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  • How do i resolve method Overlapping in java/Processing [duplicate]

    - by user3718913
    This question already has an answer here: How do I compare strings in Java? 24 answers I have two methods/function in a class, called, Qestion1 and Question2, i want it in such a way that after the user has answered Question one correctly, the Question 2 method is called. Whenever i call the method 2, it displays both of them together instead exiting the first method first. Here's a dummy code to illustrate what i'm saying: void Question1() { String question="What is the capital of England?"; String Answer="London"; if(Answer=='London') { Question2(); } } void Question2() { String question="What is the capital of California?"; String Answer="Sacramento"; if(Answer=='Sacramento') { Question3(); } } Pls, this question is in no way related to that other question. Pls peruse the thread again.

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  • Chrome is creating duplicate sessions with the same id

    - by dlwiest
    I encountered an issue while I was revising my session library today, and this might be the first time I've ever seen a browser-specific problem on a back end script. I hope somebody can shed some light. Basically how the session library works is: when instantiated, it checks for a cookie called 'id' (in the form of a uniqid result) on the client machine. If a cookie is found, the script checks that and a hashed copy of the user agent string against entries in a session table. If a matching entry is found, the script resumes the session. If no cookie named 'id' is found, or if no matching entry exists in the sessions table, the script creates both. Fairly standard, I think. Now here's the weird part: in Firefox, everything works as predicted. The user gets one session, which he'll always resume upon connection, as long as 24 hours of inactivity has not elapsed. But when I visit the page in Chrome, even though it looks the same and appears to be executing queries in the same order, I see two entries in the session table. The sessions share an agent string, but the ids are different, and timestamp logs indicate that the ghost session is being created shortly (within a second) after the one created for the user. For debugging purposes, I've been printing queries to the screen as they're executed, and this is an example of what I'm seeing when Chrome should be opening one session and is somehow opening two instead: // Attempting to resume a session SELECT id FROM sessions WHERE id = '4fd24a5cd8df12.62439982' AND agent = '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca' // No result, so it creates a new one INSERT INTO sessions (id, agent, start, last) VALUES ('4fd24ef0347f26.72354606', '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca', '1339182832', '1339182832') // Clear old sessions DELETE FROM sessions WHERE last < 1339096432 And here's what I'm seeing in the database afterward: id, agent, start, last 4fd24ef0347f26.72354606, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182832, 1339182832 4fd24ef0857f94.72251285, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182833, 1339182833 Am I missing something obvious? The only thing I can think of is that Chrome might be creating a hidden session in the background, possibly to crawl the page. If that's the case though, it could become a problem later, when I begin associating active sessions with entries in the users table. I've been looking for possible bugs in my script, but I haven't found anything so far, and everything works as expected in Firefox.

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  • Zend Framework: Navigation XML and duplicate page elements

    - by jakenoble
    Hi In XML I'd normal expect the following to be perfectly valid and navigable in a meaningful way using something like PHP's DomDocument: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configdata> <page> <name>Home</name> </page> <page> <name>Log in</name> </page> </configdata> This is not the case when using Zend_Navigation. Each <page> element needs to have a unique name, so you would need to do: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configdata> <page_home> <name>Home</name> </page_home> <page_log_in> <name>Log in</name> </page_log_in> </configdata> This works, but is very annoying. I'd much rather have multiple page elements which can have the same name and can be easily copy and pasted when creating many pages for navigation. Why does each one need a unique name? Is there a way of not having to have a unique name?

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  • left join without duplicate values using MIN()

    - by Clipper87
    I have a table_1: id custno 1 1 2 2 3 3 and a table_2: id custno qty descr 1 1 10 a 2 1 7 b 3 2 4 c 4 3 7 d 5 1 5 e 6 1 5 f When I run this query to show the minimum order quantities from every customer: SELECT DISTINCT table_1.custno,table_2.qty,table_2.descr FROM table_1 LEFT OUTER JOIN table_2 ON table_1.custno = table_2.custno AND qty = (SELECT MIN(qty) FROM table_2 WHERE table_2.custno = table_1.custno ) Then I get this result: custno qty descr 1 5 e 1 5 f 2 4 c 3 7 d Customer 1 appears twice each time with the same minimum qty (& a different description) but I only want to see customer 1 appear once. I don't care if that is the record with 'e' as a description or 'f' as a description. How could I do this ? Thx!

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  • MYSQL how to sum rows with same key, then delete the duplicate rows

    - by Bhante-S
    What I have: key data 1      22 1       5 2       6 3       1 3      -3 What I want: key data 1      27 2       6 3      -2 I don’t mind doing this with two or more queries, esp. if they are simple--makes for easier maintenance. Also the tables are fairly small (<2,000 records). The ‘key’ field is indexed and allows duplicates. Muchas Gracias

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  • remove repeated vaules _stack&array

    - by Fatimah
    I want to write a program to implement an array-based stack, which accept integer numbers entered by the user.the program will then identify any occurrences of a given value from user and remove the repeated values from the stack,(using Java programming language). I just need your help of writing (removing values method) e.g. input:6 2 3 4 3 8 output:6 2 4 8

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  • Removing object/array difference from different arrays [duplicate]

    - by Kay Singian
    This question already has an answer here: remove objects from array by object property 3 answers I have two JavaScript objects: object_1 = [ {'value': '9:00', 'text':'9:00 am', 'eventtime':'09:00:00' }, {'value': '9:30', 'text':'9:30 am', 'eventtime':'09:30:00' }, {'value': '10:00', 'text':'10:00 am', 'eventtime':'10:00:00' }, {'value': '10:30', 'text':'10:30 am', 'eventtime':'10:30:00' }, {'value': '11:00', 'text':'11:00 am', 'eventtime':'11:00:00' }, {'value': '11:30', 'text':'11:30 am', 'eventtime':'11:30:00' }, ]; object_2 = [ {'eventtime': '10:30:00'}, {'eventtime': '11:00:00'} ]; I want to remove the object in object_1 which has the same eventtime value and store it in a new array/object . Please help me do so, I cant find a solution to this. This will be the new array/object: object_new = [ {'value': '9:00', 'text':'9:00 am', 'eventtime':'09:00:00' }, {'value': '9:30', 'text':'9:30 am', 'eventtime':'09:30:00' }, {'value': '10:00', 'text':'10:00 am', 'eventtime':'10:00:00' }, {'value': '11:30', 'text':'11:30 am', 'eventtime':'11:30:00' }, ];

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  • getting duplicate array output - java

    - by dowln
    Hello, Can someone could be kind and help me out here. Thanks in advance... My code below outputs the string as duplicates. I don't want to use Sets or ArrayList. I am using java.util.Random. I am trying to write a code that checks if string has already been randomly outputted and if it does, then it won't display. Where I am going wrong and how do I fix this. public class Worldcountries { private static Random nums = new Random(); private static String[] countries = { "America", "Candada", "Chile", "Argentina" }; public static int Dice() { return (generator.nums.nextInt(6) + 1); } public String randomCounties() { String aTemp = " "; int numOfTimes = Dice(); int dup = 0; for(int i=0 ; i<numOfTimes; i++) { // I think it's in the if statement where I am going wrong. if (!countries[i].equals(countries[i])) { i = i + 1; } else { dup--; } // and maybe here aTemp = aTemp + countries[nums.nextInt(countries.length)]; aTemp = aTemp + ","; } return aTemp; } } So the output I am getting (randomly) is, "America, America, Chile" when it should be "America, Chile".

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  • [SQL][MS access] Query to find duplicate item in 2 table

    - by Rico
    I have this table Antecedent Consequent I1 I2 I1 I1,I2,I3 I1 I4,I1,I3,I4 I1,I2 I1 I1,I2 I1,I4 I1,I2 I1,I3 I1,I4 I3,I2 I1,I2,I3 I1,I4 I1,I3,I4 I4 AS you can see it's pretty messed up. is there anyway i can remove rows if item in consequent exist in antecedent (in 1 row) for example: INPUT: Antecedent Consequent I1 I2 I1 I1,I2,I3 <---- DELETE since I1 exist in antecedent I1 I4,I1,I3,I4 <---- DELETE since I1 exist in antecedent I1,I2 I1 <---- DELETE since I1 exist in antecedent I1,I2 I1,I4 <---- DELETE since I1 exist in antecedent I1,I2 I1,I3 <---- DELETE since I1 exist in antecedent I1,I4 I3,I2 <---- DELETE since I2 exist in antecedent I1,I2,I3 I1,I4 I1,I3,I4 I4 <---- DELETE since I4 exist in antecedent OUTPUT: Antecedent Consequent I1 I2 I1,I2,I3 I1,I4 is there anyway i can do that by query?

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  • C++ classes use of double colon [duplicate]

    - by user2444217
    This question already has an answer here: What does the :: mean in C++? 5 answers What Does :: Mean? 3 answers I am learning C++. Now I don't fully understand what this does Some_Class::SomeClass { etc... } I would do some research for myself, but I'm not sure where to begin or what's it called. Help would be appreciated.

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  • Remove() not working on new elements [duplicate]

    - by user3317470
    This question already has an answer here: In jQuery, how to attach events to dynamic html elements? 9 answers I'm making a simple to do list. It's mostly working and finished. When you click on list elements the object gets removed and you can create new list elements through the text input at the bottom. The only problem is the new list elements can't be removed when you click them for some reason. Here's the code: http://jsfiddle.net/dnhynh/7psqndwL/20/ $(document).ready(function(){ $("li").click(function(){ $(this).remove(); }); $("button").click(function(){ var entry = $("#entry").val(); $("<li></li>", { text: entry }).appendTo("#list ul"); $("#entry").val(""); }); });

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  • How to get client machine ip address in custom realm? [on hold]

    - by Sumit
    I want to get client machine ip address in my custom Realm when client attempt to login basically here is detail requirement of project User having role 'Admin' can add new users and assign multiple roles and permission ,and at the same time specify list of ip address and countries to restrict them to access website. All these information i am storing in database. So basically till now i am using shiro default 'authc' filter but now i want ip address of client machine and get country from where request is coming and check it against database and then and then only allow access to website. Any help..? Thanks and regards

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  • How to whitelist external access to an internal webserver via Cisco ACLs?

    - by Josh
    This is our company's internet gateway router. This is what I want to accomplish on our Cisco 2691 router: All employees need to be able to have unrestricted access to the internet (I've blocked facebook with an ACL, but other than that, full access) There is an internal webserver that should be accessible from any internal IP address, but only a select few external IP addresses. Basically, I want to whitelist access from outside the network. I don't have a hardware firewall appliance. Until now, the webserver has not needed to be accessible externally... or in any case, the occasional VPN has sufficed when needed. As such, the following config has been sufficient: access-list 106 deny ip 66.220.144.0 0.0.7.255 any access-list 106 deny ip ... (so on for the Facebook blocking) access-list 106 permit ip any any ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address x.x.x.x 255.255.255.248 ip access-group 106 in ip nat outside fa0/0 is the interface with the public IP However, when I add... ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.0.52 80 x.x.x.x 80 extendable ...in order to forward web traffic to the webserver, that just opens it up entirely. That much makes sense to me. This is where I get stumped though. If I add a line to the ACL to explicitly permit (whitelist) an IP range... something like this: access-list 106 permit tcp x.x.x.x 0.0.255.255 192.168.0.52 0.0.0.0 eq 80 ... how do I then block other external access to the webserver while still maintaining unrestricted internet access for internal employees? I tried removing the access-list 106 permit ip any any. That ended up being a very short-lived config :) Would something like access-list 106 permit ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 any on an "outside-inbound" work?

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  • RESOLVED Why does IPtables's NAT stop working when I enable the firewall's third interface?

    - by Kronick
    On my firewall I've three interfaces : eth0 : public IP (46.X.X.X.) eth0:0 public IP (46.X.X.Y.) eth1 : public IP (88.X.X.X.) eth2 : private LAN (172.X.X.X) I've setup a basic NAT which works great until I turn on the eth1 interface, I basically loose the connectivity. When I turn off the interface (ifconfig eth1 down) then the NAT re-work. I've added some policy routing via iproute, which makes my three public IP's available. I don't understand why turning on eth1 on makes the LAN unavailable. PS : weirder ; when I turn on eth1 BUT remove the NAT, then the firewall is accessible by using the public IPS. So to me it's exclusively a NAT issue, since without the NAT the network works while with the NAT without the second public interface, the NAT does work. Regards EDIT : I've been able to make it work by using iproute2 rules. That was definitely a routing issue. Here is what I did : ip rule add prio 50 table main ip rule add prio 201 from ip1/netmask table 201 ip rule add prio 202 from ip2/netmask table 202 ip route add default via gateway1 dev interface1 src ip1 proto static table 201 ip route append prohibit default table 201 metric 1 proto static ip route add default via gateway2 dev interface2 src ip2 proto static table 202 ip route append prohibit default table 202 metric 1 proto static # mutipath ip rule add prio 221 table 221 ip route add default table 221 proto static \ nexthop via gateway1 dev interface1 weight 2\ nexthop via gateway2 dev interface2 weight 3

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  • Multiple SSL domains on the same IP address and same port?

    - by johnlai2004
    I set up an ubuntu 9.10 - apache2 - php5 server. I was under the impression that each valid SSL certificate (no domain wild cards) required it's own unique IP address and port number combination. But the answer to a previous question I posted is at odds with this claim: http://serverfault.com/questions/109766/ssl-site-not-using-the-correct-ip-in-apache-and-ubuntu Using the accepted answer, I was able to get multiple domains, each with it's own valid SSL to work on the same IP address and on port 443. I am very confused as to why the above answer works, especially after hearing from others that each SSL domain website on the same server requires its own IP+port combination. I am suspicious that I did something wrong. Can someone clear up the confusion? Websites currently using different SSL but on the same IP and Port are: https://www.yummyskin.com/ https://staging.bossystem.org/

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  • Why isn't 'ether proto \ip host host' a legal tcpdump expression?

    - by Ezequiel Garzon
    In its description of valid tcpdump expressions, the pcap-filter man pages state: The filter expression consists of one or more primitives. Primitives usually consist of an id (name or number) preceded by one or more qualifiers. In turn, these qualifiers are type, dir and proto. So far so good, but further down we find this: ip host host which is equivalent to: ether proto \ip and host host In the first case, ip and host are, respectively, proto and type. What pattern does ether proto \ip follow? Isn't that, as a whole, a proto qualifier? If so, why isn't (a properly escaped) 'ether proto \ip host host' legal (no and)?

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  • how to? 1 domain name, 1 ISP Static IP, 1 router, 3 physical web Servers

    - by buliwyf
    I have 1 Static IP from my ISP, 58.59.60.61 I have 3 local physical web servers: Win2008 IIS 7, local IP 192.168.10.11, mydomain.com Ubuntu Apache2, local IP 192.168.10.12, subdomain1.mydomain.com Win2003 IIS 6, local IP 192.168.10.13, subdomain2.mydomain.com I have 1 domain name, mydomain.com. It is configured this way: Host(A), @, 58.59.60.61 Host(A), subdomain1, 58.59.60.61 Host(A), subdomain2, 58.59.60.61 My router is a pfSense box. It forwards all port 80 traffic to a group alias called "WebServers," which is my 3 web server IP's. This setup should work right? I believe I need to set the "host header names" in my web servers. In IIS I know how to do this. How do I do this in Apache2?

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  • Why can't all zeros in the host portion of IP address be used for a host?

    - by Grezzo
    I know that if I have a network 83.23.159.0/24 then I have 254 usable host IP addresses because: 83.23.159.0 (in binary: host portion all zeros) is the subnet address 83.23.159.1-254 are host addresses 83.23.159.255 (in binary: host portion all ones) is the broadcast address I understand the use for a broadcast address, but I don't understand what the subnet address is ever used for. I can't see any reason that an IP packet's destination address would be set to the subnet address, so why does the subnet itself need an address if it is never going to be the endpoint for AN IP flow? To me it seems like a waste to not allow this address to be used as a host address. To summarise, my questions are: Is an IP packet's destination ever set to the subnet IP address? If yes, in what cases and why? If no, then why not free up that address for any host to use?

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  • Does connecting to the default host via public IP from within its subnet cause any issues?

    - by username
    I'm setting up a small office network with a single public IP (let's say it's 69.16.230.117). I've configured NAT on the router with incoming traffic forwarded to the server (say the server has a private IP of 192.168.0.2). Is it okay to configure the client machines on the same subnet to access the server via the router's public IP (69.16.230.117)? In practice it's never caused me problems, but I've heard, here and there, that it is a bad idea, and one should use the private IP (192.168.0.2). Does connecting to the default host via public IP from within its subnet cause any issues? Please refrain from writing "never! it breaks the intranet!" ;-)

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  • WCF, Metadata and BIGIP - Can I force the correct url for the WSDL items?

    - by Yossi Dahan
    We have a WCF service hosted on ServerA which is a server with no-direct Internet access and has a non-Internet routable IP address. The service is fronted by BIGIP which handles SSL encryption and decryption and forwards the unencrypted request to ServerA (at the moment it does NOT actually do any load balancing, but that is likely to be added in the future) on a specific port. What that means is that our clients would be calling the service through https://www.OurDomain.com/ServiceUrl and would get to our service on http://SeverA:85/ServiceUrl through the BIGIP device; When we browse to the WSDL published on https://www.OurDomain.com/ServiceUrl all the addresses contained in the WSDL are based on the http://SeverA:85/ServiceUrl base address We figured out that we could use the host headers setting to set the domain, but our problem is that while this would sort out the domain, we would still be using the wrong scheme – it would use http://www.OurDomain.com/ServiceUrl while we need it to be Https. Also – as we have other services (asmx based) hosted on that server we had some issues setting the host headers, and so we thought we could get away with creating another site on the server (using, say, port 82) and set the host header on that; now, on top of the http/https problem we have an issue as the WSDL contains the port number in all the urls, where BigIP works on port 443 (for the SSL) Is there a more flexible solution than implementing Host Headers? Ideally we need to retain flexibility and ease of supportability. Thanks for any help…

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  • Google app engine issue 777 particular solution?

    - by Niklas R
    I use 64.202.189.170 (godaddy) for a HTTP access to a www...on google app engine like GAE issue 777 so that a blank subdomain forwards to www.domain I get the blank to respond by output "This website is temporarily unavailable, please try again later. " There's info about this issue here http://knol.google.com/k/google-apps-discussion-group#view and here http://code.google.com/p/googleappengine/issues/detail?id=777 Since I managed to do it with a .com domain (The godaddy DNS hosted gralumo.com correctly responds to www..) I now want to do it with an off-site DNS managed domain getting the following info about servers: $ ping montao.com.br PING montao.com.br (64.202.189.170) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from pwfwd-v01.prod.mesa1.secureserver.net (64.202.189.170): icmp_seq=1 ttl=113 time=188 ms 64 bytes from pwfwd-v01.prod.mesa1.secureserver.net (64.202.189.170): icmp_seq=2 ttl=113 time=188 ms ^C --- montao.com.br ping statistics --- 2 packets transmitted, 2 received, 0% packet loss, time 1001ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 188.459/188.692/188.926/0.493 ms ubuntu@ubuntu:~$ ping www.montao.com.br PING ghs.l.google.com (74.125.43.121) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from bw-in-f121.1e100.net (74.125.43.121): icmp_seq=1 ttl=56 time=30.2 ms 64 bytes from bw-in-f121.1e100.net (74.125.43.121): icmp_seq=2 ttl=56 time=28.0 ms 64 bytes from bw-in-f121.1e100.net (74.125.43.121): icmp_seq=3 ttl=56 time=24.2 ms ^C --- ghs.l.google.com ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 3 received, 0% packet loss, time 2003ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 24.201/27.522/30.282/2.514 ms So it looks to me these are the same IP numbers whether or not it's off-site DNS. It's just that it works for one domain and not the other. Could it be just resetting the appspot app ie removing and adding it? Can you recommend how to proceed? Thanks in advance

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  • Block facebook from my website

    - by Joseph Szymborski
    I have a secure link direction service I'm running (expiringlinks.co). If I change the headers in php to redirect my visitors, then facebook is able to show a preview of the website I'm redirecting to when users send links to one another via facebook. I wish to avoid this. Right now, I'm using an AJAX call to get the URL and javascript to redirect, but it's causing problems for users who don't use javascript. Here are a number of ways I'd like to block facebook, but I can't seem to get working: I've tried blocking the facebook bot (facebookexternalhit/1.0 and facebookexternalhit/1.1) but it's not working, I don't think they're using them for this functionality. I'm thinking of blocking the facebook IP addresses, but I can't find all of them, and I don't think it'll work unless I get all of them. I've thought of using a CAPTCHA or even a button, but I can't bring myself to do that to my visitors. Not to mention I don't think anyone would use the site. I've searched the facebook docs for meta tags that would "opt-me out", but haven't found one, and doubt that I would trust it if I had. Any creative ideas or any idea how to implement the ones above? Thank you so much in advance!

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