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  • How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously perform an immediate validation?

    - by Velika2
    When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your &lt;b&gt;Occupation&lt;/b&gt;" SetFocusOnError="True">&nbsp;Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • wordpress add post validation

    - by dskanth
    This is embarrassing, but yet i am surprised to see that there is no validation by default while adding a new post in wordpress. When i don't enter a title and even content, and just hit Publish, it says that the post is published, and when i view the front end, there is no new post. How could wordpress skip the simple validation for adding a post? Atleast i expected a server side validation (if not client side). Don't know why the validation is skipped. It is upto wordpress, whether they incorporate it in the new versions. But i want to know how can i add a javascript (or jquery) validation for adding a post in wordpress. I know it must not at all be difficult. But being new to wordpress, i would like to get some hint. From Firebug, i could see the form is rendering like: <form id="post" method="post" action="post.php" name="post"> ... </form> Where shall i put my javascript validation code?

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  • Fluent NHibernate: mapping complex many-to-many (with additional columns) and setting fetch

    - by HackedByChinese
    I need a Fluent NHibernate mapping that will fulfill the following (if nothing else, I'll also take the appropriate NHibernate XML mapping and reverse engineer it). DETAILS I have a many-to-many relationship between two entities: Parent and Child. That is accomplished by an additional table to store the identities of the Parent and Child. However, I also need to define two additional columns on that mapping that provide more information about the relationship. This is roughly how I've defined my types, at least the relevant parts (where Entity is some base type that provides an Id property and checks for equivalence based on that Id): public class Parent : Entity { public virtual IList<ParentChildRelationship> Children { get; protected set; } public virtual void AddChildRelationship(Child child, int customerId) { var relationship = new ParentChildRelationship { CustomerId = customerId, Parent = this, Child = child }; if (Children == null) Children = new List<ParentChildRelationship>(); if (Children.Contains(relationship)) return; relationship.Sequence = Children.Count; Children.Add(relationship); } } public class Child : Entity { // child doesn't care about its relationships } public class ParentChildRelationship { public int CustomerId { get; set; } public Parent Parent { get; set; } public Child Child { get; set; } public int Sequence { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { if (ReferenceEquals(null, obj)) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, obj)) return true; var other = obj as ParentChildRelationship; if (return other == null) return false; return (CustomerId == other.CustomerId && Parent == other.Parent && Child == other.Child); } public override int GetHashCode() { unchecked { int result = CustomerId; result = Parent == null ? 0 : (result*397) ^ Parent.GetHashCode(); result = Child == null ? 0 : (result*397) ^ Child.GetHashCode(); return result; } } } The tables in the database look approximately like (assume primary/foreign keys and forgive syntax): create table Parent ( id int identity(1,1) not null ) create table Child ( id int identity(1,1) not null ) create table ParentChildRelationship ( customerId int not null, parent_id int not null, child_id int not null, sequence int not null ) I'm OK with Parent.Children being a lazy loaded property. However, the ParentChildRelationship should eager load ParentChildRelationship.Child. Furthermore, I want to use a Join when I eager load. The SQL, when accessing Parent.Children, NHibernate should generate an equivalent query to: SELECT * FROM ParentChildRelationship rel LEFT OUTER JOIN Child ch ON rel.child_id = ch.id WHERE parent_id = ? OK, so to do that I have mappings that look like this: ParentMap : ClassMap<Parent> { public ParentMap() { Table("Parent"); Id(c => c.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); HasMany(c => c.Children).KeyColumn("parent_id"); } } ChildMap : ClassMap<Child> { public ChildMap() { Table("Child"); Id(c => c.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); } } ParentChildRelationshipMap : ClassMap<ParentChildRelationship> { public ParentChildRelationshipMap() { Table("ParentChildRelationship"); CompositeId() .KeyProperty(c => c.CustomerId, "customerId") .KeyReference(c => c.Parent, "parent_id") .KeyReference(c => c.Child, "child_id"); Map(c => c.Sequence).Not.Nullable(); } } So, in my test if i try to get myParentRepo.Get(1).Children, it does in fact get me all the relationships and, as I access them from the relationship, the Child objects (for example, I can grab them all by doing parent.Children.Select(r => r.Child).ToList()). However, the SQL that NHibernate is generating is inefficient. When I access parent.Children, NHIbernate does a SELECT * FROM ParentChildRelationship WHERE parent_id = 1 and then a SELECT * FROM Child WHERE id = ? for each child in each relationship. I understand why NHibernate is doing this, but I can't figure out how to set up the mapping to make NHibernate query the way I mentioned above.

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  • Fluent NHibernate/SQL Server 2008 insert query problem

    - by Mark
    Hi all, I'm new to Fluent NHibernate and I'm running into a problem. I have a mapping defined as follows: public PersonMapping() { Id(p => p.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1000"); Map(p => p.FirstName).Not.Nullable().Length(50); Map(p => p.MiddleInitial).Nullable().Length(1); Map(p => p.LastName).Not.Nullable().Length(50); Map(p => p.Suffix).Nullable().Length(3); Map(p => p.SSN).Nullable().Length(11); Map(p => p.BirthDate).Nullable(); Map(p => p.CellPhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.HomePhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.WorkPhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.OtherPhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.EmailAddress).Nullable().Length(50); Map(p => p.DriversLicenseNumber).Nullable().Length(50); Component<Address>(p => p.CurrentAddress, m => { m.Map(p => p.Line1, "Line1").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Line2, "Line2").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.City, "City").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.State, "State").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Zip, "Zip").Length(2); }); Map(p => p.EyeColor).Nullable().Length(3); Map(p => p.HairColor).Nullable().Length(3); Map(p => p.Gender).Nullable().Length(1); Map(p => p.Height).Nullable(); Map(p => p.Weight).Nullable(); Map(p => p.Race).Nullable().Length(1); Map(p => p.SkinTone).Nullable().Length(3); HasMany(p => p.PriorAddresses).Cascade.All(); } public PreviousAddressMapping() { Table("PriorAddress"); Id(p => p.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1000"); Map(p => p.EndEffectiveDate).Not.Nullable(); Component<Address>(p => p.Address, m => { m.Map(p => p.Line1, "Line1").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Line2, "Line2").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.City, "City").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.State, "State").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Zip, "Zip").Length(2); }); } My test is [Test] public void can_correctly_map_Person_with_Addresses() { var myPerson = new Person("Jane", "", "Doe"); var priorAddresses = new[] { new PreviousAddress(ObjectMother.GetAddress1(), DateTime.Parse("05/13/2010")), new PreviousAddress(ObjectMother.GetAddress2(), DateTime.Parse("05/20/2010")) }; new PersistenceSpecification<Person>(Session) .CheckProperty(c => c.FirstName, myPerson.FirstName) .CheckProperty(c => c.LastName, myPerson.LastName) .CheckProperty(c => c.MiddleInitial, myPerson.MiddleInitial) .CheckList(c => c.PriorAddresses, priorAddresses) .VerifyTheMappings(); } GetAddress1() (yeah, horrible name) has Line2 == null The tables seem to be created correctly in sql server 2008, but the test fails with a SQLException "String or binary data would be truncated." When I grab the sql statement in SQL Profiler, I get exec sp_executesql N'INSERT INTO PriorAddress (Line1, Line2, City, State, Zip, EndEffectiveDate, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2, @p3, @p4, @p5, @p6)',N'@p0 nvarchar(18),@p1 nvarchar(4000),@p2 nvarchar(10),@p3 nvarchar(2),@p4 nvarchar(5),@p5 datetime,@p6 int',@p0=N'6789 Somewhere Rd.',@p1=NULL,@p2=N'Hot Coffee',@p3=N'MS',@p4=N'09876',@p5='2010-05-13 00:00:00',@p6=1001 Notice the @p1 parameter is being set to nvarchar(4000) and being passed a NULL value. Why is it setting the parameter to nvarchar(4000)? How can I fix it? Thanks!

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  • Custom validator not invoked when using Validation Application Block through configuration

    - by Chris
    I have set up a ruleset in my configuration file which has two validators, one of which is a built-in NotNullValidator, the other of which is a custom validator. The problem is that I see the NotNullValidator hit, but not my custom validator. The custom validator is being used to validate an Entity Framework entity object. I have used the debugger to confirm the NotNull is hit (I forced a failure condition so I saw it set an invalid result), but it never steps into the custom one. I am using MVC as the web app, so I defined the ruleset in a config file at that layer, but my custom validator is defined in another project. However, I wouldn't have thought that to be a problem because when I use the Enterprise Library Configuration tool inside Visual Studio 2008 it is able to set the type properly for the custom validator. As well, I believe the custom validator is fine as it builds ok, and the config tool can reference it properly. Does anybody have any ideas what the problem could be, or even what to do/try to debug further? Here is a stripped down version of my custom validator: [ConfigurationElementType(typeof(CustomValidatorData))] public sealed class UserAccountValidator : Validator { public UserAccountValidator(NameValueCollection attributes) : base(string.Empty, "User Account") { } protected override string DefaultMessageTemplate { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } protected override void DoValidate(object objectToValidate, object currentTarget, string key, ValidationResults results) { if (!currentTarget.GetType().Equals(typeof(UserAccount))) { throw new Exception(); } UserAccount userAccountToValidate = (UserAccount)currentTarget; // snipped code ... this.LogValidationResult(results, "The User Account is invalid", currentTarget, key); } } Here is the XML of my ruleset in Validation.config (the NotNull rule is only there to force a failure so I could see it getting hit, and it does): <validation> <type defaultRuleset="default" assemblyName="MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="MyProj.Entities.UserAccount"> <ruleset name="default"> <properties> <property name="HashedPassword"> <validator negated="true" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.NotNullValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" name="Not Null Validator" /> </property> <property name="Property"> <validator messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="MyProj.Entities.UserAccountValidator, MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="Custom Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> </type> </validation> And here is the stripped down version of the way I invoke the validation: var type = entity.GetType() var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator(type, "default", new FileConfigurationSource("Validation.config")) var results = validator.Validate(entity) Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks, Chris

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  • Crazy Linq: performing System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations validation in a single statement

    - by Daniel Cazzulino
    public static IEnumerable&lt;ValidationResult&gt; Validate(object component) { return from descriptor in TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(component).Cast&lt;PropertyDescriptor&gt;() from validation in descriptor.Attributes.OfType&lt;System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute&gt;() where !validation.IsValid(descriptor.GetValue(component)) select new ValidationResult( validation.ErrorMessage ?? string.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, "{0} validation failed.", validation.GetType().Name), new[] { descriptor.Name }); } ...Read full article

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  • Display errors besides input fields and also in a vallidation summary using jquery validate plugin

    - by LD2008
    Hi all, Using jQuery validation plugin, how can I configure it so that I have the error labels appear beside the input fields, and also inside a validation summary? I can make them either display besides the input fields OR inside a validation summary, but not in both. I'd like to have the error messages duplicated (one for the input field and another for the validation summary). Is it possible? If yes, how? Thanks

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  • Custom Validation - Dependent Drop Down Lists

    - by Holysmoke
    Hi, I've two columns in a sheet that are interdependent and I want to use validation, drop-down lists, on both as follows: Column A (TYPE) | Column B (Sub-TYPE) ------------------------------------------| TypeA, TypeB | If TypeA SubTypeA1, | ... TypeN | SubTypeA2 ... SubTypeAN | ------------------------------------------| Creating the column A drop down is trivial. How do I create the Column B drop down, that in turn depends on what was chosen in Column A? TIA

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  • Why is this UL and inline JS giving errors during HTML validation?

    - by thor
    I've just run the homepage of a site I'm working on through the w3c HTML validator and it's come back with 3 errors and 2 warnings. I've taken a look at them but can't see why they would be causing a problem. I've pasted them in below (I've removed URL's/strings etc as the site isn't quite ready to be made public yet). This is being validated against XHTML Transitional by the way. The UL comes back with the following error: end tag for "ul" which is not finished <ul id='tabs'></ul> <ul id='tabs'> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat1" class="tab1" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab1_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat2" class="tab2" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab2_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat3" class="tab3" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab3_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat4" class="tab4" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab4_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat5" class="tab5" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab5_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat6" class="tab6" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab6_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat7" class="tab7" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab7_text </span> </a> </li> <li> <a href="/en/folder/folder/search?categories[]=cat8" class="tab8" title="tab_title"> <img alt="img_alt" src="img_src" /> <span> tab8_text </span> </a> </li> </ul> For the inline javascript, I'm getting 2 errors and 2 warnings all for the same thing - I have a simple if statement with && and the validator appears to be seeing this as HTML rather than javascript: character "&amp;" is the first character of a delimiter but occurred as data and xmlParseEntityRef: no name <script type='text/javascript'> if (weather_data != null && weather_data['data'] != null){ display_weather(); } </script> The javascript is placed just before the body close tag at the end of the document. If you need to see the full source then let me know and I can send it over.

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  • How do I make a Data Validation drop-down exclude blanks?

    - by Iszi
    Related: How can I use non-adjacent cells on another sheet for a Data Validation drop-down, and only show non-blank values? For now, I've worked around the above problem by re-arranging my sheet so all the Data Validation Source cells are in one range. I'm leaving the above question open though, because I think it still poses an interesting problem. However, the issue now is that the Data Validation drop-down isn't working in the way I expected it to (and how I believe others are telling me it should). Even though I've got everything into one named range, Excel still shows blanks in a drop-down that references that range. Setup: Sheet 1 A1= (blank) B1= Header A2= 1 B2= Value1 A3= 2 B3= Value2 A4= 3 B4= Value3 A5= 4 B5= (empty) A6= 5 B6= (empty) A7= 6 B7= (empty) Sheet1!B2:B7 is named Validation Sheet2!A1 is set to use Data Validation with a Source =Validation, and in-cell drop-down. The drop-down in Sheet2!A1 shows: Value1 Value2 Value3 . . . (Dots represent blank lines) How can I get rid of these blank lines in the in-cell drop-down, while still including Sheet1!B5:B7 in the Data Validation Source? Note: I nuked the sheet, and tried it again without column A from Sheet1 (putting values from column B in the above example into column A), and it worked fine. Adding Column A back though, brought the blanks back into the Data Validation drop-down. What do I need to do to keep column A as I want it and keep the in-cell drop-down clean?

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  • Fluent NHibernate View Mapping requires Id Column

    - by Matt
    Hi Trying to use FNH to map a view - FNH insists on having a Id property mapped. However not all of my views have a unique identifing column. I can get around this with XML mappings as I can just specify a <id type="int"> <generator class="increment"/> </id> at the top of the mapping. Is there any way to duplicate this in FNH...? TIA Matt

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  • Fluent NHibernate Map Enum as Lookup Table

    - by Jaimal Chohan
    I have the following (simplified) public enum Level { Bronze, Silver, Gold } public class Member { public virtual Level MembershipLevel { get; set; } } public class MemberMap : ClassMap<Member> { Map(x => x.MembershipLevel); } This creates a table with a column called MembershipLevel with the value as the Enum string value. What I want is for the entire Enum to be created as a lookup table, with the Membe table referencing this with the integer value as the FK. Also, I want to do this without bas***izing my model. Any ideas? [And I want time machine] [With 2 cup holders]

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  • ASP.NET Ajax.BeginForm Posts Even If Validation Fails

    - by Acoustic
    I'm just overlooking something simple... but my form, which is an Ajax form, always submits even if the validation fails. I'm not using jQuery validation, just the standard .NET MVC validation. Each of the field failing get show the validation message and highlight the field, but the form just submits anyway. Is there an OnBegin script I can call to prevent the form from submitting if there are errors? Thanks for the help! Ajax.BeginForm("EditUserProfile", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "Post", OnComplete = ToggleViews", UpdateTargetId ="userProfileContainer" })

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  • Fluent NHibernate Mapping and Formulas/DatePart

    - by Alessandro Di Lello
    Hi There, i have a very simple table with a Datetime column and i have this mapping in my domain object. MyDate is the name of the datetime column in the DB. public virtual int Day { get; set; } public virtual int Month { get; set; } public virtual int Year { get; set; } public virtual int Hour { get; set; } public virtual int Minutes { get; set; } public virtual int Seconds { get;set; } public virtual int WeekNo { get; set; } Map(x => x.Day).Formula("DATEPART(day, Datetime)"); Map(x => x.Month).Formula("DATEPART(month, Datetime)"); Map(x => x.Year).Formula("DATEPART(year, Datetime)"); Map(x => x.Hour).Formula("DATEPART(hour, Datetime)"); Map(x => x.Minutes).Formula("DATEPART(minute, Datetime)"); Map(x => x.Seconds).Formula("DATEPART(second, Datetime)"); Map(x => x.WeekNo).Formula("DATEPART(week, Datetime)"); This is working all great .... but Week Datepart. I saw with NHProf the sql generating for a select and here's the problem it's generating all the sql correctly but for week datepart.. this is part of the SQL generated: ....Datepart(day, MyDate) ... ....Datepart(month, MyDate) ... ....Datepart(year, MyDate) ... ....Datepart(hour, MyDate) ... ....Datepart(minute, MyDate) ... ....Datepart(second, MyDate) ... ....Datepart(this_.week, MyDate) ... where this_ is the alias for the table that nhibernate uses. so it's treating the week keyword for the datepart stuff as a column or something like that. To clarify there's no column or properties that is called week. some help ? cheers Alessandro

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  • Fluent NHibernate Automapping with RIA services

    - by VexXtreme
    Hi guys I've encountered a slight problem recently, or rather a lack of understanding of how NHibernate automapping works with RIA data services. Namely, I don't understand how to use Association and Include attributes. For instance, I've created two tables in my database and corresponding classes (that NHibernate correctly fills). The problem is, RIA doesn't generate properties (collections) bound by foreign key to other tables, on the client side, although I've defined them in my classes in my domain model... it generates just properties that belong to their own class, on the client side. I assume that these attributes aren't necessary since NHibernate automapper is supposed to fill those collections on it's own... I'm quite confused as to how this works. And I don't understand why RIA simply skips properties such as public virtual IList<Medication> Medications{ get; set; } during autogeneration. Any input is appreciated Thanks

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  • Spring MVC jQuery remote validation

    - by raulsan
    Hi, I am using Spring MVC on the server side, but in one of the pages I decided to create an AJAX validation with jQuery rather than the default Spring validation. Everything works great, except when I have to do a remote validation to check if a "title" already exists. For the javascript I have the following: var validator = $("form").validate({ rules: { title: { minlength: 6, required: true, remote: { url: location.href.substring(0,location.href.lastIndexOf('/'))+"/checkLocalArticleTitle.do", type: "GET" } }, html: { minlength: 50, required: true } }, messages: { title: { required: "A title is required.", remote: "This title already exists." } } }); Then, I use Spring-Json to make this validation and give a response: @RequestMapping("/checkLocalArticleTitle.do") public ModelAndView checkLocalArticleTitle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { Map model = new HashMap(); String result = "FALSE"; try{ String title = request.getParameter("title"); if(!EJBRequester.articleExists(title)){ result = "TRUE"; } }catch(Exception e){ System.err.println("Exception: " + e.getMessage()); } model.put("result",result); return new ModelAndView("jsonView", model); } However, this does not work and the field "title" is never validated. I think the reason for this is that I am returning an answer in the manner: {result:"TRUE"} when in fact, the answer should be: {"TRUE"} I don't know how to return a single response like this one using a ModelAndView answer. Another thing that is not working is the customized message for the "remote" validation: messages: { title: { required: "A title is required.", remote: "This title already exists." } }, The required message works, but not the remote message. I looked around, but I didn't see many people using Spring and jQuery at the same time. I would appreciate some help here.

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  • NHibernate L2 Cache - fluent nHibernate configuration

    - by AWC
    I've managed to configure the L2 cache for Get\Load in FHN, but it's not working for queries configured using the ICriteria interface - it doesn't cache the results from these queries. Does anyone know why? The configurations are as follows: ICriteria: return unitOfWork .CurrentSession .CreateCriteria(typeof(Country)) .SetCacheable(true); Entity Mapping: public sealed class CountryMap : ClassMap<Country>, IMap { public CountryMap() { Table("Countries"); Not.LazyLoad(); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.TwoLetter); Map(x => x.ThreeLetter); Map(x => x.Name); } } And the session factory configuration for the database property: return () => MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(BuildConnectionString()) .ShowSql() .Cache(c => c.UseQueryCache() .QueryCacheFactory<StandardQueryCacheFactory>() .ProviderClass(configuration.RepositoryCacheType) .UseMinimalPuts()) .FormatSql() .UseReflectionOptimizer(); Cheers AWC

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  • Fluent NHibernate and PostgreSQL, SchemaMetadataUpdater.QuoteTableAndColumns - System.NotSupportedEx

    - by Vyacheslav
    Hello! I'm using fluentnhibernate with PostgreSQL. Fluentnhibernate is last version. PosrgreSQL version is 8.4. My code for create ISessionFactory: public static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { string connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["PostgreConnectionString"].ConnectionString; IPersistenceConfigurer config = PostgreSQLConfiguration.PostgreSQL82.ConnectionString(connectionString); FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently .Configure() .Database(config) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.Add(typeof(ResourceMap)) .Add(typeof(TaskMap)) .Add(typeof(PluginMap))); var nhibConfig = configuration.BuildConfiguration(); SchemaMetadataUpdater.QuoteTableAndColumns(nhibConfig); return configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } When I'm execute code at line SchemaMetadataUpdater.QuoteTableAndColumns(nhibConfig); throw error: System.NotSupportedException: Specified method is not supported. Help me, please! I'm very need for solution. Best regards

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  • Fluent Nhibernate - Mapping two entities to same table

    - by Andy
    Hi, I'm trying to map two domain entities to the same table. We're doing a smart entity for our domain model, so we have the concept of an Editable Address and a readonly Address. I have both mapped using Classmaps, and everything seems to go fine until we try to export the schema using the SchemaExport class from NHibernate. It errors out saying the table already exists. I assume it's something simple that I'm just not seeing. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Fluent nhibernate: Enum in composite key gets mapped to int when I need string

    - by Quintin Par
    By default the behaviour of FNH is to map enums to its string in the db. But while mapping an enum as part of a composite key, the property gets mapped as int. e.g. in this case public class Address : Entity { public Address() { } public virtual AddressType Type { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } Where AddresType is of public enum AddressType { PRESENT, COMPANY, PERMANENT } The FNH mapping is as mapping.CompositeId().KeyReference(x => x.User, "user_id").KeyProperty(x => x.Type); the schema creation of this mapping results in create table address ( Type INTEGER not null, user_id VARCHAR(25) not null, and the hbm as <composite-id mapped="true" unsaved-value="undefined"> <key-property name="Type" type="Company.Core.AddressType, Company.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"> <column name="Type" /> </key-property> <key-many-to-one name="User" class="Company.Core.CompanyUser, Company.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"> <column name="user_id" /> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> Where the AddressType should have be generated as type="FluentNHibernate.Mapping.GenericEnumMapper`1[[Company.Core.AddressType, How do I instruct FNH to mappit as the default string enum generic mapper?

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  • (Fluent)NHibernate: Mapping an IDictionary<MappedClass, MyEnum>

    - by anthony
    I've found a number of posts about this but none seem to help me directly. Also there seems to be confusion about solutions working or not working during different stages of FluentNHibernate's development. I have the following classes: public class MappedClass { ... } public enum MyEnum { One, Two } public class Foo { ... public virtual IDictionary<MappedClass, MyEnum> Values { get; set; } } My questions are: Will I need a separate (third) table of MyEnum? How can I map the MyEnum type? Should I? What should Foo's mapping look like? I've tried mapping HasMany(x = x.Values).AsMap("MappedClass")... This results in: NHibernate.MappingException : Association references unmapped class: MyEnum

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  • Fluent interface design and code smell

    - by Jiho Han
    public class StepClause { public NamedStepClause Action1() {} public NamedStepClause Action2() {} } public class NamedStepClause : StepClause { public StepClause Step(string name) {} } Basically, I want to be able to do something like this: var workflow = new Workflow().Configure() .Action1() .Step("abc").Action2() .Action2() .Step("def").Action1(); So, some "steps" are named and some are not. The thing I do not like is that the StepClause has knowledge of its derived class NamedStepClause. I tried a couple of things to make this sit better with me. I tried to move things out to interfaces but then the problem just moved from the concrete to the interfaces - INamedStepClause still need to derive from IStepClause and IStepClause needs to return INamedStepClause to be able to call Step(). I could also make Step() part of a completely separate type. Then we do not have this problem and we'd have: var workflow = new Workflow().Configure() .Step().Action1() .Step("abc").Action2() .Step().Action2() .Step("def").Action1(); Which is ok but I'd like to make the step-naming optional if possible. I found this other post on SO here which looks interesting and promising. What are your opinions? I'd think the original solution is completely unacceptable or is it? By the way, those action methods will take predicates and functors and I don't think I want to take an additional parameter for naming the step there. The point of it all is, for me, is to only define these action methods in one place and one place only. So the solutions from the referenced link using generics and extension methods seem to be the best approaches so far.

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