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• Controlling the USB from Windows

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

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• Automatically converting an A* into a B*

  - by Xavier Nodet

  Hi, Suppose I'm given a class A. I would like to wrap pointers to it into a small class B, some kind of smart pointer, with the constraint that a B* is automatically converted to an A* so that I don't need to rewrite the code that already uses A*. I would therefore want to modify B so that the following compiles... struct A { void foo() {} }; template <class K> struct B { B(K* k) : _k(k) {} //operator K*() {return _k;} //K* operator->() {return _k;} private: K* _k; }; void doSomething(A*) {} void test() { A a; A* pointer_to_a (&a); B<A> b (pointer_to_a); //b->foo(); // I don't need those two... //doSomething(b); B<A>* pointer_to_b (&b); pointer_to_b->foo(); // 'foo' : is not a member of 'B<K>' doSomething(pointer_to_b); // 'doSomething' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'B<K> *' to 'A *' } Note that B inheriting from A is not an option (instances of A are created in factories out of my control)... Is it possible? Thanks.

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• What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers?

  - by java_pill

  I have two spring config files and I'm specifying them in my web.xml as in below. web.xml snippet .. <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>WEB-INF/classes/domain-context.xml WEB-INF/classes/client-ws.xml</param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> .. From my domain object I have to invoke a Web Service Client and in order to get a reference to the Web Service client I do this: ApplicationContext context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("client-ws.xml"); //b'cos I don't want to use WebApplicationContextUtils ProductServiceClient client = (ProductServiceClient) context.getBean("productClient"); .. client.find(prodID); //calls a Web Service .. However, I have concerns that looking up the client-ws.xml file and getting a reference to the ProductServiceClient bean is not efficient. I thought of getting it using WebApplicationContextUtils. However, I don't want my domain objects to have a dependency on the ServletContext (a web/control layer object) because WebApplicationContextUtils depends on ServletContext. What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers? Thanks!

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• Load ascx via jQuery

  - by Raika

  Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

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• How can multiple variables be passed to a function cleanly in C?

  - by aquanar

  I am working on an embedded system that has different output capabilities (digital out, serial, analog, etc). I am trying to figure out a clean way to pass many of the variables that will control those functions. I don't need to pass ALL of them too often, but I was hoping to have a function that would read the input data (in this case from a TCP network), and then parse the data (IE, the 3rd byte contains the states of 8 of the digital outputs (according to which bit in that byte is high or low)), and put that into a variable where I can then use elsewhere in the program. I wanted that function to be separate from the main() function, but to do so would require passing pointers to some 20 or so variables that it would be writing to. I know I could make the variables global, but I am trying to make it easier to debug by making it obvious when a function is allowed to edit that variable, by passing it to the function. My best idea was a struct, and just pass a pointer to it, but wasn't sure if there was a more efficient way, especially since there is only really 1 function that would need to access all of them at once, while most others only require parts of the information that will be stored in this bunch of state variables. So anyway, is there a clean way to send many variables between functions at once that need to be edited?

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• Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

  - by Niraj Doshi

  Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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• javascript style.visibility doesn't seem to work....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  In my aspx page i have a tr which is set visible="false" by default... But on a selected index of a dropdown i make it visible="true" ..... On the form submit i am validating the control within the tr but couldn't find whether the tr is visinle or not using javascript... My aspx: <tr id="MeasurementTr" runat="server" visible="false"> <td> &nbsp;</td> <td class="table_label"> Measurement</td> <td> &nbsp;</td> <td> <asp:DropDownList ID="DlMeasurement" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> <td> &nbsp;</td> </tr> and my javascript, alert(document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_MeasurementTr").style.visibility); if (document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_MeasurementTr").style.visibility=="visible"){ if (document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_DlMeasurement").selectedIndex == 0) { document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_ErrorMsg").innerHTML = "Please Select Your Measurement"; document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_DlMeasurement").focus(); return false; } } But my alert shows nothing... It didnt show null or undefined...

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• Parallel doseq for Clojure

  - by andrew cooke

  I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

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• Modifying resource contents of a running executable

  - by mrwoik

  All, I store my application settings in a resource. When my program first loads, I read the specified resource using WinAPI. I then parse the retrieved byte data. This works flawlessly for me. Now let's say that a user alters a setting in my application. He/she checks a checkbox control. I would like to save the updated setting to my resource. However, it seems that my call to UpdateResource will not work while my application is running. I can't modify my resource data even though it is the same size. First, is it possible to modify a running image's resource data? Second, if that is not possible, what alternatives do I have for storing settings internally within my application? NOTE: I must have the settings within my running executable. They cannot be on the harddrive or in the registry. Please don't even suggest that as an option.

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• Same Origin issue with web service call

  - by Wjdavis5

  My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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• How to use .htaccess to redirect to an url that includes a query parameter

  - by wbervoets

  Hi guys, I've been struggling with a redirect where the final URL includes a query parameter that is an URL. It seems htaccess is escaping some characters. Here is my htaccess: Code: RewriteRule ^mypath http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 [L,R=302] First, if I put Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 in my browser address bar, www.otherserver.com will do its thing and then redirect to otherserver2 (including the &param2=1 which is a parameter of that URL and not of the URL otherserver.com) That's the behaviour I need :-) Now when I try to use the htaccess redirect from my site: http://mysite/mypath; the behaviour is not the same then putting the same URL in the browser address bar; it now tries to redirect to http ://otherserver2.com/ (no param2=1 anymore). (ps: otherserver1 and otherserver2 are not under my control.) I've tried escaping the redirectto parameter in my htaccess, like below, but it didn't work either: Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http%3a%2f%otherserver2.com%2f%3fparam2%3d1 Because then my browser tries to go to httpotherserver.com (all special characters are gone) In the end I would like to see http ://mysite/mypath to show the contents of Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 (preferred solution) or do a redirect to that URL. I hope my message is not to confusing, I hope someone can help me out; as I've already spent hours on this :-)

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• forcing a download using PHP / jQuery

  - by Dirty-flow

  I know there are already many questions about forcing a download with PHP, but I can't find what I'm doing wrong and what should I do. I'm having an list with filenames, and I want to download one of them by clicking a button. My jQuery: $(".MappeDownload").on("click",function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); fileId=$(this).val() $.post("ajax/DownloadFile.php",{ id : fileId}) }) and on the server side I have a table with the file names and the file path. $sql = "SELECT vUploadPfad, vUploadOriginname FROM tabUpload WHERE zUploadId='$_POST[id]'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(""); $file = mysql_fetch_array($result); $localfile = $file["vUploadPfad"]; $name=$file["vUploadOriginname"]; $fp = fopen($localfile, 'rb'); header("Cache-Control: "); header("Pragma: "); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Length: " . filesize($localfile)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='".$name."';"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); fpassthru($fp); exit; The AJAX request is successful, I'm getting the right header(filesize, filename etc...) but the download are not starting.

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• How can I parse_url in PHP when there is a URL in a string variable?

  - by Eric O

  I am admittedly a PHP newbie, so I need some help. I am creating a self-designed affiliate program for my site and have the option for an affiliate to add a SubID to their link for tracking. Without having control over what is entered, I have been testing different scenarios and found a bug when a full URL is entered (i.e. "http://example.com"). In my PHP I can grab the variable from the string no problem. My problem comes from when I get the referring URL and parse it (since I need to parse the referring URL to get the host mane for other uses). Code below: $refURL = getenv("HTTP_REFERER"); $parseRefURL = parse_url($refURL); WORKS when incoming link is (for example): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=www.test.com ERROR when incoming link is (notice the addition of "http://" after "sid="): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com Here is the warning message: Warning: parse_url(/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com) [function.parse-url]: Unable to parse url in /home4/'directory'/public_html/hosterdoodle/header.php on line 28 Any ideas on how to keep the parse-url function from being thrown off when someone may decide to place a URL in a variable? (I actually tested this problem down to the point that it will throw the error with as little as ":/" in the variable)

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• What is the best way of doing this? (WCF 4)

  - by Jason Porter

  I have a multith-threaded, continusly running application that connects with multiple devices via TCP/IP sockets and exposes a set of WCF API's for controlling, monitoring and reporting on these devices. I would like to host this on IIS for the ususal reasons of not having to worry about re-starting the app in case of errors. So the issue I have is the main application running in parallel with the WCF Servies. To accomplish this I use the static AppInitialize class to start a thread which has the main applicaiton loop. The WCF services mostly report or control the shared objects with this thread. There are two problems that I see with this approach. One is that if the thread dies, IIS has no clue to re-start it so I have to play some tricks with some WCF calls. The other is that the backrgound thread deals with potentially thousands of devices that are connected permanently (typically a thread per socket connection). So I am not sure if IIS is buying me anything in this case. Another approach that I am thinking is to use WF for the main application that deals with the sockets and host both the WF and my WCF services in IIS using AppFabric. Since I have not use WF or AppFabric I am reaching out to see if this would be good approach or there are better alternative.

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• In Javascript, what's better than try/catch for exiting an outer scope?

  - by gruseom

  In Javascript, I sometimes want to return a value from a scope that isn't the current function. It might be a block of code within the function, or it might be an enclosing function as in the following example, which uses a local function to recursively search for something. As soon as it finds a solution, the search is done and the whole thing should just return. Unfortunately, I can't think of a simpler way to do this than by hacking try/catch for the purpose: function solve(searchSpace) { var search = function (stuff) { solution = isItSolved(stuff); if (solution) { throw solution; } else { search(narrowThisWay(stuff)); search(narrowThatWay(stuff)); }; }; try { return search(searchSpace); } catch (solution) { return solution; }; }; I realize one could assign the solution to a local variable and then check it before making another recursive call, but my question is specifically about transfer of control. Is there a better way than the above? Perhaps involving label/break?

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• Use jquery ':contains' to find specific javascript within a span

  - by Rob

  This is my first time here, I hope that this is clear. So i will have code similar to this this. <span class="mediaSource ui-draggable" id="purchsePlay7915504"> <a href="" onclick="return popup_window(this, 'MediaView', 850, 680)" class="control" enter code hereid="GenericLink"></a> <img id="Any_71" alt="Media Source" src="images/9672web.gif" class="mediaStationIcons mediaWin"/> <img class="player" alt="Media Source" src="images/playmedia.gif" style="display: none;"/> </span> The href portion is generated on the backend, and I have no access to it. I need to modify some existing jquery code to do something based on what the 'onclick' function is(there are different ones e.g. popup_window1,popup_window2 etc.) . I tried something like this: $('.segmentLeft span.mediaSource').click(function(){ if ($('span:contains("popup_window")').length > 0) { do something } }); but it does not seem to work.

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• c# Display the data in the List view

  - by Kumu

  private void displayResultsButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { gameResultsListView.Items.Clear(); //foreach (Game game in footballLeagueDatabase.games) //{ ListViewItem row = new ListViewItem(); row.SubItems.Add(game.HomeTeam.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.HomeScore.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.AwayTeam.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.AwayScore.ToString()); gameResultsListView.Items.Add(row); // } //footballLeagueDatabase.games.Sort(); } } } This is the display button and the following code describes the add button. private void addGameButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if ((homeTeamTxt.Text.Length) == 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter a Home Team"); else if (homeScoreUpDown.Maximum <= 9 && homeScoreUpDown.Minimum >= 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter one digit between 0 and 9"); else if ((awayTeamTxt.Text.Length) == 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter a Away Team"); else if (awayScoreUpDown.Maximum <= 9 && awayScoreUpDown.Minimum >= 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter one digit between 0 to 9"); else { //checkGameInputFields(); game = new Game(homeTeamTxt.Text, int.Parse(homeScoreUpDown.Value.ToString()), awayTeamTxt.Text, int.Parse(awayScoreUpDown.Value.ToString())); MessageBox.Show("Home Team" + 't' + homeTeamTxt.Text + "Away Team" + awayTeamTxt.Text + "created"); footballLeagueDatabase.AddGame(game); //clearCreateStudentInputFields(); } } I need to insert data into the above text field and Numeric up down control and display them in the list view. But I dont know How to do it, because when I press the button "Display Results" it displays the error message. If you know how can I display the data in the list view, please let me know.This is the first time I am using List view.

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• page variable in a repeater

  - by carrot_programmer_3

  Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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• Elegant solution to retrieve custom date and time?

  - by kefs

  I am currently using a date and time picker to retrieve a user-submitted date and time, and then I set a control's text to the date and time selected. I am using the following code: new DatePickerDialog(newlog3.this, d, calDT.get(Calendar.YEAR), calDT.get(Calendar.MONTH), calDT.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH)).show(); new TimePickerDialog(newlog3.this, t, calDT.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY), calDT.get(Calendar.MINUTE), true).show(); optCustom.setText(fmtDT.format(calDT.getTime())); Now, while the above code block does bring up the date and time widgets and sets the text, the code block is being executed in full before the user can select the date.. ie: It brings up the date box first, then the time box over that, and then updates the text, all without any user interaction. I would like the date widget to wait to execute the time selector until the date selection is done, and i would like the settext to execute only after the time widget is done. How is this possible? Or is there is a more elegant solution that is escaping me? Edit: This is the code for DatePickerDialog/TimePickerDialog which is located within the class: DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener d=new DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener() { public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int monthOfYear, int dayOfMonth) { calDT.set(Calendar.YEAR, year); calDT.set(Calendar.MONTH, monthOfYear); calDT.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, dayOfMonth); //updateLabel(); } }; TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener t=new TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener() { public void onTimeSet(TimePicker view, int hourOfDay, int minute) { calDT.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, hourOfDay); calDT.set(Calendar.MINUTE, minute); //updateLabel(); } }; Thanks in advance

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• Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

  - by The Demigeek

  I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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• Problem Binding to a Brush Property in WPF

  - by Krisc

  Working in WPF, writing a custom user control. I am trying to change the background property of the Border element when I change the value of a property of the class. Right now I am working on simply binding it to a DP, though if there is a better way I am open to suggestions. Here is the XAML for the UserControl <UserControl x:Class="MyProject.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:js="clr-namespace:MyProject" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Name="MyControlRootLayout" Background="Transparent" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" Cursor="Hand"> <Border x:Name="RootBorder" Background="{Binding Path=CoreBackground, ElementName=MyControlRootLayout}" > </Border> </UserControl> And the code... public partial class MyControl : UserControl { public static DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(MyControl)); public static DependencyProperty CoreBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CoreBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(MyControl)); public MyControl() { CoreBackground = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 255, 245, 104)); InitializeComponent(); Margin = new Thickness(5); } public Brush CoreBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty, value); } } public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } private set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } } Instead, the background comes out as transparent.

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• Why does my binding break down on SilverLight ProgressBars?

  - by Bill Jeeves

  I asked a similar question about charts but I have given up on that and I am using progress bars instead. Essentially, I have ten progress bars in a Silverlight control. Each is showing a different value and updating every couple of seconds (it's a process monitor). Each progress bar has the same minimum value and maximum value so the bars can be compared. Trying to follow the M-V-VM model, I have bound the value of each bar to a property in my ViewModel. All of the maximum values for the bar are bound to a single property. When the model updates, the values and the maximum can all update. This allows the bars to re-scale as the sizes grow. I'm finding that the binding will stop working sometimes on one or more bars. I suspect it is because a bar's value becomes higher than the maximum occasionally. This is because if I update the maximums first and they are going down, the values will be to high. If I update the values first when the maximum needs increasing, the values are too high again. Is there a way to stop this behaviour? Some way, perhaps, to tell the progress bars that it's OK to temporarily go too high? Or some way to tell the bindings that they shouldn't be disabled when this happens? Or maybe I've got this completely wrong and there's some other issue with ProgressBar binding I don't know about?

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• how to seamlessly integrate subversion and git?

  - by mattv

  I'm looking for tips on how to seamlessly integrate subversion and git, for deploying web sites by a small team of web developers. We each have our own development versions of our sites on our local machines. We also have dev, staging, and live servers. As our team has grown, we haven't updated our revision control and deployment strategies accordingly. We had all been checking into the trunk of a shared Subversion repository. Both the dev & staging servers ran from a checkout of the trunk, so updating them involved running "svn update" while the live server ran as an export from trunk which required an "svn export" to get the latest code. In either case, we would often update just certain files by updating or exporting just those files or directories. That worked okay when there was just one or two developers. However, a big downside was that we couldn't point to an individual tag that represented what was currently on live at any given time. In keeping with corporate policy, we'd like to continue to use Subversion to store what we're now calling our "production branch," which will be what goes onto staging and live. However, we would like to use Git on our local and development sites. We especially like the idea of easier merges and being able to "cherry pick" updates that need to go live. We had initially planned on using git-svn, but it doesn't seem to work well in a shared environment such as our dev or staging servers. Anyone else doing something like this? What's the best way to make it work? Or are we making it more difficult than it should be?

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• How can I create an Assembly program WITHOUT using libraries?

  - by Newbie

  Hello. I've literally only just started looking to learn Assembly language. I'm using the NASM assembler on Windows Vista. Usually, when I begin to learn a new language, I'll copy someone else's Hello World code and try to understand it line-by-line. However, I'm finding it suprisingy difficult to find a Hello World program that doesn't reference other libraries! You see, there's no point trying to understand each line of the code if it is closely linked with a whole library of additional code! One of the reasons I want to learn Assembly is so that I can have near complete control over the programs I write. I don't want to be depending on any libraries. And so my question is this: Can anyone give me NASM-compatible Assembly code to a completely stand-alone Hello World program that can output to the Windows Vista console? Alternatively, I appreciate that a library may be required to tell the pogram WHERE to print the output (ie. the Windows console). Other than that, I can't see why any libraries should be required. Am I overlooking anything?

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• Externally disabling signals for a Linux program.

  - by Harry

  Hello, On Linux, is it possible to somehow disable signaling for programs externally... that is, without modifying their source code? Context: I'm calling a C (and also a Java) program from within a bash script on Linux. I don't want any interruptions for my bash script, and for the other programs that the script launches (as foreground processes). While I can use a... trap '' INT ... in my bash script to disable the Ctrl C signal, this works only when the program control happens to be in the bash code. That is, if I press Ctrl C while the C program is running, the C program gets interrupted and it exits! This C program is doing some critical operation because of which I don't want it be interrupted. I don't have access to the source code of this C program, so signal handling inside the C program is out of question. #!/bin/bash trap 'echo You pressed Ctrl C' INT # A C program to emulate a real-world, long-running program, # which I don't want to be interrupted, and for which I # don't have the source code! # # File: y.c # To build: gcc -o y y.c # # #include <stdio.h> # int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { # printf("Performing a critical operation...\n"); # for(;;); // Do nothing forever. # printf("Performing a critical operation... done.\n"); # } ./y Regards, /HS

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