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  • Communication between modules

    - by David Elentok
    I have an application that consists from the following three modules: Search (to search for objects) List (to display the search results) Painter (to allow me to edit objects) - this module isn't always loaded (Each object is a figure that I can edit in the painter). When I open an object in the painter it's added to the objects that are already in the painter and I can move it and alter it. I'm using an object similar to the EventAggregator to communicate between the modules. For example, to show the search results I publish a "ShowList" event that is caught by the List module (I'm not sure this is the best way to do this, if anyone has better idea please comment...). One of the features of the search module requires it to get the selected object in the painter (if the painter is available), and I'm not sure what would be the best way to do that... I thought of these solutions: Whenever the selected object in the painter changes it will publish a "PainterSelectedObjectChanged" event which will be caught by the search module and stored for later use. When the selected object is needed by the search module it will publish a "RequestingPainterSelectedObject" event which will be caught by the painter module. The painter module will then set the "SelectedObject" property in the EventArgs object, and when the publish is complete and we're back in the search module we will have the painter's selected object in the EventArgs object. What do you think? what is the right way to do this?

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  • Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

    - by Telos
    I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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  • SQL Server lock/hang issue

    - by mattwoberts
    Hi, I'm using SQL Server 2008 on Windows Server 2008 R2, all sp'd up. I'm getting occasional issues with SQL Server hanging with the CPU usage on 100% on our live server. It seems all the wait time on SQL Sever when this happens is given to SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD. Here is the Stored Proc that causes the hang. I've added the "WITH (NOLOCK)" in an attempt to fix what seems to be a locking issue. ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MostPopularRead] AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource as ContentSource , sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) as Popularity , (sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) * 100) / @Total as Percent , @Total as TotalHits from ContentHit ch WITH (NOLOCK) join [Content] c WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.ContentId = c.ContentId join HitWeight hw WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.HitWeightId = hw.HitWeightId join ContentType ct WITH (NOLOCK) on c.ContentTypeId = ct.ContentTypeId where ch.CreatedDate between @Then and @Now group by c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource order by sum(ch.HitCount * hw.HitWeightMultiplier) desc END The stored proc reads from the table "ContentHit", which is a table that tracks when content on the site is clicked (it gets hit quite frequently - anything from 4 to 20 hits a minute). So its pretty clear that this table is the source of the problem. There is a stored proc that is called to add hit tracks to the ContentHit table, its pretty trivial, it just builds up a string from the params passed in, which involves a few selects from some lookup tables, followed by the main insert: BEGIN TRAN insert into [ContentHit] (ContentId, HitCount, HitWeightId, ContentHitComment) values (@ContentId, isnull(@HitCount,1), isnull(@HitWeightId,1), @ContentHitComment) COMMIT TRAN The ContentHit table has a clustered index on its ID column, and I've added another index on CreatedDate since that is used in the select. When I profile the issue, I see the Stored proc executes for exactly 30 seconds, then the SQL timeout exception occurs. If it makes a difference the web application using it is ASP.NET, and I'm using Subsonic (3) to execute these stored procs. Can someone please advise how best I can solve this problem? I don't care about reading dirty data... Thanks

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  • What issues to consider when rolling your own data-backend for Silverlight / AJAX on non-ASP.NET ser

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have read-only Silverlight and AJAX apps which read static text and XML files from a PHP/Apache server, which works very nicely with features such as asynchronous loading, lazy-loading only what I need for each page, loading in the background, developed a little query language to get a PHP script to create custom XML files etc. it's pragmatic read-only REST, and all works fast and fine for read-only sites. Now I want to also add the ability to write data from these apps to a database on the same PHP/Apache server. For those of you who have built similar data-access layers, what do I need to consider while building this, especially regarding security so that not just any client can write and alter my database, e.g.: check HTTP_USER_AGENT for security check REMOTE_ADDR for security require a special code for security, perhaps a list of TAN codes (such as banks use for online transactions) each which can only be used once, both the client and server have these I wonder if there is some kind of standard REST query I should lean on for e.g. building SQL-like statements in the URL parameters, e.g. http://www.thedatalayersite.com/query?insertinto=customers&... Any thoughts, notes from experience, ideas, gotchas, especially ideas on tightening down security in this endeavor would be helpful.

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  • jquery .submit live click runs more than once

    - by fxuser
    I use the following code to run my form ajax requests but when i use the live selector on a button i can see the ajax response fire 1 time, then if i re-try it 2 times, 3 times, 4 times and so on... I use .live because i also have a feature to add a post and that appears instantly so the user can remove it without refreshing the page... Then this leads to the above problem... using .click could solve this but it's not the ideal solution i'm looking for... jQuery.fn.postAjax = function(success_callback, show_confirm) { this.submit(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); if (show_confirm == true) { if (confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this item? You can\'t undo this.')) { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } } else { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } return false; }) return this; }; $(document).ready(function() { $(".delete_button").live('click', function() { $(this).parent().postAjax(function(data) { if (data.error == true) { } else { } }, true); }); });? EDIT: temporary solution is to change this.submit(function(e) { to this.unbind('submit').bind('submit',function(e) { the problem is how can i protect it for real because people who know how to use Firebug or the same tool on other browsers can easily alter my Javascript code and re-create the problem

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  • Handle cases where Nhibernate subclass does not exist

    - by kaykayman
    I have a scenario where I am using nhibernate to map records from one table to several different derived classes based on a discriminator. public class BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass0 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass1 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { } I then use nhibernate's DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn() method and alter the configuration to include <subclass name="DerivedClass0" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator0" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass1" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator1" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass2" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator2" /> so that when mapped, these classes are cast to their derived classes and not BaseClass. However, there are some records in my database which have a discriminator which does not have a corresponding subclass. In these cases, nHibernate throws an error: "Object with id: 'xxx' was not of the specified subclass..." Is there some way I can handle this, so that any records which do not have a corresponding subclass are cast to BaseClass rather than an error being thrown? I have simplified the above as much as possible, however it is worth noting that the XML is edited dynamically which is why I am referencing fluent nhibernate [DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn()] and XML at the same time. The following things (which would help) are not an option: I cannot correct the data to remove records which are invalid I cannot create subclasses for those records which do not have one I need to handle cases where nHibernate tries to map on a discriminator and finds that one does not exist.

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  • General many-to-many relationship problem ( Postgresql )

    - by David
    Hi, i have two tables: CREATE TABLE "public"."auctions" ( "id" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX2" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); and CREATE TABLE "public"."auction_values" ( "id" NUMERIC DEFAULT nextval('default_seq'::regclass) NOT NULL, "fk_auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "value" TEXT, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX1" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); if i want to create a many-to-many relationship on the auction_value_key like this: ALTER TABLE "public"."auction_values" ADD CONSTRAINT "auction_values_fk" FOREIGN KEY ("fk_auction_value_key") REFERENCES "public"."auctions"("auction_value_key") ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION NOT DEFERRABLE; i get this SQL error: ERROR: there is no unique constraint matching given keys for referenced table "auctions" Question: As you might see, i want "auction_values" to be be "reused" by different auctions without duplicating them for every auction... So i don't want a key relation on the "id" field in the auctions table... Am i thinking wrong here or what is the deal? ;) Thanks

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  • OdbcCommand on Stored Procedure - "Parameter not supplied" error on Output parameter

    - by Aaron
    I'm trying to execute a stored procedure (against SQL Server 2005 through the ODBC driver) and I recieve the following error: Procedure or Function 'GetNodeID' expects parameter '@ID', which was not supplied. @ID is the OUTPUT parameter for my procedure, there is an input @machine which is specified and is set to null in the stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetNodeID] @machine nvarchar(32) = null, @ID int OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) BEGIN SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO Nodes (NodeName) VALUES (@machine) SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END END The following is the code I'm using to set the parameters and call the procedure: OdbcCommand Cmd = new OdbcCommand("GetNodeID", _Connection); Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Cmd.Parameters.Add("@machine", OdbcType.NVarChar); Cmd.Parameters["@machine"].Value = Environment.MachineName.ToLower(); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ID", OdbcType.Int); Cmd.Parameters["@ID"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); _NodeID = (int)Cmd.Parameters["@Count"].Value; I've also tried using Cmd.ExecuteScalar with no success. If I break before I execute the command, I can see that @machine has a value. If I execute the procedure directly from Management Studio, it works correctly. Any thoughts? Thanks

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  • Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

    - by David
    I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

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  • Repeatedly execute a stored procedure

    - by manivineet
    I have a situation where I need to repeatedly execute a stored procedure Now this procedure (spMAIN) has a cursor inside which looks for a value from a table as T1,which has the following structure ID Status ---- -------- 1 New 2 New 3 success 4 Error now the cursor looks for all rows with a status of 'New' Now while processing , if that instance of the cursor encounters an error, another SP say spError needs to be called, the 'Status' column in T1 needs to be updated to 'Error' and spMAIN needs to be called again which again repeats the process, looking for rows with 'new' how do I do it? Also, also, while we are at it, what if an SP has other SPs inside it and if any of those SP raises an error, same thing needs to be done, the T1 table needs to be updated ('Error') and spMAIN needs to be called again. can you also recommend something ? here's some code ALTER PROC zzSpMain AS BEGIN DECLARE @id INT BEGIN TRY IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM dbo.zzTest WHERE istatus = 'new' ) BEGIN DECLARE c CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM zztest WHERE istatus = 'new' OPEN c FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN PRINT @id IF @id = 2 BEGIN UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'error' WHERE id = @id RAISERROR ( 'Error occured', 16, 1 ) END UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'processed' WHERE id = @id FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id END CLOSE c DEALLOCATE c END END TRY begin CATCH EXEC zzSpError END CATCH END

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  • How best to implement "favourites" feature? (like favourite products on a data driven website)

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have written a dynamic database driven, object oriented website with an administration frontend etc etc. I would like to add a feature where customers can save items as "favourites", without having to create an account and login, to come back to them later, but I dont know how exactly to go about doing this... I see three options: Log favourites based on IP address and then change these to be logged against an account if the customer then creates an account; Force customers to create an account to be able to use this functionality; Log favourites based on IP address but give users the option to save their favourites under a name they specify. The problem with option 1 is that I dont know much about IP addresses - my Dad thinks they are unique, but I know people have had problems with systems like this. The problem with 1 and 2 is that accounts have not been opened up to customers yet - only administrators can log in at the moment. It should be easy to alter this (no more than a morning or afternoons work) but I would also have to implement usergroups too. The problem with option 3 is that if user A saves a favourites list called "My Favourites", and then user B tries to save a list under this name and it is refused, user B will then be able to access the list saved by user A because they now know it already exists. A solution to this is to password protect lists, but to go to all this effort I may as well implement option 2. Of course I could always use option 4; use an alternative if anyone can suggest a better solution than any of the above options. So has anyone ever done something like this before? If so how did you go about it? What do you recommend (or not recommend)? Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

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  • web design question (php/ajax)

    - by tom smith
    Hi guys... Hope this isn't a waste of your time. I'm working on a project, and it occured to me that there's a chunk of code out there, that should allow me to see how others have implemented this. I've got a project where I'm going to have a page, with a sel box. the user will select an item from the selList, and based on the item selected, a separate section of the page (areaB) will change in terms of the content/tbls being displayed. i then want to allow the user to go through a series of subpages in areaB, where the user goes through a submit/cancel/confirm process, where the stuff in areaB changes, with the rest of the page remaining the same... i'm trying to figure out the best approach to implement the on both client/server side. i could just have an ugly "if block" where i have abunch of logic, and i completely regen the page each time the user selects an action.. i could have an approach that might involve divs/frames, where i then just regen the targeted frame/div area.. is this even possible?? i could have some form of ajaxy process, which would only alter the targeted section(s) of the page... so.. i'm trying to talk to anyone who has ideas on how to do this, or more ideally, if you know of a good code (client/server) side example of this... that i can examine. i'd really appreciate it!! i've got a more detailed overview but didn't know if it would be cool to post it here... thanks.. tom

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  • SQL Concurrent test update question

    - by ptoinson
    Howdy Folks, I have a SQLServer 2008 database in which I have a table for Tags. A tag is just an id and a name. The definition of the tags table looks like: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tag]( [ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [varchar](255) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [PK_Tag] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ) Name is also a unique index. further I have several processes adding data to this table at a pretty rapid rate. These processes use a stored proc that looks like: ALTER PROC [dbo].[lg_Tag_Insert] @Name varchar(255) AS DECLARE @ID int SET @ID = (select ID from Tag where Name=@Name ) if @ID is null begin INSERT Tag(Name) VALUES (@Name) RETURN SCOPE_IDENTITY() end else begin return @ID end My issues is that, other than being a novice at concurrent database design, there seems to be a race condition that is causing me to occasionally get an error that I'm trying to enter duplicate keys (Name) into the DB. The error is: Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.Tag' with unique index 'IX_Tag_Name'. This makes sense, I'm just not sure how to fix this. If it where code I would know how to lock the right areas. SQLServer is quite a different beast. First question is what is the proper way to code this 'check, then update pattern'? It seems I need to get an exclusive lock on the row during the check, rather than a shared lock, but it's not clear to me the best way to do that. Any help in the right direction will be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

    - by luksan
    In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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  • C#: Easy access to the member of a singleton ICollection<> ?

    - by Rosarch
    I have an ICollection that I know will only ever have one member. Currently, I loop through it, knowing the loop will only ever run once, to grab the value. Is there a cleaner way to do this? I could alter the persistentState object to return single values, but that would complicate the rest of the interface. It's grabbing data from XML, and for the most part ICollections are appropriate. // worldMapLinks ensured to be a singleton ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> worldMapLinks = persistentState.GetAllOfType("worldMapLink"); string levelName = ""; //worldMapLinks.GetEnumerator().Current['filePath']; // this loop will only run once foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in worldMapLinks) // hacky hack hack hack { levelName = dict["filePath"]; } // proceed with levelName loadLevel(levelName); Here is another example of the same issue: // meta will be a singleton ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> meta = persistentState.GetAllOfType("meta"); foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in meta) // this loop should only run once. HACKS. { currentLevelName = dict["name"]; currentLevelCaption = dict["teaserCaption"]; } Yet another example: private Vector2 startPositionOfKV(ICollection<IDictionary<string, string>> dicts) { Vector2 result = new Vector2(); foreach (IDictionary<string, string> dict in dicts) // this loop will only ever run once { result.X = Single.Parse(dict["x"]); result.Y = Single.Parse(dict["y"]); } return result; }

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  • Can I make any ASP.NET/HTML element into form-data that posts back to the server?

    - by Giffyguy
    I am using Javascript to alter the innerHTML attribute of a <td> and I need to get that info back in the form submittal. The <td> corrosponds to an <asp:TableCell> on the server-side, where the Text attribute is set to an initial value. The user cannot enter the value in this particular field. Instead, its value is set by me (via client-side script) based on actions that the user performs. But this field is useless to me if I can't see its value on the server-side as well. I'd like to avoid using a read-only textbox, because those are difficult to resize dynamically. Can an <asp:Label> be used as form data? Is there any way to achive this without letting the user manually enter the data? Or is there a simpler way to store a string as a variable somewhere and send it back as form-data?

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  • Bulk Insert of hundreds of millions of records

    - by Dave Jarvis
    What is the fastest way to insert 237 million records into a table that has rules (for distributing the data across 84 child tables)? First I tried inserts. No go. Then I tried inserts with BEGIN/COMMIT. Not nearly fast enough. Next, I tried COPY FROM, but then noticed the documentation states that the rules are ignored. (And it was having difficulties with the column order and date format -- it said that '1984-07-1' was not a valid integer; true, but a bit unexpected.) Some example data: station_id,taken,amount,category_id,flag 1,'1984-07-1',0,4, 1,'1984-07-2',0,4, 1,'1984-07-3',0,4, 1,'1984-07-4',0,4,T Here is the table structure (with one rule included): CREATE TABLE climate.measurement ( id bigserial NOT NULL, station_id integer NOT NULL, taken date NOT NULL, amount numeric(8,2) NOT NULL, category_id smallint NOT NULL, flag character varying(1) NOT NULL DEFAULT ' '::character varying ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); ALTER TABLE climate.measurement OWNER TO postgres; CREATE OR REPLACE RULE i_measurement_01_001 AS ON INSERT TO climate.measurement WHERE date_part('month'::text, new.taken)::integer = 1 AND new.category_id = 1 DO INSTEAD INSERT INTO climate.measurement_01_001 (id, station_id, taken, amount, category_id, flag) VALUES (new.id, new.station_id, new.taken, new.amount, new.category_id, new.flag); I can generate the data into any format. Am looking for something that won't take four days. I originally had the data in MySQL (still do), but am hoping to get a performance increase by switching to PostgreSQL and am eager to use its PL/R extensions for stats. I was also thinking about using: http://pgbulkload.projects.postgresql.org/ Any help, tips, or guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • How to insert and call by row and column into sqlite3 python

    - by user291071
    Lets say i have a simple array of x rows and y columns with corresponding values, What is the best method to do 3 things? How to insert, update a value at a specific row column? How to select a value for each row and column, import sqlite3 con = sqlite3.connect('simple.db') c = con.cursor() c.execute('''create table simple (links text)''') con.commit() dic = {'x1':{'y1':1.0,'y2':0.0},'x2':{'y1':0.0,'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5},'x3':{'y2':2.0,'y3':1.5}} ucols = {} ## my current thoughts are collect all row values and all column values from dic and populate table row and columns accordingly how to call by row and column i havn't figured out yet ##populate rows in first column for row in dic: print row c.execute("""insert into simple ('links') values ('%s')"""%row) con.commit() ##unique columns for row in dic: print row for col in dic[row]: print col ucols[col]=dic[row][col] ##populate columns for col in ucols: print col c.execute("alter table simple add column '%s' 'float'" % col) con.commit() #functions needed ##insert values into sql by row x and column y?how to do this e.g. x1 and y2 should put in 0.0 ##I tried as follows didn't work for row in dic: for col in dic[row]: val =dic[row][col] c.execute("""update simple SET '%s' = '%f' WHERE 'links'='%s'"""%(col,val,row)) con.commit() ##update value at a specific row x and column y? ## select a value at a specific row x and column y?

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  • SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

    - by Dan Puzey
    Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

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  • What is the best way to save the environment from before an alarm handler goes off when the alarm do

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm trying to implement user threads on a 2.4 Linux kernel (homework) and the trick for context switch seems to be using an alarm that goes off every x milliseconds and sends us to an alarm handler from which we can longjmp to the next thread. What I'm having difficulties with is figuring out how to save the environment to return to later. Basically I have an array of jmp_buffs, and every time a "context switch" using the alarm happens I want to save the previous context to the appropriate entry of the array and longjmp to the next one. However, just the fact that I need to do this from the event handler means that just using setjmp in the event handler won't give me exactly the kind of environment I want (as far as stack and program counter are involved) because the stack has the event handler call in it and the pc is in the event handler. I suppose I can look at the stack and alter it to fit my needs, but that feels a bit cumbersome. Another idea I had is to somehow pass the environment before the jump to event handler as a parameter to the event handler, but I can't figure out if this is possible. So I guess my question is- how do I do this right?

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • Error in Postgres execute

    - by RAJA
    I'm using this function... -- Function: dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) -- DROP FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(IN in_orgmgrtype character varying, INOUT in_parentid integer, IN in_levelid integer, IN in_name character varying, IN in_phone character varying, IN in_webpage character varying, IN in_owner character varying, OUT out_accountid integer) RETURNS record AS $BODY$ DECLARE l_CoID int; l_CurrID int; l_OrgMgrId int; errmsg varchar(250); BEGIN IF in_ParentID = -1 THEN errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; l_CoID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser(in_user); IF l_CoID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; END IF; errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; l_OrgMgrID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany(in_OrgMgrType, l_CoID); IF l_OrgMgrID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; END IF; in_ParentID := l_OrgMgrID; ELSE errmsg := 'Select orgmgrid failed'; SELECT OrgMgrID INTO l_CurrID FROM dbo.OrgMgr WHERE Name = in_Name AND ParentID = in_ParentID; END IF; -- if not, add it IF l_CurrID IS NULL THEN errmsg := 'Insert into orgmgr(account creation) failed'; INSERT INTO dbo.OrgMgr (ParentID, LevelID, Name, PrimaryPhone, WebPage, Owner) VALUES (in_ParentID, in_LevelID, in_Name, in_Phone, in_WebPage, in_Owner); out_AccountID := currval('dbo.OrgMgr_accountid_seq'); ELSE out_AccountID := -1; END IF; COMMIT; EXCEPTION WHEN RAISE_EXCEPTION THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE NOTICE 'ERROR : %',errmsg; WHEN OTHERS THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE EXCEPTION 'ERROR : %',errmsg; END $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 100; ALTER FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) OWNER TO postgres; But.. it's showing error in execute time .. ERROR: SPI_execute_plan failed executing query "ROLLBACK": SPI_ERROR_TRANSACTION

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  • SWT TabFolder: Weird Drawing Behaviour

    - by JesperGJensen
    Hello StackOverflow Experts Description I have an SWT Page with a TabFolder with a number of dynamically created TabItems. On each TabItem i crate a Composite and set the TabItem.setControl() to the Composite. I then use this Composite as the page on which i draw my items. I draw a set of Controls, including Textbox's and Labels. For the First, Default Tab, this works fine. No problems. Problem On tabs that is not the first tab i have the following problems: I am unable to visually alter then Edited/Enabled state of my Controls. I am unable to visually set the Text content of my elements My Controls look disabled and have a Greyed out look. But i am able to Select the content with my mouse and use CTRL+C to copy it out. So the text contet is there and they are Editable. Visually it is just not updated. Any comments are appeciated, Any requests for code, examples will be supplied and help Welcommed. Updates I tried added the suggest debug loop to the code, where i attempt to enable my Controls. This was the result: [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - f038.stklok is now Editable [true] and enabled [true] [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true Text {} [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true Composite {} [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true TabFolder {} [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true Shell {Viking GUI}

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  • Configuring mod_rewrite and mod_jk for Apache 2.2 and JBoss 4.2.3

    - by The Pretender
    Hello! My problem is as follows: I have JBoss 4.2.3 application server with AJP 1.3 connector running on one host under Windows (192.168.1.2 for my test environment) and Apache 2.2.14 running on another FreeBSD box (192.168.1.10). Apache acts as a "front gate" for all requests and sends them to JBoss via mod_jk. Everything was working fine until I had to do some SEO optimizations. These optimizations include SEF urls, so i decided to use mod_rewrite for Apache to alter requests before they are sent to JBoss. Basically, I nedd to implement 2 rules: Redirect old rules like "http://hostname/directory/" to "http://hostname/" with permanent redirect Forward urls like "http://hostname/wtf/123/" to "http://hostname/wtf/view.htm?id=123" so that end user doesn't see the "ugly" URL (the actual rewrite). Here is my Apache config for test virtual host: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/usr/local/www/dummy" ServerName 192.168.1.10 <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule /directory/(.*) /$1 [R=permanent,L] RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 </IfModule> JkMount /* jsp-hostname ErrorLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-error_log" CustomLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-access_log" common </VirtualHost> The problem is that second rewrite rule doesn't work. Requests slip through to JBoss unchanged, so I get Tomcat 404 error. But if I add redirect flag to the second rule like RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 [R,L] it works like a charm. But redirect is not what I need here :) . I suspect that the problem is that requests are forwarded to the another host (192.168.1.2), but I really don't have any idea on how to make it work. Any help would be appreciated :)

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  • Silverlight Async Design Pattern Issue

    - by Mike Mengell
    I'm in the middle of a Silverlight application and I have a function which needs to call a webservice and using the result complete the rest of the function. My issue is that I would have normally done a synchronous web service call got the result and using that carried on with the function. As Silverlight doesn't support synchronous web service calls without additional custom classes to mimic it, I figure it would be best to go with the flow of async rather than fight it. So my question relates around whats the best design pattern for working with async calls in program flow. In the following example I want to use the myFunction TypeId parameter depending on the return value of the web service call. But I don't want to call the web service until this function is called. How can I alter my code design to allow for the async call? string _myPath; bool myFunction(Guid TypeId) { WS_WebService1.WS_WebService1SoapClient proxy = new WS_WebService1.WS_WebService1SoapClient(); proxy.GetPathByTypeIdCompleted += new System.EventHandler<WS_WebService1.GetPathByTypeIdCompleted>(proxy_GetPathByTypeIdCompleted); proxy.GetPathByTypeIdAsync(TypeId); // Get return value if (myPath == "\\Server1") { //Use the TypeId parameter in here } } void proxy_GetPathByTypeIdCompleted(object sender, WS_WebService1.GetPathByTypeIdCompletedEventArgs e) { string server = e.Result.Server; myPath = '\\' + server; } Thanks in advance, Mike

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