloat r; GLfloat theta; GLfloat phi; GLfloat w; }; struct { GLfloat x; GLfloat y; GLfloat z; GLfloat w; }; } FltVector; Ok, so i think i get how to use this, (or, this is how i have seen it used) ie. FltVector fltVec1 = {{1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f}}; float aaa = fltVec1.x; etc. But i'm not really groking how much storage has been declared by the union (4 floats? 8 floats? 12 floats?), how? and why? Also why two sets of curly braces when using FltVector {{}}? Any pointers much appreciated (sorry for the pun)

    Read the article

  • java - question about thread abortion and deadlock - volatile keyword

    - by Tiyoal
    Hello all, I am having some troubles to understand how I have to stop a running thread. I'll try to explain it by example. Assume the following class: public class MyThread extends Thread { protected volatile boolean running = true; public void run() { while (running) { synchronized (someObject) { while (someObject.someCondition() == false && running) { try { someObject.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } // do something useful with someObject } } } public void halt() { running = false; interrupt(); } } Assume the thread is running and the following statement is evaluated to true: while (someObject.someCondition() == false && running) Then, another thread calls MyThread.halt(). Eventhough this function sets 'running' to false (which is a volatile boolean) and interrupts the thread, the following statement is still executed: someObject.wait(); We have a deadlock. The thread will never be halted. Then I came up with this, but I am not sure if it is correct: public class MyThread extends Thread { protected volatile boolean running = true; public void run() { while (running) { synchronized (someObject) { while (someObject.someCondition() == false && running) { try { someObject.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } // do something useful with someObject } } } public void halt() { running = false; synchronized(someObject) { interrupt(); } } } Is this correct? Is this the most common way to do this? This seems like an obvious question, but I fail to come up with a solution. Thanks a lot for your help.

    Read the article

  • Accessing vars from another clojure namespace?

    - by erikcw
    In my main namespace, I have a top level var named "settings" which is initialized as an empty {}. My -main fn sets the contents of settings using def and conj based on some command line args (different database hosts for production/development, etc). I'm trying to access the contents of this map from another namespace to pull out some of the settings. When I try to compile with lein into an uberjar, I get a traceback saying "No such var: lb/settings". What am I missing? Is there a more idiomatic way to handle app wide settings such as these? Is it safe to use "def" inside of -main like I am, or should I be use an atom or ref to make this threadsafe? Thanks! (ns main (:use ...) (:gen-class)) (def settings {}) (defn -main [& args] (with-command-line-args... ;set devel? based on args (if (true? devel?) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "127.0.0.1"} :memcached {:host "127.0.0.1"}})) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"} :memcached {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"}}))) ;file2.clj (ns some-other-namespace (:require [main :as lb] ...) ;configure MongoDB (congo/mongo! :db "dbname" :host (:host (mongodb lb/settings)))) ...

    Read the article

  • Wordpress paths issue

    - by Martin
    I have set a crawler up in wordpress which grabs stocks data and writes to file which when a user enters a symbol/ticker the variable is read and if it matches the data of a previous crawl for that particular companies data will echo the text file on page, if no data is found the crawler then sets off grabs it and writes to file to save for the next time that symbol is used. The problem im having is that everything works groovey apart from one thing, when the content is written to file it saves it in the WP root and not inside a subfolder of the theme, basicaly this means that root becomes untidy very quickly and also should the theme be used on another site then its not practical as some important info is missing. I have tried bloginfo and absolute both return the same failure. This is the code i am using to write to file, like i say it works apart from writing the file into root. <?php $CompDetails = "http://www.devserverurl.com/mattv1/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt"; if (file_exists($CompDetails)) {} else { include ('crawler_file.php'); $html = file_get_html("http://targeturl.com/research/stocks/snapshot/snapshot.asp?ticker=$Symbol:US"); $es = $html->find('div[class="detailsDataContainerLt"]'); $tickerdetails = ("$es[0]"); $FileHandle2 = fopen($CompDetails, 'w') or die("can't open file"); fwrite($FileHandle2, $tickerdetails); fclose($FileHandle2); } ?> edit below, have also tried this and the same happens as above <?php if (file_exists($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . "/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt")) {} else { include ('crawler_file.php'); $html = file_get_html("http://targeturl.com/research/stocks/snapshot/snapshot.asp?ticker=$Symbol:US"); $es = $html->find('div[class="detailsDataContainerLt"]'); $tickerdetails = ("$es[0]"); $FileHandle2 = fopen($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . "/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt", 'w') or die("can't open file"); fwrite($FileHandle2, $tickerdetails); fclose($FileHandle2); } ?>

    Read the article

  • joomla! migration

    - by tim
    I have a Joomla! installation on a remote site and I want to run it locally. I'm running Joomla! locally on a Mac through a standard MAMP installation: Joomla 1.5.12 PHP 5.2.6 MySQL 5.0.41 Apache 2.0.59 OS X 10.5.8 I've added a configuration file to the local Joomla! directory with all the correct local settings, database name, database user-name, database password etc. etc. I've tried a lot of different settings. I've also recreated the remote database locally, ensuring everything copied correctly. I followed a few different sets of instructions with roughly the same steps on how to do the migration. All of the above has not worked for me; at best I get bits of text from the site rendered in the browser. Other times I get SQL errors. What I want is for an already set up remote Joomla! installation to run on my own local machine. Does anyone have any advice as to how to get this working, it'd be very much appreciated? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

    Read the article

  • Create a variable which is named depending on an ID number?

    - by gray
    Is there any way to create a variable, and add an ID to the end of the actual variable name? I have a variable called 'gauge', used to create a new Gauge object: var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); I want to add an ID to the variable, so something like: var gauge+id = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); It's because I'm creating a number of these objects, and have a specific ID already for each one, which I want to attach to the gauge object if possible? All my code for this function is below, if it gives you a better idea of what i need to do: function go(id, votes) { var val = $('#votes_'+id).text(); var target = document.getElementById('foo_'+id); // your canvas element var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); // create sexy gauge! gauge.maxValue = 100; // set max gauge value gauge.animationSpeed = 20; // set animation speed (32 is default value) var a=votes+0.5; gauge.set(val); // set actual value } My main problem arises on the last line. It says gauge.set(val), and it only sets the last object, ignoring all the other ones...

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net Cookie sharing

    - by SH
    This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

    Read the article

  • Mercurial Subrepos, how to control which changeset I want to use for a subrepo?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am reading up on subrepos, and have been running some tests locally, seems to work OK so far, but I have one question. How do I specify/control which changeset I want to use for a particular subrepo? For instance, let's say I have the following two projects: class library application o fourth commit o second commit, added a feature | | o third commit o initial commit | | o second commit |/ o initial commit Now, I want the class library as a subrepo of my application, but due to the immaturity of the longest branch (the one ending up as fourth commit), I want to temporarily use the "second commit" tip. How do I go about configuring that, assuming it is even possible? Here's a batch file that sets up the above two repos + adds the library as a subrepo. If you run the batch file, it will output: [C:\Temp] :test ... v4 As you can see from that last line there, it verifies the contents of the file in the class library, which is "v4" from the fourth commit. I'd like it to be "v2", and persist as "v2" until I'm ready to pull down a newer version from the class library repository. Can anyone tell me if it is possible to do what I want, and if so, what I need to do in order to lock my subrepo to the right changeset? Batch-file: @echo off if exist app rd /s /q app if exist lib rd /s /q lib if exist app-clone rd /s /q app-clone rem == app == hg init app cd app echo program>main.txt hg add main.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo program+feature1>main.txt hg commit -m "second commit, added a feature" cd .. rem == lib == hg init lib cd lib echo v1>lib.txt hg add lib.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo v2>lib.txt hg commit -m "second commit" hg update 0 echo v3>lib.txt hg commit -m "third commit" echo v4>lib.txt hg commit -m "fourth commit" cd .. rem == subrepos == cd app hg clone ..\lib lib echo lib = ..\lib >.hgsub hg add .hgsub hg commit -m "added subrepo" cd .. rem == clone == hg clone app app-clone type app-clone\lib\lib.txt

    Read the article

  • Arduino variable going blank after first pass.

    - by user541597
    I have an arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y){ int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6"){ if (hour > 17){ hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); }else if (hour < 18){ //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12"){ if (hour > 11){ hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12){ hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24"){ hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } sketch starts for example at 1:00am timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet == system time my loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime){ timet = convert(timet) } From this now when ever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I am getting the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert however everytime after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor, this works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to map oracle timestamp to appropriate java type in hibernate?

    - by jschoen
    I am new to hibernate and I am stumped. In my database I have tables that have a columns of TIMESTAMP(6). I am using Netbeans 6.5.1 and when I generate the hibernate.reveng.xml, hbm.xml files, and pojo files it sets the columns to be of type Serializable. This is not what I expected, nor what I want them to be. I found this post on the hibernate forums saying to place: in the hibernate.reveng.xml file. In Netbeans you are not able to generate the mappings from this file (it creates a new one every time) and it does not seem to have the ability to re-generate them from the file either (at least according to this it is slated to be available in version 7). So I am trying to figure out what to do. I am more inclined to believe I am doing something wrong since I am new to this, and it seems like it would be a common problem for others. So what am I doing wrong? If I am not doing anything wrong, how do I work around this? I am using Netbeans 6.5, Oracle 10G, and I believe Hibernate 3 (it came with my netbeans). Edit: Meant to say I found this stackoverflow question, but it is really a different problem.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115  | Next Page >