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  • VSC++, virtual method at bad adress, curious bug

    - by antoon.groenewoud
    Hello, This guy: virtual phTreeClass* GetTreeClass() const { return (phTreeClass*)m_entity_class; } When called, crashed the program with an access violation, even after a full recompile. All member functions and virtual member functions had correct memory adresses (I hovered mouse over the methods in debug mode), but this function had a bad memory adress: 0xfffffffc. Everything looked okay: the 'this' pointer, and everything works fine up until this function call. This function is also pretty old and I didn't change it for a long time. The problem just suddenly popped up after some work, which I commented all out to see what was doing it, without any success. So I removed the virtual, compiled, and it works fine. I add virtual, compiled, and it still works fine! I basically changed nothing, and remember that I did do a full recompile earlier, and still had the error back then. I wasn't able to reproduce the problem. But now it is back. I didn't change anything. Removing virtual fixes the problem. Sincerely, Antoon

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  • How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

    - by Kyle Kaitan
    Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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  • Box2D in Flash runs quicker when drawing debug data than not

    - by bowdengm
    I've created a small game with Box2d for AS3 - I have sprites attached to the stage that take their position from the underlying Box2d world. These sprites are mostly PNGs. When the game runs with DrawDebugData() bening called every update, it runs nice and smoothly. However when I comment this out, it runs choppily. In both cases all my sprites are being rendered. So it seems that it's running faster when it's drawing the debug data additionaly (i.e. my sprites are on the screen in both cases!) What's going on? Does drawing the debug data flick some sort of 'render quick' switch? If so, what's the switch!? I can't see it in the Box2D code. function Update(e){ m_world.Step(m_timeStep, m_velocityIterations, m_positionIterations); // draw debug? m_world.DrawDebugData(); // with the above line in, I get 27fps, without it, I get 19fps. // that's the only change that's causing such a huge difference. doStuff(); } Interestingly, If i set the debug draw scale to something different to my world scale, it slows down to 19fps. So there's something happening when it draws the boxes under my sprites causing it to run quicker.. Cheers, Guy

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • media.set_xx giving me grief!

    - by Firas
    New guy here. I asked a while back about a sprite recolouring program that I was having difficulty with and got some great responses. Basically, I tried to write a program that would recolour pixels of all the pictures in a given folder from one given colour to another. I believe I have it down, but, now the program is telling me that I have an invalid value specified for the red component of my colour. (ValueError: Invalid red value specified.), even though it's only being changed from 64 to 56. Any help on the matter would be appreciated! (Here's the code, in case I messed up somewhere else; It's in Python): import os import media import sys def recolour(old, new, folder): old_list = old.split(' ') new_list = new.split(' ') folder_location = os.path.join('C:\', 'Users', 'Owner', 'Spriting', folder) for filename in os.listdir (folder): current_file = media.load_picture(folder_location + '\\' + filename) for pix in current_file: if (media.get_red(pix) == int(old_list[0])) and \ (media.get_green(pix) == int(old_list[1])) and \ (media.get_blue(pix) == int(old_list[2])): media.set_red(pix, new_list[0]) media.set_green(pix, new_list[1]) media.set_blue(pix, new_list[2]) media.save(pic) if name == 'main': while 1: old = str(raw_input('Please insert the original RGB component, separated by a single space: ')) if old == 'quit': sys.exit(0) new = str(raw_input('Please insert the new RGB component, separated by a single space: ')) if new == 'quit': sys.exit(0) folder = str(raw_input('Please insert the name of the folder you wish to modify: ')) if folder == 'quit': sys.exit(0) else: recolour(old, new, folder)

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  • C++: static assert for const variables?

    - by shoosh
    Static asserts are very convenient for checking things in compile time. A simple static assert idiom looks like this: template<bool> struct StaticAssert; template<> struct StaticAssert<true> {}; #define STATIC_ASSERT(condition) do { StaticAssert<condition>(); } while(0) This is good for stuff like STATIC_ASSERT(sizeof(float) == 4) and: #define THIS_LIMIT (1000) ... STATIC_ASSERT(THIS_LIMIT > OTHER_LIMIT); But using #define is not the "C++" way of defining constants. C++ would have you use an anonymous namespace: namespace { const int THIS_LIMIT = 1000; } or even: static const int THIS_LIMIT = 1000; The trouble with this is that with a const int you can't use STATIC_ASSERT() and you must resort to a run-time check which is silly. Is there a way to properly solve this in current C++? I think I've read C++0x has some facility to do this...

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  • Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

    - by AVH
    I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

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  • Why is alert not run even though $.getJSON runs fine? (Callback not executed, even though the reques

    - by Emre Sevinç
    I have a snippet of code such as: $.getJSON("http://mysite.org/polls/saveLanguageTest?url=" + escape(window.location.href) + "&callback=?", function (data) { var serverResponse = data.result; console.log(serverResponse); alert(serverResponse); }); It works fine in the sense that it makes a cross-domain request to my server and the server saves the data as I expect. Unfortunately, even though the server saves data and sends back a response I just can't get any alert or the console.log run. Why may be that? The server side code is (if that is relevant): def saveLanguageTest(request): callback = request.GET.get('callback', '') person = Person(firstName = 'Anonymous', ipAddress = request.META['REMOTE_ADDR']) person.save() webPage = WebPage(url = request.GET.get('url')) webPage.save() langTest = LanguageTest(type = 'prepositionTest') langTest.person = person langTest.webPage = webPage langTest.save() req ['result'] = 'Your test is saved.' response = json.dumps(req) response = callback + '(' + response + ');' return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") What am I missing? (I tried the same code both within my web pages and inside the Firebug and I always have the problem stated above.)

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  • What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

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  • Handling close-to-impossible collisions on should-be-unique values

    - by balpha
    There are many systems that depend on the uniqueness of some particular value. Anything that uses GUIDs comes to mind (eg. the Windows registry or other databases), but also things that create a hash from an object to identify it and thus need this hash to be unique. A hash table usually doesn't mind if two objects have the same hash because the hashing is just used to break down the objects into categories, so that on lookup, not all objects in the table, but only those objects in the same category (bucket) have to be compared for identity to the searched object. Other implementations however (seem to) depend on the uniqueness. My example (that's what lead me to asking this) is Mercurial's revision IDs. An entry on the Mercurial mailing list correctly states The odds of the changeset hash colliding by accident in your first billion commits is basically zero. But we will notice if it happens. And you'll get to be famous as the guy who broke SHA1 by accident. But even the tiniest probability doesn't mean impossible. Now, I don't want an explanation of why it's totally okay to rely on the uniqueness (this has been discussed here for example). This is very clear to me. Rather, I'd like to know (maybe by means of examples from your own work): Are there any best practices as to covering these improbable cases anyway? Should they be ignored, because it's more likely that particularly strong solar winds lead to faulty hard disk reads? Should they at least be tested for, if only to fail with a "I give up, you have done the impossible" message to the user? Or should even these cases get handled gracefully? For me, especially the following are interesting, although they are somewhat touchy-feely: If you don't handle these cases, what do you do against gut feelings that don't listen to probabilities? If you do handle them, how do you justify this work (to yourself and others), considering there are more probable cases you don't handle, like a supernonva?

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  • PayPal sandbox anomalies

    - by Christian
    When testing some donations on my local machine, I set various key=value pairs to do various things (return to specific thank you page, get POST data from PayPal and not GET data and others) I also built my code around the response from the PayPal sandbox. BUT, when my code goes to the production server and we switch on live payments and test with real accounts and money, a few strange things happen; We get a GET response from PayPal - the URL is filled with crap. We get no transaction details. This is the biggie, no name, no txn_id, no dates, nothing. We get a handful of keys etc, its not totally empty and the payment has gone through, but nowhere near the verbosity of the sandbox. Curious about why this might be? It doesn't really make sense to have a sandbox (or dev environment) that is substantially different from the production environment. Or, am I missing something? EDIT: Still no response to my question in the PayPal Developer Forums. I don't even get a donation amount back from PayPal. Is this a setting maybe? EDIT #2: Two of you have suggested to check PDT and Auto-Return. The data analytics guy for the project only 2 hrs ago suggested the same. I have asked the client to confirm this. I can't see a setting for it in the Sandbox so can assume that it is enabled by default?

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  • How is this Perl code selecting two different elements from an array?

    - by Mike
    I have inherited some code from a guy whose favorite past time was to shorten every line to its absolute minimum (and sometimes only to make it look cool). His code is hard to understand but I managed to understand (and rewrite) most of it. Now I have stumbled on a piece of code which, no matter how hard I try, I cannot understand. my @heads = grep {s/\.txt$//} OSA::Fast::IO::Ls->ls($SysKey,'fo','osr/tiparlo',qr{^\d+\.txt$}) || (); my @selected_heads = (); for my $i (0..1) { $selected_heads[$i] = int rand scalar @heads; for my $j (0..@heads-1) { last if (!grep $j eq $_, @selected_heads[0..$i-1]); $selected_heads[$i] = ($selected_heads[$i] + 1) % @heads; #WTF? } my $head_nr = sprintf "%04d", $i; OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].txt","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.txt"); OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].cache","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.cache"); } From what I can understand, this is supposed to be some kind of randomizer, but I never saw a more complex way to achieve randomness. Or are my assumptions wrong? At least, that's what this code is supposed to do. Select 2 random files and copy them. === NOTES === The OSA Framework is a Framework of our own. They are named after their UNIX counterparts and do some basic testing so that the application does not need to bother with that.

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  • How can I limit asp.net control actions based on user role?

    - by Duke
    I have several pages or views in my application which are essentially the same for both authenticated users and anonymous users. I'd like to limit the insert/update/delete actions in formviews and gridviews to authenticated users only, and allow read access for both authed and anon users. I'm using the asp.net configuration system for handling authentication and roles. This system limits access based on path so I've been creating duplicate pages for authed and anon paths. The solution that comes to mind immediately is to check roles in the appropriate event handlers, limiting what possible actions are displayed (insert/update/delete buttons) and also limiting what actions are performed (for users that may know how to perform an action in the absence of a button.) However, this solution doesn't eliminate duplication - I'd be duplicating security code on a series of pages rather than duplicating pages and limiting access based on path; the latter would be significantly less complicated. I could always build some controls that offered role-based configuration, but I don't think I have time for that kind of commitment right now. Is there a relatively easy way to do this (do such controls exist?) or should I just stick to path-based access and duplicate pages? Does it even make sense to use two methods of authorization? There are still some pages which are strictly for either role so I'll be making use of path-based authorization anyway. Finally, would using something other than path-based authorization be contrary to typical asp.net design practices, at least in the context of using the asp.net configuration system?

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  • What *is* an IPM.DistList?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm trying to get the recipient addresses within an IPM.DistList that is stored in a public folder (of type contacts) in Exchange 2003. The typeName of the object (once I get hold of it) is a Message (with a parent object being a Messages collection) and the messageType is "IPM.DistList". I can find all sorts of things about IPM.DistListItems, which you would think an IPM.DistList would contain, but there apparently isn't any documentation on the DistList (that I can find) and DistListItems documentation lists no parent possibilities in MSDN. I'll state it another way in case I've left you confused: We have an Exchange 2003 info store with Public Folders. Within those Public Folders is a [sub]folder (that holds items of type "Contact") that has a bunch of distribution lists (IPM.DistList's) that have contact entries, members of the list essentially. I need to get the addresses of the members of the lists in the Public Folder sub-folder using any VB language, because the company I work for hired me as a VB guy and expects me to write VB solutions, even though I could do it in C++... alas, I digress. VB is the language I'm supposed to figure this out in. (.net, script, vba, vb6, it doesn't matter which one. Yes, I know vb.net is not really related to those that came before, but they don't know that.) Anyone ran into anything like this? Am I just not finding the IPM.DistList documentation but it does actually exist somewhere? This isn't a Message.MAPIOBJECT (iUnknown) problem is it? Thanks.... Jeremy

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Java Function Analysis

    - by khan
    Okay..I am a total Python guy and have very rarely worked with Java and its methods. The condition is that I have a got a Java function that I have to explain to my instructor and I have got no clue about how to do so..so if one of you can read this properly, kindly help me out in breaking it down and explaining it. Also, i need to find out any flaw in its operation (i.e. usage of loops, etc.) if there is any. Finally, what is the difference between 'string' and 'string[]' types? public static void search(String findfrom, String[] thething){ if(thething.length > 5){ System.err.println("The thing is quite long"); } else{ int[] rescount = new int[thething.length]; for(int i = 0; i < thething.length; i++){ String[] characs = findfrom.split("[ \"\'\t\n\b\f\r]", 0); for(int j = 0; j < characs.length; j++){ if(characs[j].compareTo(thething[i]) == 0){ rescount[i]++; } } } for (int j = 0; j < thething.length; j++) { System.out.println(thething[j] + ": " + rescount[j]); } } }

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  • PHP driven site needs password change.

    - by Drea
    I have inherited a website that needs the password changed that accesses the database. I can see that there are two tables within the database but neither of them have username or password info. The previous web guy moved out of the country and can't be reached. I am not up-to-speed enough to figure this out. I have gone through all the files to try and find the answer but can't get it. It's hosted by goDaddy.com and I have changed the passwords there but it didn't change this login info. www.executivehomerents.com/cpanel <-this brings up the prompt for the username & password which I won't give out but the page only gives you 5 choices and none of them deal with changing the password. They are simply to change the data in the tables. If you go to: http://www.websitedatabases.com/ <=this is the company that the PHPMagic program was purchased from-- They have no contact number. Here is another page that might help: http://www.executivehomerents.com/cpanel/dbinput/setup.php I don't think I'll get an answer to this but it's worth a try... thanks.

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  • Why might my PHP log file not entirely be text?

    - by Fletcher Moore
    I'm trying to debug a plugin-bloated Wordpress installation; so I've added a very simple homebrew logger that records all the callbacks, which are basically listed in a single, ultimately 250+ row multidimensional array in Wordpress (I can't use print_r() because I need to catch them right before they are called). My logger line is $logger->log("\t" . $callback . "\n"); The logger produces a dandy text file in normal situations, but at two points during this particular task it is adding something which causes my log file to no longer be encoded properly. Gedit (I'm on Ubuntu) won't open the file, claiming to not understand the encoding. In vim, the culprit corrupt callback (which I could not find in the debugger, looking at the array) is about in the middle and printed as ^@lambda_546 and at the end of file there's this cute guy ^M. The ^M and ^@ are blue in my vim, which has no color theme set for .txt files. I don't know what it means. I tried adding an is_string($callback) condition, but I get the same results. Any ideas?

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  • asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

    - by user1566209
    I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

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  • wordpress php > div issue

    - by Philip Bateman
    Thanks in advance for you help Ive been doing this as a lovejob for friends and now im getting quotes of several hundred dollars for minor homepage variation and I'm not sure if its valid. I'm not a programmer myself, just trying hard :) Via the CafePress press75 theme, I'm trying to go from 1 / 2 / 3 column home layout, to 1-2 merged and 3, push the 2nd column data to the right and have the 1st column span as a 16:9 gallery (nextgengallery plugin installed). Is this really a complex thing from a coding perspective? The current guy talking to me is saying its going to cost $700 or 800 AUD to alter, which is rough when the template cost $85.. From this http://shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/shocolatecurrent.jpg to this 'url+Shocolatelooklikethis.jpg' I was able to get the sidebar removed by taking out ‘‘ near the bottom of home.css.. Just can’t get the middle data to flow over it? This would be ideal as a result, as the system puts the latest selected blog post on the homepage, so if we can get rid of the sidebar div and have the text appear where it was, that would be ideal. Removing the sidebar from the bottom of home.php and setting the thumbnail width to say 450 gives me the result im after EXCEPT the text doesn’t fill where the sidebar is, it wraps underneath. Reference 'shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com' for current site Thank you!!! Phil (Melbourne)

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  • Resource placement (optimal strategy)

    - by blackened
    I know that this is not exactly the right place to ask this question, but maybe a wise guy comes across and has the solution. I'm trying to write a computer game and I need an algorithm to solve this question: The game is played between 2 players. Each side has 1.000 dollars. There are three "boxes" and each player writes down the amount of money he is going to place into those boxes. Then these amounts are compared. Whoever placed more money in a box scores 1 point (if draw half point each). Whoever scores more points wins his opponents 1.000 dollars. Example game: Player A: [500, 500, 0] Player B: [333, 333, 334] Player A wins because he won Box A and Box B (but lost Box C). Question: What is the optimal strategy to place the money? I have more questions to ask (algorithm related, not math related) but I need to know the answer to this one first. Update (1): After some more research I've learned that these type of problems/games are called Colonel Blotto Games. I did my best and found few (highly technical) documents on the subject. Cutting it short, the problem I have (as described above) is called simple Blotto Game (only three battlefields with symmetric resources). The difficult ones are the ones with, say, 10+ battle fields with non-symmetric resources. All the documents I've read say that the simple Blotto game is easy to solve. The thing is, none of them actually say what that "easy" solution is.

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  • Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

    - by HotOil
    Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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  • Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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  • What programming technique not done by you, was ahead of its time?

    - by Ferds
    There are developers who understand a technology and produce a solution months or years ahead of its time. I worked with a guy who designed an system using C# beta which would monitor different system components on several servers. He used SQL Server that would pick up these system monitoring components (via reflection) and would instantiate them via an NT Service. The simplicity in this design, was that another developer (me), who understood part of a system, would produce a component that could monitor it, as he had the specialized knowledge of that part of the system. I would derive from the monitor base class (to start, stop and log info), install on the monitoring server GAC and then add an entry to the components table in sql server. Then the main engine would pick up this component and do its magic. I understood parts of it, but couldn't work out by derive from a base class, why add to the GAC etc. This was 6 years ago and it took me months to realize what he achieved. What programming technique not done by you was ahead of its time? EDIT : Techniques that you have seen at work or journals/blogs - I don't mean historically over years.

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